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A ✨Staff Testing✨ > Security > Flashcards

Security Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of operations security? (17.7)

A

To reduce the vulnerability of USAF missions by eliminating or reducing successful adversary collection and exploitation of critical information

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2
Q

Which security process uses a cycle to identify, analyze, and control critical information that applies to all activities used to prepare, sustain, or employ forces during all phases of operations? (17.7)

A

Operations security

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3
Q

Which process do USAF units utilize to identify vulnerabilities and indicators of their day-to-day activities? (17.7)

A

A profiling process

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4
Q

What methodology do operations security program managers and signature managers use to apply measures or countermeasures to hide, control, or simulate indicators? (17.7)

A

Signature management

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5
Q

What three areas does operations security focus on? (17.1)

A

(a) Identify those actions that can be observed by adversary intelligence systems
(b) Determine what specific indications could be collected, analyzed, and interpreted to derive critical information in time to be useful to adversaries
(c) Select and execute measures that eliminate or reduce to an acceptable level the vulnerabilities of friendly actions to adversary exploitation

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6
Q

What involves a series of analyses to examine the planning, preparation, execution, and post-execution phases of any operation or activity across the entire spectrum of military action and in any operational environment? (17.7)

A

Operations security

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7
Q

What type of analysis provides decision-makers with a means of weighing the risk to their operations? (17.7)

A

Operations security

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8
Q

True or False? Decision-makers must determine the amount of risk they are willing to accept in particular operational circumstances in the same way as operational risk management allows commanders to assess risk in mission planning. (17.7)

A

True

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9
Q

When is operational effectiveness enhanced? (17.7)

A

When commanders and other decision-makers apply operations security from the earliest stages of planning

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10
Q

What must be integrated into operational, support, exercise, acquisition planning, and day-to-day activities to ensure a seamless transition to contingency operations? (17.7)

A

Operations security principles

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11
Q

What five distinct actions comprise the operations security process? (17.1)

A

(1) Identify critical information
(2) Analyze threats
(3) Analyze vulnerabilities
(4) Assess risk
(5) Apply appropriate operations security countermeasures

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12
Q

What are friendly, detectable actions and open-source information that can be interpreted or pieced together by an adversary to derive critical information? (17.8)

A

Operations security indicators

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13
Q

What are the five basic characteristics of operations security indicators that make them potentially valuable to an adversary? (17.2)

A

(1) Signatures–a characteristic of an indicator that is identifiable or stands out
(2) Associations–the relationship of an indicator to other information or activities
(3) Profiles–each functional activity generates its own set of more-or-less unique signatures and associations; the sum of these signatures and associations is the activity’s profile
(4) Contrasts–any difference observed between an activity’s standard profile and most recent or current actions
(5) Exposure–refers to when and for how long an indicator is observed

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14
Q

What is a characteristic of an indicator that is identifiable or stands out? (17.8)

A

Signature

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15
Q

What is the active defense or exploitation of operational profiles at a given military installation? (17.8)

A

Signature management

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16
Q

What is accomplished by implementing measures to deny adversary collection of critical information? (17.8)

A

Defense of operational profiles

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17
Q

Each functional activity generates its own set of more-or-less unique signatures and associations. What is the sum of these signatures and associations? (17.8)

A

The activity’s profile

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18
Q

What is used to map the local operating environment and capture process points that present key signatures and profiles with critical information value? (17.8)

A

Profiling process

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19
Q

What refers to when and for how long an indicator is observed? (17.8)

A

Exposure

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20
Q

True or False? The longer an indicator is observed, the better chance an adversary can form associations and update the profile of operational activities. (17.8)

A

True

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21
Q

What is a subset of the USAF security enterprise and consists of the core security disciplines (personnel, industrial, and information security) used to determine military, civilian, and contractor personnel eligibility to access classified information, ensure the protection of classified information released or disclosed to industry in connection with classified contracts, and protect classified information and Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) that, if subject to unauthorized disclosure, could reasonably be expected to cause damage to national security? (17.9)

A

Information protection

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22
Q

True or False? All personnel in the Air Force are responsible for protecting classified information and controlled unclassified information under their custody and control. (17.10)

A

True

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23
Q

Which source provides guidance for managing classified information and controlled unclassified information? (17.10)

A

DoDM5200.01V1_AFMAN16-1404V1

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24
Q

Classified information is designated accordingly to protect national security. What are its three levels of classification? (17.10)

