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MTAP 1 FINALS > SEROLOGY > Flashcards

SEROLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Hepatitis A family

A

Picornaviridae

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2
Q

Hepatitis A is also known as

A

Enterovirus 72

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3
Q

Hepatitis ___ characteristics:

Has a viral capsid
non-enveloped icosahedral
RNA gene

A

Hepatitis A

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4
Q

Self-limited disease that does not result in chronic infection (milder than other types)

A

Hepatitis A

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5
Q

Most common cause of hepatitis virus

A

Hepatitis A

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6
Q

Incubation period of Hepatitis A

A

15 to 50 days (average of 28 days)

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7
Q

Hepatitis A is detected through ______ sample

A

stool

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8
Q

Mode of transmission of Hepa A

A

Fecal-oral route

Close person to person contact with an infected person

Sexual contact with an infected person (direct oral-anal contact)

Ingestion of contaminated food or drinks

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9
Q

Hepa A Markers of infection

A

Early shedding of the virus in the stool

Appearance of IgM Anti-HAV with the onset of symptoms (icterus/jaundice)

Development of Anti-HAV IgG and immunity on recovery

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10
Q

Increased liver enzyme levels for Hepa A

A

SGPT/ALT (significantly)
SGOT (increased)
Nucleotidase

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11
Q

Tests for HEPA A

A

ELISA (indirect: antibody)
RIA

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12
Q

Serology of HEPA A

IgM anti-HAV: Positive
IgG anti-HAV: Negative

A

Acute infection

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13
Q

Serology of HEPA A

IgM anti-HAV: Negative
IgG anti-HAV: Positive

A

Old infection

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14
Q

Serology of HEPA A

IgM anti-HAV: negative
IgG anti-HAV: negative

A

incubation/no infection

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15
Q

Hepatitis B AKA

A

serum hepatitis

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16
Q

Hepatitis B virus AKA

A

DANE PARTICLE

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17
Q

Hepatitis that attacks liver that causes acute and chronic liver disease

A

Hepatitis B

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18
Q

Incubation period of Hepatitis B

A

45 to 160 days (average of 120 days)

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19
Q

Hepatitis that is double stranded DNA virus

A

Hepatitis B

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20
Q

Virus family of HEPATITIS B

A

Hepadnaviridae

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21
Q

Mode of transmission for HEPA B

A

Direct contact with infectious blood, semen, and other body fluids primarily through:

Birth to an infected mother (vaginal)

Sexual contact with an infected person

Sharing of contaminated needles, syringe, or other injection drug equipment

Needle sticks or other sharp instrument injuries

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22
Q

Serologic Markers for HBV

A

HBsAg
HBcAg
HBeAg
Anti-HBc
Anti-HBe
Anti-HBs

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23
Q

HBsAg
Anti-HBc
Anti-HBs

All are negative

A

Susceptible to acquire infection

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24
Q

HBsAg: Negative
Anti-HBc: Positive
Anti-HBs: Positive

A

No infection
Has immunity due to natural infection (has been infected)

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25
Q

HBsAg: Negative
Anti-HBc: Negative
Anti-HBs: Positive

A

Immune due to hepatitis B vaccination

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26
Q

HBsAg: Positive
Anti-HBc: Positive
IgM anti-HBc: Positive
Anti-Hbs: Negative

A

Acutely infected

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27
Q

HBsAg: Positive
Anti-HBc: Positive
IgM anti-HBc: Negative
Anti-Hbs: Negative

A

Chronic infection

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28
Q

HBsAg: Negative
Anti-HBc: Positive
Anti-HBs: Negative

A

Resolved infection (most common)

False-positive anti-HBc (susceptible)

Low level chronic infection

Resolving acute infection

Window stage of infection

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29
Q

measurement of the viral agent in the blood; signifies if a patient can be infectious

A

Viral load

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30
Q

Yeast recombinant strain of HBV Vaccine (1982) - common baker’s yeast

A

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

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31
Q

Tests available for HBV detection:

