SEP Paper 2

Question 1

Should a cabin crew seat be inoperative, the cabin crew assigned to the affected seat shall occupy:
a) An aisle seat next to an emergency exit
b) The Flight Deck jump seat
c) A passenger seat as close to the associated floor level emergency exit

Answer 1

c) A passenger seat as close to the associated floor level emergency exit

Question 2

Choose the CORRECT statement regarding Sterile Flight Deck procedure:
a) For departure - From aircraft pushback until the “Fasten Seatbelt sign is OFF during climb
b) For arrival - CC shall avoid contacting the Flight Deck once ICC/SCC report for cabin readiness until aircraft is parked
c) Should it become necessary for a CC to contact the Flight Crew in case of any emergency during the sterile Flight Deck period, the CC shall contact them directly through interphone by using the “CAPT” on the handset

Answer 2

a) For departure - From aircraft pushback until the “Fasten Seatbelt sign is OFF during climb

Question 3

What shall CC members brief passengers with infants with regards to Life Vest for Infant?
i) When to use the life vest for infant
ii) The life vest for infant will be collected by CC after landing
iii) The life vest shall not be tampered [unopened and plastic pouch not damage (torn/punctured)]

a) i and ii
b) i and iii
c) All of the above

Answer 3

c) All of the above

Question 4

The enforcement of Flight Deck Absences and Cover Procedures is to ensure that, should the in-seat pilot be incapacitated, there are means to safeguard that:

a) The Flight Crew do not consume the same meal
b) Both the Flight Crew may leave the Flight Deck simultaneously
c) The Flight Deck door is readily accessible

Answer 4

c) The Flight Deck door is readily accessible

Question 5

A Safety Assistant will be required if:

a) A person with mobility impairment so severe that the person is unable to assist in his or her own evacuation from the aircraft
b) A person who has both severe hearing and severe visual impairments, if the person cannot establish some means of communication with AirAsia personnel
c) All of the above

Answer 5

c) All of the above

Question 6

Phraseology used by ICC/SCC should there be any defects/discrepancies after completion of safety equipment, aircraft systems and security check:

a) “Captain, safety equipment, aircraft systems and security check completed with defect/discrepancy detected”
b) No phraseology required
c) “Captain, safety equipment and security check completed”

Answer 6

a) “Captain, safety equipment, aircraft systems and security check completed with defect/discrepancy detected”

Question 7

A pre-flight check of all safety equipment, aircraft systems and security check shall be simultaneously performed on board

a) After an aircraft has been left unattended by all operating crew members for any period of time
b) After a new set of crew has assumed control of the aircraft prior to the first flight
c) All of the above

Answer 7

c) All of the above

Question 8

In the event when the CDLS keypad is unserviceable, reporting of cabin readiness for take-off and landing by the ICC/SCC to the Flight Crew will be:

a) Physically done in the Flight Deck
b) Verbally done via interphone
c) Reporting of cabin readiness is not required

Answer 8

b) Verbally done via interphone

Question 9

Should there be an unanticipated turbulence, the Flight Crew shall immediately switch ON the “Fasten Seatbelt” sign and make PA announcement:

a) “Attention Crew at Stations”
b) “Cabin Crew be seated due to turbulence”
c) “Cabin Crew and passengers remain seated”

Answer 9

b) “Cabin Crew be seated due to turbulence”

Question 10

In an “Ad Hoc” or irregular operations which may require doors to be reopened for specific reason, Flight Crew shall order:

a) Only respective doors to be disarmed
b) Only D1L/D1R to be disarmed
c) All doors to be disarmed

Answer 10

c) All doors to be disarmed

Question 11

Sequence of operation for Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE) AVOX:

a) Open container, remove PBE, pull actuation pin until free, bend forward, widen neck seal and don PBE
b) Sling over shoulder, turn knob ON according arrow, select 2 LPM or 4 LPM, check oxygen flow by inflation of reservoir bag and don mask
c) Release PBE, open container, bend forward, pull actuation pin until free, widen neck seal and don PBE