A

Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential

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25
Q

Who is responsible for providing the proper safeguards for classified information, reporting security incidents, and understanding the sanctions for noncompliance? (17.10)

A

Each individual

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26
Q

Which level of classification shall be applied to information that the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause “exceptionally grave” damage to the national security that the original classification authority is able to identify or describe? (17.10)

A

Top Secret

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27
Q

Which level of classification shall be applied to information that the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause “serious” damage to the national security that the original classification authority is able to identify or describe? (17.10)

A

Secret

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28
Q

Which level of classification shall be applied to information that the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause damage to the national security that the original classification authority is able to identify or describe? (17.10)

A

Confidential

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29
Q

What is the information the government creates or possesses, or that an entity creates or possesses for or on behalf of the government, that a law, regulation, or Government-wide policy requires or permits an agency to handle using safeguarding or dissemination controls? (17.11)

A

Controlled unclassified information

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30
Q

Which publication provides the requirements, controls, and protective measures developed for controlled unclassified information materials? (17.11)

A

DoDI 5200.48_AFI 16-1403

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31
Q

What is it called when there is an initial decision by an original classification authority that an item of information could reasonably be expected to cause identifiable or describable damage to the national security subjected to unauthorized disclosure and requires protection in the interest of national security? (17.11)

A

Original classification

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32
Q

True or False? Only officials designated in writing may make original classification decisions. (17.11)

A

True

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33
Q

Consistent with which policy, does USAF identify, classify, downgrade, declassify, mark, protect, and destroy classified information? CUI will also be protected per it as well. (17.11)

A

National policy

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34
Q

Within the Department of Defense, what is the requirement for all cleared personnel to derivatively classify information? (17.11)

A

They must have received initial training before making derivative classification decisions, and refresher training every year

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35
Q

Which classification is the incorporating, paraphrasing, restating, or generating classified information in a new form or document? (17.11)

A

Derivative

Note: Derivative classifiers must use authorized types of sources for making decisions.

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36
Q

True or false? One of the most important responsibilities of the derivative classifier is to observe, but not respect the classification determinations made by an original classification authority. (17.11)

A

False

Note: One of the most important responsibilities of the derivative classifier is to “observe and respect” the classification determinations made by an original classification authority.

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37
Q

Which manual will be referenced to clearly identify all classified information by marking, designation, or electronic labelling? (17.11)

A

DoDM5200.01V2_AFMAN16-1404V2

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38
Q

What serves to: (a) alert holders to the presence of classified information; (b) identify the information needing protection; (c) indicate the level of classification assigned to the information; (d) provide guidance on downgrading (if any) and declassification; (e) give information on the sources of and reasons for classification; (f) notify holders of special access, control, or safeguarding requirements; and (g) promote information sharing, facilitate judicious use of resources, and simplify management through implementation of uniform and standardized processes. (17.11)

A

Marking classified information

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39
Q

How must every classified document be marked to show? (17.11)

A

Highest classification of information contained within the document

Note: The marking must be conspicuous enough to alert anyone handling the document that the document is classified.

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40
Q

What are the three most common markings on a classified document? (17.11)

A

(1) Banner lines, (2) Portion markings, and (3) Classification authority block

Note: Every document will contain the overall classification of the document, banner lines, portion markings indicating the classification level of specific classified information within the document, the classification authority block, date of origin, and downgrading instructions, if any, and declassification instructions.

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41
Q

True or False? Everyone who works with classified information is personally responsible for taking proper precautions to ensure unauthorized persons do not gain access to classified information. (17.11)

A

True

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42
Q

What must a person have before granting access to classified information? (17.11)

A

(1) Security clearance eligibility
(2) Signed Standard Form (SF) 312, Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement
(3) A need-to-know

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43
Q

Who must determine whether the person receiving the information has been granted the appropriate security clearance access by proper authority? (17.11)

A

Individual with authorized possession, knowledge, or control of the information

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44
Q

What must be placed on classified documents not in secure storage to prevent unauthorized persons from viewing the information? (17.11)

A

Coversheet

Note: An authorized person shall keep classified material removed from storage under constant surveillance.