1st generation

A

Ouchterlony

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32
Q

Ouchterlony principle for HBV detection

A

precipitation reaction; double diffusion, double dimension

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33
Q

Tests available for HBV detection:

2nd generation

A

Counter Immunoelectrophoresis

Rheophoresis

Complement fixation

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34
Q

Principle of Rheophoresis

A

precipitation by evaporation

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35
Q

Principle of Counter Immunoelectrophoresis

A

precipitation with current

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36
Q

Tests available for HBV detection:

3rd generation

A

Reverse passive latex agglutination

Reverse passive hemagglutination

ELISA

RIA

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37
Q

Diseases states caused by HBV

A

Acute hepatitis
Fulminant hepatitis
Chronic
Co-infection with Hepa D

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38
Q

Outcome disease from unresolved Hepatitis B

A

Hepatoma

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39
Q

Outcome disease from unresolved HPV

A

Cervical cancer

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40
Q

Outcome disease from unresolved EBV

A

Nasopharyngeal cancer

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41
Q

Serologic Tests for HBV

A

HBsAg
HBeAg
Anti-HBc
Anti-HBs
Anti-HBe

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42
Q

Positive result for HBsAg indicates:

A

presence of ongoing disease; can either be chronic or acute

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43
Q

Positive result for Anti-HBsAg indicates:

A

no active disease; the person is already immuned; long term immunity

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44
Q

Marker of Hepatitis B that has no antigen and is only found on intact cells

A

HBcAg

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45
Q

Positive result for IgM and HBcAg indicates:

A

New infection

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46
Q

Positive result for IgG and anti-HBcAg

A

Old infection

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47
Q

Presence of both IgG and IgM in Hepatitis B indicates:

A

Mid infection

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48
Q

Envelope antigen of Hepa B

A

HBeAg

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49
Q

Positive HBeAg indicates:

A

high infectivity

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50
Q

Positive Anti-HBeAg indicates:

A

Low infectivity

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51
Q

Anti–HBV drug

A

lamivudine

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52
Q

Confirmatory for Hepatitis B infection

A

ELISA

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53
Q

Hepatitis C virus family:

A

Flaviviridae

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54
Q

Blood-borne hepatitis; post-transfusion hepatitis:

A

Hepatitis C

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55
Q

Incubation period of Hepatitis C

A

14 to 180 days (average of 45 days)

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56
Q

Confirmatory test for Hepatitis C

A

RIBA (Recombinant Immunoblot Assay)

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57
Q

Serologic Tests for Hepatitis C

A

Surrogate testing for detecting NANBV/HCV in donated blood (level detection for ALT, Anti-HBc)

Serologic Tests for antibody against HCV Ag (Anti-HCV) (ELISA, RIA)

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58
Q

HCV antibody nonreactive indicates:

A

No HCV antibody detected

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59
Q

HCV antibody reactive

A

Presumptive for HCV infection

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60
Q

HCV antibody reactive, HCV RNA detected

A

Current HCV infection

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61
Q

HCV antibody reactive, HCV RNA not detected

Interpretation:

A

No current HCV infection

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62
Q

RNA virus transmitted parentally and can replicate only with the help of HBV

A

Hepatitis D (HDV)

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63
Q

HDV is also known as:

A

Delta Virus

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64
Q

Helical nucleocapsid actually uses HBV’s envelope, HBsAg (only replicates in cells infected with HBV)

A

Hepatitis D

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65
Q

Coinfection with HBV - HDV mechanism:

A

simultaneously replicates or infect with HBV

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66
Q

Superinfection with HBV- HDV mechanism

A

faster replication; rate of damage and infection to hepatocytes

can infect cells on top of the active infection of HEPA D

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67
Q

Serologic Markers for HDV

A

HDV Ag

IgM anti-HDV and total anti-HDV (IgM and IgG)

Presence of IgM anti-HDV and HBsAg together IgM anti-HBc-

Absence of IgM anti-HBc

Presence of anti-HDV IgG

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68
Q

Serologic marker that is found in early stage of infection of HDV; rapidly disappears on plasma thus, not very useful