Answer 11

a) Open container, remove PBE, pull actuation pin until free, bend forward, widen neck seal and don PBE

Question 12

Transmitter Kannad 406 - operation at sea:

i) Check for indications
ii) Erect antenna
iii) Attach lanyard with snap hook to life vest/slide raft
iv) Put transmitter into water

a) iii, ii, iv, i
b) i, ii, iv, iii
c) iii, iv, i, ii

Answer 12

a) iii, ii, iv, i

Question 13

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the Emergency Medical Kit (EMK)?
a) CC may open the EMK to familiarize themselves with its contents
b) Should there be a need to use during inflight, permission from PIC is not required
c) The padlock combination number for the EMK is 7 - 6 - 3

Answer 13

c) The padlock combination number for the EMK is 7 - 6 - 3

Question 14

Below are the pre-flight check for portable therapeutic oxygen bottle - AVOX (02)
i) Correct location
ii) Secure in bracket
iii) Pressure gauge needle pointing within or above the green band
iv) Clean mask in plastic container/pouch with tubing not damaged

a) i, ii and iv
b) i, ii and iii
c) All of the above

Answer 14

c) All of the above

Question 15

Which of the following is TRUE regarding precaution when using BCF Air Total?
a) When used in confined area such as lavatory, don PBE as vapours should result in dizziness, impaired coordination and reduced mental sharpness
b) When using on electrical fire, remove the power source
c) All of the above

Answer 15

c) All of the above

Question 16

Which of the following is TRUE regarding pre-flight check of Lavatory Smoke Detection System?
a) There is no pre-flight check required for the Lavatory Smoke Detection System
b) Ensure detector is not obstructed/tampered in any way to prevent smoke detection
c) Pressure gauge needle pointing within or above the green band

Answer 16

b) Ensure detector is not obstructed/tampered in any way to prevent smoke detection

Question 17

The emergency lighting is manually controlled from:
a) Flight Deck and Forward Attendant Panel (FAP)
b) Forward Attendant Panel (FAP) only
c) Aft Attendant Panel

Answer 17

a) Flight Deck and Forward Attendant Panel (FAP)

Question 18

To disconnect the escape slide/slide raft from the aircraft:
a) Lift up flap, pull disconnect handle and pull daisy chain until free
b) Lift up flap, pull manual inflation handle and cut static
c) Lift up flap, pull disconnect handle and cut static line with knife

Answer 18

c) Lift up flap, pull disconnect handle and cut static line with knife

Question 19

Door warning system close to the view port will illuminate a steady ____ light when the slide is still ARMED and the door handle is lifted up.
a) RED
b) GREEN
c) WHITE

Answer 19

c) WHITE

Question 20

Which of the statements below is TRUE regarding the pre-flight check of main door/exits?
i) Assist handles firm
ii) View port clear
iii) Door in disarmed mode with safety pin inserted with red flag visible
iv) Slide pressure gauge needle in GREEN band

a) i, ii and iv
b) i, iii and iv
c) All of the above

Answer 20

c) All of the above

Question 21

Door 3LR emergency exit are fitted with:
a) Grey coloured single lane escape slide and cannot be disconnected
b) Grey coloured dual lane slide raft and can be disconnected
c) Grey coloured dual lane slide raft and cannot be disconnected

Answer 21

a) Grey coloured single lane escape slide and cannot be disconnected

Question 22

Where is the location of Manual Inflation Handle (MIH) for Doors 3LR?
a) Right hand side of the upper door frame
b) Right hand side at the door girt extension
c) At the door hinge

Answer 22

a) Right hand side of the upper door frame

Question 23

In a DITCHING situation, crew members shall open Door 3R in DISARMED position
a) TRUE
b) FALSE

Answer 23

a) TRUE

Question 24

Pre-flight check for 36 Men Life Raft:
I) Correct location
II) Check availability through view port
III) Seal intact

a) i and ii only
b) i and iii only
c) All of the above

Answer 24

a) i and ii only

Question 25

How many survival kits are there on A321 neo aircraft?
a) 05
b) 04
c) 02

Answer 25

b) 04

Question 26

Dangerous goods are grouped into _____ hazard classes and some hazard classes are further sub divided into hazard divisions
a) Four (4)
b) Nine (9)
c) Eleven (11)

Answer 26

b) Nine (9)

Question 27

During a fire drill, the fire fighter shall attract the attention of a second CC by shouting _____. The second CC will become the communicator.
a) “Help! Fire! Quick!”
b) “I need back up”
c) “Fire, bring FIREX!”