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45
Q

What forms (Cover Sheets) are used to cover classified information outside of storage? (17.11)

A

(a) SF 703, Top Secret
(b) SF 704, Secret
(c) SF 705, Confidential

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46
Q

Which form is used to cover Top Secret classified information outside of storage? (17.11)

A

SF 703

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47
Q

Which form is used to cover Secret classified information outside of storage? (17.11)

A

SF 704

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48
Q

Which form is used to cover Confidential classified information outside of storage? (17.11)

A

SF 705

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49
Q

Which form, titled Activity Security Checklist, is used to record the end of the day security checks, ensuring all vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for storing classified material are checked? (17.11)

A

SF 701

Note: This form is required for any area where classified information is used or stored.

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50
Q

True or False? Classified information systems should specifically be stored in a general services administration approved safe or in buildings or areas cleared for open storage of classified. (17.11)

A

True

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51
Q

What must anyone finding classified material out of proper control do? (17.12)

A

Take custody of and safeguard the material, and immediately notify their commander, supervisor, or security manager

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52
Q

Which manual formally defines terms associated with security incidents? (17.12)

A

DoDM5200.01V3_AFMAN16-1404V3

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53
Q

What is a security incident involving failure to comply with requirements which cannot reasonably be expected to, and does not, result in the loss, of classified records, or in the suspected or actual compromise of classified information? (17.12)

A

Infraction

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54
Q

An infraction may be unintentional or inadvertent, and does not constitute a security violation; however, if left uncorrected, what could it lead to? (17.12)

A

Security violation or compromise

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55
Q

What security incidents require an inquiry to facilitate immediate corrective action but does not require an in-depth investigation? (17.12)

A

Infractions

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56
Q

What are security incidents that indicate knowing, willful, and negligent for security regulations, and result in, or could be expected to result in the loss of classified records or the compromise of classified information? (17.12)

A

Violations

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57
Q

What is a security incident (more specifically, a violation) in which there is an unauthorized disclosure of classified information (i.e., disclosure to a person(s) who does not have a valid clearance, authorized access, or a need to know)? (17.12)

A

Compromise

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58
Q

What is a security incident when records containing classified information cannot be physically located or accounted for? This could include classified records/equipment is discovered missing during an audit and which cannot be immediately located. (17.12)

A

Loss

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59
Q

What is a security incident when classified data is introduced either onto an unclassified information system or to an information system with a lower level of classification, or to a system not accredited to process data of that restrictive category? (17.12)

A

Data spill

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60
Q

What shall personnel do if classified information appears in the media or public internet sites, or if approached by a media representative? (17.12)

A

Do not make any statement or comment that confirms the accuracy of or verifies the information requiring protection

Note: Report the matter as instructed by the appropriate DoD Component guidance, but do not discuss it with anyone who does not, in the case of classified information, have an appropriate security clearance and need to know

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61
Q

True or False? USAF policy is to identify, in classified contracts, specific information and sensitive resources that must be protected against compromise or loss while entrusted to industry. (17.13)

A

True

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62
Q

Which program entails policies and procedures that ensure military, civilian, and contractor personnel who access classified information or occupy a sensitive position are consistent with interests of national security? This involves, for the most part, procedures for obtaining proper security clearances required for performing official duties. (17.14)

A

Personnel Security Program

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63
Q

Who is the designated authority to grant, deny, and revoke security clearance eligibility using the Department of Defense 13 adjudicative guidelines, while applying the whole person concept and mitigating factors? (17.14)

A

Department of Defense Central Adjudication Facility

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64
Q

What option is given to individuals if the security clearance eligibility is denied or revoked? (17.14)

A

Granted due process and may appeal

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65
Q

Which act (as amended) establishes a code of fair information practices that govern the collection, maintenance, use, and dissemination of personal information about individuals that is maintained in a system of records by federal agencies? (17.15)

A

Privacy Act of 1974

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66
Q

What provides individuals with a means by which to seek access to and amend their records, and sets forth agency recordkeeping requirements? (17.15)

A

The Privacy Act

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67
Q

True or False? Privacy Act rights are personal to the individual who is the subject of the record and cannot be asserted derivatively by others. (17.15)

A

True

68
Q

True or False? The Privacy Act prohibits the disclosure of information from a system of records without the written consent of the subject individual. (17.15)

A

True

69
Q

True or False? Individuals do not have the right to request access or amendment to their records in a system. (17.15)

A

False

Note: Individuals “have the right” to request access or amendment to their records in a system.