A

HDV Ag

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69
Q

Serologic marker for HDV for detecting acute phase

A

IgM anti-HDV
Total anti-HDV (IgM and IgG)

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70
Q

Serologic marker for HDV that detects co-infection

A

Presence of :
IgM anti-HDV
HBsAg
IgM anti-HBc

71
Q

Serologic marker for HDV that indicates presence of superinfection HDV

A

Absence of IgM anti-HBc

72
Q

Serologic marker for HDV that indicates chronic infection

A

Presence of anti-HDV IgG

73
Q

Size of Hepatitis E virus

A

32-34 nanometer

74
Q

HEPA E is also known as

A

calicivirus

75
Q

MOT for HEV

A

fecal oral route (often contaminated water)

76
Q

HEV resembles

A

HAV

77
Q

Pregnant women with HEV may develop:

A

fulminant liver failure and death

78
Q

Characteristics of Hepatitis G

A

RNA- enveloped

79
Q

Family virus of Hepatitis G

A

Flaviviridae

80
Q

MOT of Hepatitis G

A

contact with blood

sexually transmitted

transplacental

81
Q

HGV common worldwide but seems to be ______

A

non-pathogenic

82
Q

also known as kissing disease

A

infectious mononucleosis

83
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis MOT

A

exchange of mouth fluid

84
Q

Causative agent of Infectious mononucleosis

A

Epstein Barr Virus

85
Q

Cell that is infected by Epstein Barr Virus

A

B lymphocytes

86
Q

Epstein Barr Virus inhabits:

A

nasopharyngeal tissues (asymptomatic carriers)

87
Q

atypical lymphocytes/reactive lymphocytes (infected with EBV

A

Downey cells

88
Q

Downey cells causes ___ in RBC

A

cytoplasmic indentation

89
Q

EBV infection is most common during ages ____

A

15 to 25 (adolescence and early adulthood)

90
Q

Antibodies formed from Forssman experiment (Guinea pig cells + Rabbit → ___)

A

Anti-Guinea pig cells and Anti-sheep cells

91
Q

used for any substance that stimulated the formation of sheep hemolysin (anti-sheep cells)

A

Forssman antigen

92
Q

antibodies produced by unrelated species which can cross-react with the same antigen

A

Heterophil antibodies

93
Q

Heterophil antibodies in Infectious Mononucleosis reacts with

A

sheep, ox, horse cells

94
Q

Heterophil antibodies in Infectious Mononucleosis does not react with

A

Guinea pig cells

95
Q

Heterophil antibodies of Forssman is negative for:

A

beef or ox cells

96
Q

Heterophil antibodies in serum sickness is positive to:

A

Sheep Cells
Ox/Beef Cells
Horse cells
Guinea pig cells

97
Q

presumptive or screening test for heterophil antibodies (detects all heterophil antibodies; cannot determine the specificity of heterophil antibody)

A

Paul Bunnel Test

98
Q

Principle for Paul Bunnel Test

A

Hemagglutination

99
Q

Reagent for Paul Bunnel Test

A

2% suspension of sheep rbcs

100
Q

Antibody for Paul Bunnel Test

A

Heterophil antibodies in patient’s serum

101
Q

Positive result for Paul Bunnel Test

A

hemmaglutination - presence of heterophil antibodies

102
Q

Davidson differential test principle:

A

absorption hemagglutination

103
Q

Antigen for Davidson differential test:

A

Guinea pig kidney cells and Beef RBCs

104
Q

Antibody for Davidson differential test

A

Heterophil in patient’s serum

105
Q

Indicator cells for Davidson Differential Test

A

Sheep RBCs

106
Q

Two steps for Davidson differential test

A

Absorption, Hemagglutination

107
Q

Absorption result for tube 1 in davidson differential test:

A

Positive (decrease antibody titer)

108
Q

Absorption result for tube 2 in davidson differential test:

A

Negative (retain high antibody titer)