Answer 27

b) “I need back up”

Question 28

How would an EVACUATION signal be given to cabin crew during CRASHLAND emergency?
a) Not required as cabin crew may initiate evacuation order immediately after the aircraft comes to a complete stop
b) Through flashing of ‘Fasten Seatbelt’ sign repeatedly and PA “Brace, Brace, Brace”
c) Activation of evacuation signal from Flight Deck or PA “Evacuate, Evacuate, Evacuate”

Answer 28

c) Activation of evacuation signal from Flight Deck or PA “Evacuate, Evacuate, Evacuate”

Question 29

After a decompression, once PIC advised CC via PA that aircraft is at safe level, Cabin Crew shall first:
a) Contact the Flight Crew, if no response, don portable oxygen bottle and proceed to Flight Deck
b) Bring along portable oxygen bottle, MFAK, AED and check on passengers
c) Sling portable oxygen bottle and check on crew members and passengers

Answer 29

c) Sling portable oxygen bottle and check on crew members and passengers

Question 30

Brace command for crashland and ditching
a) “Emergency, Emergency, Heads Down, Stay Down”
b) “Release Seatbelt, Leave Everything, Shoes Off, Come This Way Hurry, Stand Back, Stand Back”
c) “Stay Down, Stay Down”

Answer 30

a) “Emergency, Emergency, Heads Down, Stay Down”

Question 31

What are the vital safety equipment to be taken down following CRASHLAND emergency?
a) Transmitter only
b) 25 Men Life Raft, Survival Kit and Transmitter only
c) Flashlight, Mandatory First Aid Kit, Megaphone and Transmitter

Answer 31

c) Flashlight, Mandatory First Aid Kit, Megaphone and Transmitter

Question 32

In which situation will the cabin crew launch the 25 men life-raft?
a) Only under the discretion of the PIC
b) When any slide raft is inoperative
c) When slide raft fails to inflate automatically

Answer 32

b) When any slide raft is inoperative

Question 33

During ditching emergency when the door is opened with slide raft inflated, Cabin Crew to check condition is safe and shout
a) “Pull Tag, Board Raft, Move Forward”
b) “Pull Tag, Board Raft, Jump x2”
c) “Pull Tag, Step Out, Slide to the Front, Hurry x 2

Answer 33

a) “Pull Tag, Board Raft, Move Forward”

Question 34

To operate the door handle in a DITCHING situation, crew members should:
a) Raise door handle fully and release for power assist to take over
b) Raise door handle fully, push door out and forward manually with considerable force
c) Raise door handle slightly, check white slide armed indicator light does not illuminate and push door out and forward

Answer 34

a) Raise door handle fully and release for power assist to take over

Question 35

Function of Heaving Line and Ring:
a) Used to repair any tears found on the slide raft
b) When launched in water, it will prevent raft from spinning and drifting
c) Used to rescue survivors in water to pull and bring them to the slide raft

Answer 35

c) Used to rescue survivors in water to pull and bring them to the slide raft

Question 36

CPR should only be discontinued if
a) The casualty is pronounced dead by a qualified Medical Doctor
b) The person is presumed dead if CPR has been continued for 30 minutes or longer with no sign of life within the period and if available, no shocks advised by an on board Automated External Defibrillator (AED)
c) All of the above