70
Q

True or False? The parent of any minor, or the legal guardian of an incompetent, may NOT act on behalf of that individual. (17.15)

A

False

Note: The parent of any minor, or the legal guardian of an incompetent, “may” act on behalf of that individual.

71
Q

What limits the collection of information to what the law or executive orders authorize? (17.15)

A

Privacy Act

72
Q

What time period must system of records notices be published in the federal register to allow the public to comment? (17.15)

A

30-day

Note: Such collection must not conflict with the rights guaranteed by the First Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.

73
Q

What must be given when individuals are asked to provide personal information about themselves for collection in a system of records? (17.15)

A

Privacy Act statement

74
Q

What is a group of any records under the control of any agency from which information is retrieved by the individual’s name, number, or unique identifier? (17.15)

A

Privacy Act system of records

75
Q

When may Department of Defense personnel disclose records to other offices in the Department of Defense? (17.15)

A

When there is “an official need to know”

Note: In addition, information may be released for a disclosed specified purpose with the subject’s consent.

76
Q

When may Department of Defense personnel disclose records to other federal government agencies or individuals? (17.15)

A

When a discloser of record is a “routine use” published in the system of records notices or as authorized by a Privacy Act exception

Note: In addition, information may be released for a disclosed specified purpose with the subject’s consent.

77
Q

Why must personally identifiable information in a system of records be safeguarded? (17.15)

A

To ensure “an official need to know” access of the records and avoid actions that could result in harm, embarrassment, or unfairness to the individual

78
Q

What is defined as, “A loss of control, compromise, unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized acquisition, unauthorized access, or any similar term referring to situations where persons other than authorized users and for any other than authorized purpose have access or potential access to personally identifiable information, whether physical or electronic?” (17.15)

A

Personally identifiable information breach

79
Q

Which AFI provides information and procedures for safeguarding and reporting of personally identifiable information breaches? (17.15)

A

AFI 33-332, Air Force Privacy and Civil Liberties Program

80
Q

True or False? The Freedom of Information Act provides access to federal agency records (or parts of these records) except those protected from release by specific exemptions. (17.16)

A

True

Note: Freedom of Information Act requests are written requests that cite or imply the Freedom of Information Act.

81
Q

What mandatory time limits does the Freedom of Information Act impose to either deny the request or release the requested records? (17.16)

A

20 workdays

Note: The law permits an additional 10-workday extension in the event that specific unusual circumstances exist.

82
Q

Under the Freedom of Information Act, an authority can either deny a request or release a requested record. What are denials required to receive? (17.16)

A

Notification of appeal rights

Note: Requesters can file an appeal or litigate.

83
Q

Which publication provides specific policy and procedures on the Freedom of Information Act and for guidance on disclosing records to the public? (17.16)

A

DoDM 5400.07-R_AFMAN 33-302

84
Q

What is defined as the prevention of damage to, protection of, and restoration of computers, electronic communications systems, wire communication, and electronic communication, including information contained therein, to ensure its availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and nonrepudiation? (17.17)

A

Cybersecurity

85
Q

What disciplines comprise Cybersecurity? (17.17)

A

(a) Air Force Risk Management Framework
(b) IT controls/countermeasures
(c) Communications security
(d) TEMPEST (formerly known as emissions security)
(e) AF Assessment and Authorization (formerly known as Certification and Accreditation Program)
(f) Cybersecurity Workforce Improvement Program

86
Q

Which AFI describes risk management and cybersecurity as representations of dynamic, multi-disciplinary sets of challenges? (17.17)

A

AFI 17-130, Cybersecurity Program Management

87
Q

Which management strategy must ensure that the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of all information owned or held in trust by the USAF is protected? It must also be integrated into all key mission and business processes. (17.17)

A

Cybersecurity Program Risk Management Strategy

88
Q

Which management strategy must ensure that the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of all information owned or held in trust by the USAF is protected? It must also be integrated into all key mission and business processes. (17.17)

A

Cybersecurity Program Risk Management Strategy

89
Q

What is ensured when cybersecurity capabilities are balanced, including safety, reliability, interoperability, and ease of use, while maximizing performance, as well as promoting transparency and interoperability with USAF mission partners? (17.17)

A

Operational agility

90
Q

Which training are all USAF personnel required to complete prior to computer system access and annually thereafter? (17.17)

A

Information Assurance Awareness

91
Q

What are the five functions of the Air Force Cybersecurity Program? (17.17)