109
Q

Davidson differential test absorption:

Tube 1 contains

A

Beef cells + heterophil abs from paul bunnel test

110
Q

Davidson differential test absorption:

Tube 2 contains

A

guinea pig kidney cells + heterophil abs from paul bunnel test

111
Q

Davidson differential test hemagglutination:

Tube 1 contains

A

beef cells + sheep RBC

112
Q

Davidson differential test hemagglutination

Tube 2 contains:

A

Guinea pig kidney cells + Sheep RBC

113
Q

Hemagglutination result for tube 1 in davidson differential test:

A

weak agglutination (+1)

114
Q

Hemagglutination result for tube 2 in davidson differential test:

A

+4 (strong agglutination)

115
Q

Davidson Differential Test:

Positive absorption in step 1

Result for step 2:

A

Weak reaction

116
Q

Davidson Differential Test:

Negative absorption in step 1

Result for step 2

A

Strong reaction

117
Q

Absorption pattern:

Beef RBCs: negative
Guinea pig kidney cells: positive

A

Forssman

118
Q

Absorption pattern:

Beef RBCs: positive
Guinea pig kidney cells: negative

A

Infectious mononucleosis

119
Q

Absorption pattern:

Beef RBCs: positive
Guinea pig kidney cells: positive

A

Serum sickness

120
Q

Agglutination pattern after absorption:

Row 1 (Beef RBCs): 4+
Row 2 (Guinea pig kidney cells): 1+

A

Forssman

121
Q

Agglutination pattern after absorption:

Row 1 (Beef RBCs): 1+
Row 2 (Guinea pig kidney cells): 4+

A

Infectious mononucleosis

122
Q

Agglutination pattern:

Row 1 (Beef RBCs): 2+
Row 2 (Guinea pig kidney cells): 2+

A

Serum sickness

123
Q

Principle for Monospot test

A

Absorption hemeagglutination

124
Q

Antigen for Monospot Test

A

Guinea pig kidney cells and beef RBCs

125
Q

Antibody for Monospot Test

A

Heterophil abs in px’s serum

126
Q

Rapid Differential Slide Test using Papain-Treated Sheep RBCs principle:

A

Hemagglutination

127
Q

Inactivates receptor for antibodies in Rapid Differential Slide Test

A

Papain

128
Q

Native Sheep RBCs: Agglutination

Papain-treated Sheep RBCs: No/Weak agglutination

interpretation:

A

Normal serum and IM serum

129
Q

Native Sheep RBCs: Agglutination

Papain-treated Sheep RBCs: Agglutination

A

Serum sickness and other heterophil Antibodies

130
Q

HIV Family

A

Retroviridae

131
Q

Subfamily of HIV

A

Lentivirus, Oncovirus

132
Q

Human Immunodeficiency Virus characteristics

A

Enveloped
Coiled nucleocapsid
Icosahedral with single stranded RNA

133
Q

Unique enzyme of HIV

A

reverse transcriptase

134
Q

Replication site of HIV

A

Inside the nucleus (CD4+ of cell surface)

135
Q

Predominant HIV type

A

HIV 1

136
Q

First identified in France by Luc Montagnier

A

HIV 1

137
Q

In USA, HIV 1 is identified by

A

Robert Gallo (1983)
Jay Levy (1984)

138
Q

HIV 1 is formerly called

A

Human T-cell Lymphocytic Virus type III (HTLV-III)

Lymphadenopathy associated Virus (LAV)

AIDS -associated retrovirus (ARV)

139
Q

HIV 2 is prevalent in

A

West Africa

140
Q

less pathogenic, lower rate transmission HIV

A

HIV 2

141
Q

Mode of transmission for HIV

A

Mainly through sexual intercourse

Transfer of blood or blood products

Babies can be infected before or during birth and from breast feeding

Parental drug use

142
Q

Codes for core structural (group antigen) proteins

VIRAL GENE PRODUCT:

