Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UWorld > Set 15 (Neurology) > Flashcards

Set 15 (Neurology) Flashcards

1
Q

Tx of choice for myoclonic seizures

A

Valproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Tx for Tourette syndrome

A

Typical and Atypical neuroleptics

ex: haloperidol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DOC for PARTIAL seizures (complex and simple)

A

Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tonic clonic seizure: DOC

A

Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Narcolepsy results from

A

Depletion of hypocretin-secreting neuron (lateral hypothalamus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

DOC for Toxoplasmosis

A

Combination: pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine

Toxo-Plasomo-Sis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Primary CNS lymphoma

A

Typically: B-lymphocytes
IMC- patients (esp AIDS)
Strongly a/w EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chlorpheniramine
Diphenhydramine
1st gen anti-histamines activties

A

Anti-histamine
Ant-serotonergic
Anti-muscarinic
Anti-alpha adrenergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

VERY long chain
Some branched chain FA (phytanic acid, odd # branch pts)
Metabolism?

A

Peroxisomal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Strict avoidance of CHLOROPHYLL in diet

A 
Refsum disease
(defect in peroxisomal alpha oxidation --> accumulate phytanic acid)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Beta-endorphin: derived from?

A

POMC

ACTH, MSH, Beta-endorphin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

1st pharyngeal arch: nerve

A

Trigeminal n.
Mastication, Myohyoid
Tensor tympani, tensor vili palatini
Anterior belly of digastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Neural crest derivatives of 2nd pharyngeal arch

A

Styloid proces
Stapes
leSSer horn of hyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

2nd pharyngeal arch: nerve

A 
Facial nerve (CN7):
Facial expression
Stylohyoid
Stapedius
Posterior belly of digaStric
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

4th and 6th pharyngeal arches

A

Cartilaginous structures of larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pharyngeal arches: muscular element and bony elements

A

Muscular elements: mesoderm

Bony elements: neural crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

1st pharyngeal arch: neural crest derivatives

A

Temporal bone
Mandible/maxilla
Malleus/Incus
Zygoma/Vomer/Palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Almost all volatile anesthetic increase?

A

Cerebral blood flow –> Increased ICP

Undesirable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Inhalation anesthetic preferred in pats w/ asthma

bronchodilation properties

A

Halothane

Sevoflurane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Death due to TCA toxicity is usually result of?

A

Vfib

Cardiogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

TCA –> arrhythmia

A

inhibit FAST sodium channel conduction –> arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

SSRI + MAO inhibitor

A 
Serotonin syndrome
(HYPERthermia, autonomic instability, rigidity, myoclonus, diaphoresis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Posterior pituitary: embryology

A

Neural tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pineal gland: embryology

A

Neural tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Retina, Lens, Cornea: embryology

A

Lens and Cornea: surface ectoderm

Retina: Neural tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Neural tube derivatives

A

Brain & spinal cord
Posterior pituitary, Pineal gland
Retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Branchial arches: embryology

A

Neural crest (bones & cartilage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Skull bones: embryology

A

Neural crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Serosa lining: embryology

A

Mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra: embryology

A

Kidney and Ureter: Mesoderm

Bladder and Urethra: Endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Heart: embryology

A

Mesoderm

septum & endocardial cushions = neural crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

MS: increased levels of _____________in CSF.

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Sergiline

A

Inhibitor of MAO type B –> prevent MPTP-induced damage of dopaminergic neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Levodopa is used w/?

A

Carbidopa

dopa-decarboxylase inhibor –> do NOT x-BBB, thus decreasing a/e in the periphery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

TiaGAbine
ViGABAtrin
GABApentin

A

Tia: inhibit GABA uptake
Viga: ihibit GABA-transaminase –> increase GABA
GABApentin: increase brain GABA

All can be used for refractory partial seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Topiramate

A

Block Na channel

Enhance effect of GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Injury to Meyer’s loop in temporal lobe

A

Contralateral SUPERIOR quadrantoanopia

38
Q

Meyer’s loop go to?

A

Lingual gyrus of striate cortex

39
Q

Serum sickness: what hypersensitivity?

A

Type 3

40
Q

Acute vs. Hyperacute organ transplant rejection: Hypersensitivity

A

HYPERacute: Type 2 (ex: ABO mismatch, anti-HLA)
Acute: Type 4

41
Q

Hypoxia-induced lactic acidosis is due to?

A

LOW activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase (–> TCA)

HIGH activity of lactate dehydrogenase

42
Q

Pyruvate carboxylase

A

Pyruvate –> oxaloacetate (gluconeogenesis)

43
Q

High bone turnover rate in seen in hyperparathyroidism (esp secondary hyperparathyroidism)

A

Osteitis fibrosa cystica

44
Q 
Young children
Following URI
Hematuria
Abdominal and joint pain
Palpable purpura
A

Henoch-Scholein purpura

IgA-mediated hypersensitivity vasculitis

45
Q

SEVERE Dehydration: GFR, RPF, FF

A

RPF decrease A LOT
GFR decrease (but not as much due to HPA compensation)
FF increases

46
Q

Gross hematuria
Smoking
Rubber, plastic, aromatic amine-containing dyes/textile/leather

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

47
Q

SIADH: lung cancer

A

Small cell lung cancer

48
Q

SIADH results in what type of fluid status?