A

(1) Identify–develop and maintain the organizational understanding required to manage cybersecurity risk
(2) Protect–implement controls to ensure the delivery of mission critical infrastructure services
(3) Detect–possess the ability to detect cybersecurity events when they occur
(4) Respond–possess the ability to take action regarding detected cybersecurity events
(5) Recover–possess the ability to remain operationally resilient and to restore capabilities or services that were impaired due to cybersecurity events

92
Q

What consists of measures and controls that ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information systems assets, including hardware, software, firmware, and information being processed, stored, and communicated? (17.18)

A

Computer security

93
Q

True or False? Government-provided hardware and software are for official use and limited authorized personal use only. (17.18)

A

True

94
Q

True or False? Limited personal use may be of any duration and frequency as long as it does not adversely affect performance of official duties, overburden systems, or reflect adversely on the USAF or the Department of Defense. (17.18)

A

False

Note: Limited personal use must be of reasonable duration and frequency “that has been approved by the supervisor” and does not adversely affect performance of official duties, overburden systems, or reflect adversely on the Air Force or the Department of Defense.

95
Q

What two publications govern the use of federal government resources when accessing internet-based capabilities in an authorized personal or unofficial capacity? (17.18)

A

(1) AFI 10-701
(2) DoD 5500.07-R, Joint Ethics Regulation

96
Q

What is a discrete set of information resources organized for the collection, processing, maintenance, use, sharing, dissemination, or disposition of information? (17.19)

A

Information system

Note: Information systems also include specialized systems, such as industrial/process controls, telephone switching and private branch systems, and environmental controls.

97
Q

What occurs by controlling physical access to facilities and data; ensuring user access to information system resources is based upon a favorable background investigation, security clearance, and need to know (for classified); and ensuring protection of applicable unclassified, sensitive, and classified information through encryption? (17.19)

A

Protection

98
Q

What is any action, device, procedure, or technique that meets or opposes (counters) a threat, vulnerability, or attack by eliminating, preventing, or minimizing damage, or by discovering and reporting the event so corrective action can be taken? (17.19)

A

Countermeasure

99
Q

True or False? Every USAF information system has vulnerabilities and is susceptible to exploitation. (17.19)

A

True

100
Q

What is any circumstance or event with the potential to adversely impact any operation or function through an information system via unauthorized access, destruction, disclosure, modification of information, or denial of service? (17.19)

A

Threats

101
Q

What are three steps involved in protecting information systems from viruses and other forms of malicious logic? These steps include a combination of human and technological countermeasures to ensure the protection is maintained throughout the lifecycle of the information system. (17.19)

A

(1) Infection
(2) Detection
(3) Reaction

102
Q

What is the invasion of information system applications, processes, or services by a virus or malware code causing the information system to malfunction? (17.19)

A

Infection

103
Q

What is a signature or behavior-based antivirus system that signals when an anomaly caused by a virus or malware occurs? (17.19)

A

Detection

104
Q

How should personnel react when notified of a virus or malware detection? (17.19)

A

By immediately notifying their information system security officer and following local procedures

105
Q

What are information systems, such as portable electronic devices, laptops, smartphones, and other handheld devices that can store data locally and access USAF managed networks through mobile access capabilities? (17.20)

A

Mobile computing devices

106
Q

True or False? All wireless systems (including associated peripheral devices, operating systems, applications, network connection methods, and services) must be approved prior to processing Department of Defense information. (17.20)

A

True

107
Q

Who maintains documented approval authority and inventory information on all approved devices? (17.20)

A

Information systems security officer

Note: Users of mobile devices will sign a detailed user agreement outlining the responsibilities and restrictions for use.

108
Q

True or False? Public computing facilities or services, such as hotel business centers, to process government-owned unclassified, sensitive, or classified information is prohibited. (17.21)

A

True

Note: Public computing facilities or services include any information technology resources not under your private or U.S. Governmental control.

109
Q

True or False? Use of e-mail applications, messaging software, or web applications to access web-based government services constitutes a compromise of login credentials and must be reported as a security incident according to the current Air Force guidance on computer security. (17.21)

A

True

110
Q

What refers to measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from information systems of the U.S. Government related to national security and to ensure the authenticity of such information systems? (17.22)

A

Communications security

111
Q

What results from applying security measures to communications and information systems generating, handling, storing, processing, or using classified or sensitive information, the loss of which could adversely affect national security interests? (17.22)

A

Communications security protection

Note: Communications security also entails applying physical security measures to communications security information or materials.