A

P24, p18, p15

143
Q

Gene for core structural (group antigen) proteins

A

Gag

144
Q

Pol (polymerase) function/s

A

Transcribes ssRNA into dsDNA

145
Q

Viral gene product that transcribes ssRNA into dsDNA

A

Reverse transcriptase

146
Q

Viral gene product that binds to CD4+ receptors for HIV infection

A

gp160

147
Q

Viral gene product required for viral infusion of cell

A

gp41

148
Q

gene for gp160 and gp41

A

Env (envelope)

149
Q

Primary effects of HIV infections

A

Extreme leukopenia (lymphocytes, CD4+ lymph)

Formation of giant T-cells and other syncytia

Infected macrophages release the virus in central nervous system

150
Q

Allows human immunodeficiency virus to spread directly from cell to cell making it faster to replicate

A

Formation of giant T-cells and other syncytia

151
Q

Secondary effects of HIV

A

Destruction of CD4 lymphocytes: allows opportunistic infections and malignancy to infect the patient

152
Q

Steps for HIV infection diagnosis

A

Initial screening
Confirmatory

153
Q

Initial screening of HIV is followed up by _____ to rule out false positives

A

Western Blot

154
Q

Laboratory Tests for HIV

A

ELISA (direct/indirect)

Western Blot or Immunofluorescent Test

Indirect Immunofluorescence assay

155
Q

3 bands for HIV confirmatory

A

p24, gp41, gp120/gp160

156
Q

Test to detect HIV in infected cells; also a confirmatory (HIV present in CD4+ cells

A

Indirect Immunofluorescence assay

157
Q

Tests for Detecting HIV Genes

A

In situ hybridization

Filter hybridization

SOUTHERN BLOT

Hybridization-DNA

DNA Amplification

PCR - tests HIV RNA

NORTHERN BLOT - measures mRNA antigen

158
Q

Diagnosis of AIDS is made when a person meets the following criteria:

A

1.Positive for the virus

2.They fulfill one of the additional criteria:

a)CD4: <200 cells/ml of blood

b)CD4: < 14% of all lymphocytes

c)They experience one or more of a CDC provided list of AIDS defining illnesses.

159
Q

> 200 CD4+ cells/ml of blood classification

A

HIV positive

160
Q

<200 CD4+ cells/mL of blood classification

A

AIDS

161
Q

Stage of HIV clinical manifestation:

a)px is either asymptomatic or may show lymphadenopathy

b)Resembles infectious mononucleosis

A

Primary stage

162
Q

Stage of HIV clinical manifestation:

a)State is known as the ARC (AIDS-Related Complex)

b) Quantitative T cell deficiencies with inverted CD4:CD8 ratio (normal 2:1; inverted; 0.5:1)

A

Intermediate stage

163
Q

Stage of HIV clinical manifestation:

a)2-10 years after initial infection

b)A syndrome of CD4 depletion resulting in opportunistic infections and cancers suggestive of cell-mediated immunity defects

A

Final stage

164
Q

Opportunistic pathogens for HIV

A

Pneumocystis carinii (Pneumocystis jirovecii)

M. avium-intracellulare complex

Candida albicans

Cryptosporidium parvum

Toxoplasma gondii

Cryptococcus neoformans

Herpes Simplex (I and II)

Legionella spp.

165
Q

most frequently observed malignancy of HIV

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

166
Q

Tumors in skin and linings of internal organs, lymphomas, cancers of rectum and lung

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

167
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by:

A

HSV type 8

168
Q

Window period for HIV

A

6-8 weeks

169
Q

First antibody detected in serum; persist throughout the infection of HIV

A

Anti-gp41

170
Q

New confirmatory for HIV in the Philippines

A

rHIVda (rapid HIV diagnostic algorithm)

171
Q

Positive reporting of HIV test in rHIVda is recorded after ______

A

Positive result for Test 3

172
Q

If Tests 1, 2, and 3 is negative in rHIVda, report the result as _____

A

inconclusive

173
Q

Patients with negative rHIVda results should comeback after _______

A

2-6 weeks

MTAP 1 FINALS (16 decks)

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