Answer 36

c) All of the above

Question 37

Correct sequence of DRCABD (faulty question):

i) Give two slow rescue breaths and check if chest rises
ii) Check surrounding is safe to self, casualty and other passengers
iii) Start CPR immediately and begin with chest compressions
iv) Open the airway by Head Tilt Chin Lift method
v) Check for RESPONSE, RESCUE and RESPIRATION
vi) Once AED is placed next to casualty’s loudly “AED is here”

a) ii, v, ii, iv, i, vi
b) iii, v, ii, iv, i, vi
c) ii, iii, v, i, iv, vi

Answer 37

a) ii, v, ii, iv, i, vi

Question 38

Location and pulse rate for infant:
a) Feel pulse at radial or carotid, 60 - 80 beats per minute
b) Feel pulse at brachial, 100 - 120 beats per minute
c) Feel pulse at femoral, 60 - 80 beats per minute

Answer 38

b) Feel pulse at brachial, 100 - 120 beats per minute

Question 39

Where are the indirect pressure points to stop bleeding?
a) Radial and Carotid Artery
b) Carotid and Femoral Artery
c) Femoral and Brachial Artery

Answer 39

c) Femoral and Brachial Artery

Question 40

Treatment for First Degree Burn:
a) Cool burn area with cool running water for approximately 15 minutes
b) Apply Bacidin cream and dry sterile dressing (bandage loosely)
c) All of the above

Answer 40

c) All of the above

Question 41

A passenger fractured his arm following a fall after an unexpected turbulence, what do you do to help?
a) Apply direct pressure and elevate the affected arm
b) Immobilise the injured part, apply ice compress with a splint
c) Immobilise the affected arm with splint or arm/elevated sling

Answer 41

c) Immobilise the affected arm with splint or arm/elevated sling

Question 42

Signs of death includes one of the following:
a) Breathing and pulse present
b) Pupils are fixed and dilated
c) All of the above

Answer 42

b) Pupils are fixed and dilated

Question 43

The compression rate for adult in CPR
a) 90 - 100 times per minute
b) 100 -120 times per minute
c) 80 - 100 times per minute

Answer 43

b) 100 -120 times per minute

Question 44

Pain in the chest, shortness of breath, pain last for a few minutes and will stop it if casualty is resting. What condition is the casualty suffering from?
a) Stroke
b) Angina Pectoris
c) Cardiac Arrest

Answer 44

b) Angina Pectoris

Question 45

Methods to stop EXTERNAL BLEEDING:
a) Direct Pressure - Elevate - Indirect Pressure
b) Direct Pressure - Apply Cold Compress
c) Indirect Pressure - Ice Compress - Elevate

Answer 45

a) Direct Pressure - Elevate - Indirect Pressure

Question 46

Treatment for seizures in children:
i) DRCABD
ii) Remove any clothing/covering from the child
iii) Move the child to cool environment
iv) Apply cool compress by using normal tap water (no ice)

a) ii and iv
b) i, ii and iv
c) All of the above

Answer 46

c) All of the above

Question 47

Below is the treatment for Shock. Which statement is TRUE?
a) Loosen tight clothing and administer oxygen
b) Position the casualty flat with legs elevated
c) All of the above

Answer 47

c) All of the above

Question 48

Rescue breathing for ADULT:
a) 01 breath every 03 seconds, 20 breaths per minute
b) 01 breath every 05 seconds, 20 breaths per minute
c) 01 breath every 05 seconds, 12 breaths per minute

Answer 48

c) 01 breath every 05 seconds, 12 breaths per minute

Question 49

A passenger fractured his arm following a fall after an unexpected turbulence, what do you do to help?
a) Immobilise the fracture with a splint or arm/elevated sling
b) Apply direct pressure to fracture and elevate the affected arm
c) Relax the injured part, apply ice compress and immobilise the fracture

Answer 49

a) Immobilise the fracture with a splint or arm/elevated sling

Question 50

Treatment for open wound:
a) Control bleeding, bandage firmly to prevent infection a immobilise the affected part and keep the casualty at rest
b) Apply ice compress to the entire injured area for 10 minutes time. Remove for 05 minutes and then reapply
c) Cool with running water for 30 minutes

Answer 50

a) Control bleeding, bandage firmly to prevent infection a immobilise the affected part and keep the casualty at rest