112
Q

What is a component of communications security resulting from the provision and proper use of technically sound cryptosystems? (17.22)

A

Cryptosecurity

113
Q

What is a component of communications security resulting from the application of measures designed to protect transmissions from interception and exploitation by means other than cryptoanalysis? (17.22)

A

Transmission security

Note: Examples of transmission security measures include using secured communications systems, registered mail, secure telephone and facsimile equipment, manual cryptosystems, call signs, or authentication to transmit classified information.

114
Q

What is communications security resulting from the use of all physical measures necessary to safeguard communications security material from access by unauthorized persons? (17.22)

A

Physical security

Note: Physical security measures include the application of control procedures and physical barriers.

115
Q

What ensures continued integrity, prevents access by unauthorized persons, and controls the spread of communications security techniques and technology when not in the best interest of the United States and our allies? (17.22)

A

Physical security

116
Q

What involves verifying the need to know and clearance of personnel granted access, following proper storage and handling procedures, accurately accounting for all materials, transporting materials using authorized means, and immediately reporting the loss or possible compromise of materials? (17.22)

A

Physical security

117
Q

What, formerly known as emissions security, is protection resulting from all measures taken to deny unauthorized persons information of value that may be derived from the interception and analysis of compromising emanations from cryptographic equipment, information systems, and telecommunications systems? (17.23)

A

TEMPEST

118
Q

What is the objective of TEMPEST? (17.23)

A

To deny access to classified, and in some instances unclassified, information that contains compromising emanations within an inspectable space

119
Q

What is the area in which it would be difficult for an adversary with specialized equipment to attempt to intercept compromising emanations without being detected? (17.23)

A

Inspectable space

120
Q

Which measures, such as classified and unclassified equipment separation, shielding, and grounding, are implemented to reduce the risk of compromising emanations? (17.23)

A

TEMPEST countermeasures

121
Q

In what five ways does the Air Force seek to deter or limit the effects of terrorist acts? (17.24)

A

(1) giving guidance on collecting and disseminating timely threat information
(2) providing training to all Air Force members
(3) developing comprehensive plans to deter and counter terrorist incidents
(4) allocating funds and personnel
(5) implementing antiterrorism measures

122
Q

Who, at the strategic level, is responsible for ensuring the timely collection processing, analysis, production, and dissemination of foreign intelligence, current intelligence, and national-level intelligence information concerning terrorist activities, terrorist organizations, and force protection issues? (17.24)

A

(a) Deputy Chief of Staff for Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (Air Force/A2)
(b) Director for Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance Strategy, Doctrine and Force Development (Air Force/A2D)

123
Q

Who is the lead USAF agency for collection, investigation, analysis, and response for threats arising from terrorists, criminal activity, foreign intelligence, and security services? (17.24)

A

Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

124
Q

Who is primarily focused on countering adversary intelligence collection activities against U.S. Armed Forces and will act as the USAF single point of contact with federal, state, local, and foreign nation law enforcement, counterintelligence, and security agencies? (17.24)

A

Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

125
Q

What can commanders at all levels who understand a threat, use to assess their ability to prevent, survive, and prepare to respond to an attack? (17.24)

A

Terrorism threat assessment

Note: Commanders at all levels should encourage personnel under their command to report information on individuals, events, or situations that could pose a threat to the security of Department of Defense personnel, families, facilities, and resources.

126
Q

Which assessment requires the identification of a full range of known or estimated terrorist threat capabilities (including the use or threat of use of chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, or high-yield explosives and weapons of mass destruction)? (17.24)

A

Terrorism threat assessment

127
Q

When do commanders conduct comprehensive field and staff training to exercise antiterrorism plans, to include antiterrorism physical security measures, continuity of operations, critical asset risk management, and emergency management plans? (17.24)

A

At least annually

Note: Antiterrorism training should include terrorism scenarios specific to the location and be based on current enemy tactics, techniques, procedures, and lessons learned.

128
Q

When will current baseline through force protection condition ‘Charlie’ measures be exercised at installations and self-supported separate facilities? (17.24)

A

Annually

129
Q

Which program is to provide random, multiple security measures that consistently change the look of an installation’s antiterrorism program? (17.24)

A

Random antiterrorism measures program

130
Q

What introduces uncertainty to an installation’s overall force protection program to defeat surveillance attempts and to make random antiterrorism measures difficult for a terrorist to accurately predict our actions? (17.24)

A

Random antiterrorism measures

Note: Random antiterrorism measures times for implementation, location, and duration shall be regularly changed to avoid predictability and its execution broad based and involve all units and personnel.

131
Q

Where do criminal and terrorist acts against individuals usually occur? (17.25)

A

Outside the home and after the victim’s habits have been established

132
Q

What is the most predictable habit of individuals that can be observed by criminals and terrorists? (17.25)

A

Route traveled on a regular basis

133
Q

Always check for fingerprints, smudges, or tampering of the interior and exterior of your vehicle, including the tires and trunk. What should you do if you detect something out of the ordinary? (17.25)

A

Do not touch anything and immediately contact the local authorities

134
Q

What are some ground transportation security measures taken when overseas? (17.19)

A

(a) Travel with a companion
(b) Select a plain car and avoid using government vehicles, when possible
(c) Do not openly display military equipment or decals with military affiliations
(d) Keep doors locked at all times
(e) Do not let someone you do not know direct you to a specific taxi
(f) Ensure taxis are licensed and have safety equipment (seat belts at a minimum)
(g) Ensure that the face of the taxi driver and the picture on the license are the same

135
Q

Before traveling overseas, what publication ensures all requirements for travel to a particular country are met? (17.26)

A

Foreign Clearance Guide

136
Q

What required briefing is given by your security officer, antiterrorism officers, or the appropriate counterintelligence or security organization within three months prior to traveling overseas? (17.26)

A

‘Area of responsibility’ threat briefing

137
Q

What are some security measures that should be taken when using commercial air transportation overseas? (17.20)

A

(a) Use office symbols on travel documents if the word description denotes a sensitive position
(b) Use military contracted flag carriers
(c) Avoid traveling through high-risk areas
(d) Do not use rank or military address on tickets
(e) Do not discuss military affiliation
(f) Have proper identification to show airline and immigration officials
(g) Do not carry classified documents unless absolutely mission essential
(h) Dress conservatively
(i) Wear clothing that covers military or United States-affiliated tattoos
(j) Carry plain civilian luggage
(k) Do not wear or carry distinct military items

138
Q

True or False? Never cut tape, strings, or other wrappings on a suspect package. (17.27)

A

True

139
Q

True or False? If a suspect package has been moved, place the package in a plastic bag to prevent any leakage of contents. (17.27)

A

True

140
Q

True or False? If handling mail suspected of containing chemical or biological contaminants, DO NOT wash hands thoroughly with soap and water. (17.27)

A

False

141
Q

True or False? Report suspicious mail immediately and make a list of personnel who were in the room when the suspicious envelope or package was identified. (17.27)

A

True

142
Q

True or False? Individual vigilance is integral to the antiterrorism program, whether stateside or overseas. (17.28)

A

True

143
Q

True or False? Traveling in large groups helps ensure personal protection. (17.28)

A

False

Note: Traveling in small groups helps ensure personal protection.

144
Q

True or False? As a personal protection, always advise associates or family members of your destination and anticipated time of arrival. (17.28)

A

True

145
Q

True or False? Spouses and children should always practice basic precautions for personal security. Familiarize family members with the local terrorist threat and regularly review protective measures and techniques. (17.29)

A

True

Note: Ensure family members know what to do in any type of emergency.

146
Q

True or False? Restricting the possession of house keys helps ensure home and family security. (17.29)

A

True

147
Q

True or False? Showing your name, rank, or other personal information on all envelopes or other items helps ensure home and family security. (17.29)

A

False

Note: Destroying all envelopes or other items that show your name, rank, or other personal information helps ensure home and family security.

148
Q

What is human intelligence? (17.30)

A

A category of intelligence derived from information collected and provided by human sources and collectors, and where the human being is the primary collection instrument

Note: Counterintelligence is information gathered and activities conducted to protect against such threats.

149
Q

What is the systematic effort to procure information to answer specific collection requirements by direct and indirect questioning techniques of a person who is in the custody of the forces conducting the questioning? (17.30)

A

Interrogation

Note: Proper questioning of enemy combatants, enemy prisoners of war, or other detainees by trained and certified Department of Defense interrogators may result in information provided either willingly or unwittingly.

150
Q

Through what three types of elicitation of sources may designated and fully trained military human intelligence collection personnel develop information? (17.30)

A

(1) “Walk-in” sources who, without solicitation, make the first contact with human intelligence personnel
(2) Developed sources who are met over a period of time and provide information based on operational requirements
(3) Unwitting persons with access to sensitive information

151
Q

What is the process of questioning cooperating human sources to satisfy intelligence requirements, consistent with applicable law? The source usually is not in custody and is usually willing to cooperate. It may be conducted at all echelons and in all operational environments. (17.30)

A

Debriefing

152
Q

What methods may information be obtained from a variety of human sources? (17.30)

A

(a) Debriefing
(b) Face-to-face meetings
(c) Conversations
(d) Elicitation

153
Q

Captured documents and media, when properly processed and exploited, may provide valuable information, such as adversary plans and intentions, force locations, equipment capabilities, and logistical status. What does the category of “captured documents and media” include? (17.30)

A

All media capable of storing fixed information, as well as computer storage material

Note: This operation is not a primary human intelligence function but may be conducted by any intelligence personnel with appropriate language support.

154
Q

What is defined as the act of obtaining, delivering, transmitting, communicating, or receiving information about national defense with intent or reason to believe the information may be used to the injury of the United States or to the advantage of any foreign nation? (17.30)

A

Espionage

155
Q

What is an act or acts inciting military or civilian personnel of the Department of Defense to violate laws, disobey lawful orders or regulations, or disrupt military activities with the willful intent, thereby to interfere with or impair the loyalty, morale, or discipline of the U.S. Armed Forces? (17.30)

A

Subversion

156
Q

What is an act or acts with intent to injure, interfere with, or obstruct the national defense of a country by willfully injuring or destroying, or attempting to injure or destroy, any national defense or war material, premises, or utilities, as well as human and natural resources? (17.30)

A

Sabotage

157
Q

What is the calculated use of unlawful violence or threat of unlawful violence to inculcate fear intended to coerce or intimidate governments or societies in the pursuit of goals that are generally political, religious, or ideological? (17.30)

A

Terrorism

158
Q

AFI 71-101, Volume 4, Counterintelligence, requires individuals who have reportable contacts or acquire reportable information, to immediately report the contact or information either verbally or in writing to AFOSI. Within how many days must an individual report this contact? (17.31)

A

30 days

159
Q

Which office initiates and conducts all counterintelligence investigations, operations, collections, and other related activities for the USAF? (17.31)

A

Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

160
Q

When appropriate, or when overseas, with whom does the AFOSI coordinate on counterintelligence investigations, operations, collections, and other related activities? (17.31)

A

Central Intelligence Agency and the Federal Bureau of Investigation

161
Q

Which office is the installation-level training agency for counterintelligence awareness briefings, and is the sole USAF repository for the collection and retention of reportable information? (17.31)

A

AFOSI

162
Q

What is defined as any exchange of information directed to an individual, including solicited or unsolicited telephone calls, e-mail, radio contact, and face-to-face meetings? (17.31)

A

Contact

Note: For example, contact with a foreign diplomatic establishment or a request by anyone for illegal or unauthorized access to classified or unclassified controlled information.

163
Q

What is defined as any exchange of information directed to an individual, including solicited or unsolicited telephone calls, e-mail, radio contact, and face-to-face meetings? (17.31)

A

Contact

Note: For example, contact with a foreign diplomatic establishment or a request by anyone for illegal or unauthorized access to classified or unclassified controlled information.

164
Q

Which AFI covers the Eagle Eyes program? It is a USAF Antiterrorism initiative that enlists the eyes and ears of all AF military, civilians, contractors, and dependents. (17.31)

A

AFI 10-245

165
Q

Which program is a reporting mechanism for the base community on how to report suspicious behavior or possible terrorist activity? (17.31)

A

Eagle Eyes program

166
Q

What special obligation do individuals affiliated with the U.S. Armed Forces have as a result of a formal agreement between the Department of Defense and U.S. Secret Service? (17.32)

A

To report information regarding the safety and protection of the U.S. President or anyone else under the protection of the U.S. Secret Service

Note: This includes the Vice President, the President- and Vice President-elect, and visiting heads of foreign states or foreign governments. In most cases, former Presidents and their spouses are also afforded lifetime protection of the U.S. Secret Service.

Note: This is specified in AFI 71-101, Volume 2, Protective Service Matters

A ✨Staff Testing✨ (14 decks)

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