A

HYPOnatremic EUvolemic

49
Q

HYPOnatremia

Urine is DILUTE

A

Suspicious for primary polydipsia

50
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor: used for?

A

Open-angle and angle-closure glaucoma (bicarb is needed to make aqueous humor)

Diuretic (block bicarb and Na+ reabsorption in PCT)

51
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor: A/E

A

Urine ALKalnization
Metabolic acidosis
HYPOnatremia, HYPOkalemia

52
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome: uric acid precipitation occurs in what nephron segment?

A

Collecting duct

MOST acidic portion

53
Q

Most of the K+ filtered by glomeruli is resorbed in?

A

Proximal tubule

Loop of Henle

54
Q

Potassium regulation: alpha-intercalated cell and principle cell of cortical CT

A

HYPOkalemia –> alpha-intercalated cell –> RESORB (H/K ATPase)

HYPERkalemia –> principle cell –> SECRETE (apical K+ cell)

55
Q

ATN: recovery phase

A

HIGH volume, HYPOtonic urine

HYPOkalemia

56
Q 
Elderly
Bone pain
Anemia (easy fatigability)
Constipation
Renal failure
A

Multiple myeloma

Bence Jones protein–> large eosinophilic cast

57
Q

Anti-GBM disease: deposits

A

LINEAR

IgG and C3

58
Q

Anti-GBM targets?

A

a3 chain of collagen type 4

59
Q

Goodpasture syndrome: characterized by?

A 
Pulmonary hemorrhage (hemoptysis)
RPGN
60
Q

Renal cell carcinoma: macroscopic and microscopic.

A

Macroscopic: golden mass (high lipid content)
Microscopic: proximal tubule cells: clear cytoplasm + eccentric nuclei

61
Q

ADH or Aldosterone: urea reabsorption

A

ADH!

aldosterone responsible for Na reabsorption, K and H secretion

62
Q

Most frequent location of colon adenocarcinoma?

A

Rectosigmoid colon

Present as LEFT sided tumor sx

63
Q

Bilateral renal angiomyolipomas

A

Tuberous sclerosis

64
Q

Heroin abuse, HIV, obesity: causes what type of nephrotic syndrome?

A

FSGS

65
Q

Ureteric bud (Metanephric) gives rise to?

A

Collecting system of kidney

66
Q

Metanephric mesoderm (blastema)

A

Glomeruli
Bowman’s space
Nephron

67
Q

Ototoxic

A

Aminoglycosides
Loop diuretics
Salicylates
Cisplatin

68
Q

NSAID w/ loop diuretic

A

DECREASED diuretic response

Loops increase prostaglandins, NSAID blocks them

69
Q

Neurofibromin

A

NF-1 gene on chromosome 17

Key suppressor of Ras (which is activator of cell growth)

70
Q

Bcl-2 mutation in?

A

Follicular cell lymphoma

71
Q

Bcl-2

A

Apoptosis inhibitor (pro-survival)

72
Q

Type 1 RPGN

A

Goodpasture syndrome

73
Q

Type 2 RPGN

A

Immune complex mediated

PSGN, SLE, IgA nephropathy, Henoch-Schonlein purpura

74
Q

Type 3 RPGN

A

ANCA (GPA)

75
Q

Decreased serum C4

A 
Hereditary angioedema
(lack of C1 esterase INHIBITOR --> unopposed breakdown of C4 by C1 esterase)
76
Q

Spasticity
Choreoathetoid movement
Self-mutilation

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

77
Q

Hypohidrosis
Acroparesthesia
Angiokeratomas
Renal failure

A 
Fabry disease
(alpha-galactosidase deficiency)
78
Q

Accumulation of ceramide trihexoside

A 
Fabry disease
(alpha-galactosidase deficiency)
79
Q

Pill-induced esophagitis

A

Tetracycline antibiotics
Potassium chloride
Bisphosphates

80
Q

Calcium oxalate crystals in urine (envelope shaped)

A

Ethylene glycol ingestion

81
Q

Sudden onset abdominal/flank pain
Gross hematuria
Left-sided varicocele
Nephrotic syndrome

A

Renal vein thrombosis!

nephrotic syndrome –> loss of antithrombin 3

82
Q

Dehydrated patient: majority of water reabsorbed from?

A

Proximal tubule!!!

regardless of hydration state, PT always absorb the greatest %

83
Q

IgG4 antibodies to phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R)

A

Idiopathic membranous nephropathy

84
Q

Lowest cc of PAH in luminal fluid is in?

A

Bowman’s space

85
Q

Glomerular capillary wall thickening w/o increase in cellularity
Spike and dome

A

Membranous glomerulonephritisM

86
Q

Most important prognostic factor in patients with PSGN

A

AGE

87
Q

Early detection of diabetic nephropathy

A

Microalbuminuria

88
Q

Deposits in renal mesangium few days following URI

A

IgA nephropathy

89
Q

IgA nephropathy + extra-renal sx

A

Henoch-Schonlein dz

90
Q

IgA nephropathy vs. PSGN

A

IgA: few DAYs after infection, mesangial deposit, NORMAL complement.

PSGN: few WEEKS, subepithelial humps, low C3.

UWorld (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions