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A ✨Staff Testing✨ > Enforcing Mil Standards > Flashcards

Enforcing Mil Standards Flashcards

1
Q

Which program is a leadership tool that indicates where command involvement is needed to correct systematic, programmatic, or procedural weaknesses? (19.9)

A

Air Force Complaints Resolution Program

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2
Q

Under which Air Force program does a member have the right to present a complaint without fear of reprisal and codified in Department of Defense and Air Force guidance directives and instructions? (19.9)

A

Air Force Complaints Resolution Program

Note: Complaints may be submitted in person, by phone, through electronic means, or in writing to supervisors, first sergeants, commanders, members of any level of the IG system, someone higher in the chain of command, or members of Congress.

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3
Q

Who may investigate allegations of reprisal and restriction under the Military Whistleblower’s Protection Act? (19.9)

A

Inspector General (IG)

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4
Q

When can complainants be addressed outside the Air Force Complaints Resolution Program? (19.9)

A

When some relevant evidence that the process was mishandled or handled prejudicially before an IG channel will process a complaint of mishandling

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5
Q

According to AFI 1-1, who is responsible for the issuance of public statements on official USAF matters? (19.11)

A

Cognizant unit or installation commanders and their public affairs representatives

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6
Q

What does a properly worded and approved official statement help do? (19.11)

A

Avoids statements that do not reflect official USAF policy or that could be misleading to the public if taken out of context

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7
Q

What should personnel do to ensure USAF official information is presented professionally? (19.11)

A

(a) Make certain it is accurate, prompt, and factual
(b) Is confined to their particular areas of expertise
(c) Avoids a hypothetical and speculative nature
(d) Accurately reflects USAF policy
(e) Is presented simply and honestly
(f) Complies with the spirit and letter of the Secretary of Defense’s principles for public information

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8
Q

Which AFI is titled: Public Affairs Operations? (19.11)

A

AFI 35-101

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9
Q

What is each USAF member responsible for obtaining before releasing any proposed statement, text, or imagery to the public? This includes digital products being loaded on an unrestricted website. (19.11)

A

Obtaining the necessary review and clearance, starting with public affairs

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10
Q

Which publication must members reference classification requirements to ensure the information revealed, whether official or unofficial, is appropriate for release? (19.11)

A

DoDM5200.01V1_AFMAN16-1404V1

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11
Q

True or False? Every Airman has the right to individual expressions of sincerely held beliefs, to include conscience, moral principles or religious beliefs, without exception. (19.12)

A

False

Note: Every Airman has the right to individual expressions of sincerely held beliefs, to include conscience, moral principles or religious beliefs, “unless those expressions would have an adverse impact on military readiness, unit cohesion, good order, discipline, health and safety, or mission accomplishment.”

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12
Q

According to AFI 1-1, leaders at all levels must balance constitutional protections for their own free exercise of religion. What must they ensure regarding their words and actions? (19.12)

A

Their words and actions cannot reasonably be construed to be officially endorsing, disapproving, or extending preferential treatment for any faith, belief, or absence of belief

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13
Q

Airmen requesting religious accommodation must continue to comply with directives, instructions, and lawful orders until the request is approved. If the request is not approved, what conditions must the decision be based upon? (19.4)

A

(a) Must be based on the facts presented
(b) Must directly relate to the compelling government interest of military readiness, unit cohesion, good order, discipline, health, safety, or mission accomplishment
(c) Must be by the least restrictive means necessary to avoid the adverse impact

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14
Q

According to AFI 1-1, generally, as an individual, an Airman enjoys the same rights and have the same responsibilities as other citizens. However, as a member of the USAF, what is limited in some cases regarding these rights? (19.13)

A

The manner in which an Airman exercises his or her rights

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15
Q

True or False? While on RegAF status, members are prohibited from engaging in certain political activities to maintain good order and discipline and to avoid conflicts of interest and the appearance of improper endorsement in political matters. (19.13)

A

True

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16
Q

While USAF members do have the right and duty as American citizens to vote and voice opinions concerning political matters, of what must they be careful? (19.13)

A

That personal opinions and activities are not directly, or by implication, represented as those of the USAF

Note: Examples of political activities that may be prohibited or associated with restrictions include: political rallies, speaking engagements, contributions, endorsements, sponsorship, campaigns, and demonstrations.

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17
Q

What should be done before engaging in any political activities? (19.13)

A

Be sure to review applicable USAF instructions and guidance

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18
Q

Which AFI provides detailed information on what USAF members may or may not be allowed to do regarding political activities? (19.13)

A

AFI 51-508

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19
Q

Which DoD directive includes guidance on political activities for all U.S. Armed Forces? (19.13)

A

DoD Directive 1344.10, Political Activities by Members of the Armed Forces

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20
Q

According to USAF policy, what does alcohol abuse negatively affect? (19.6)

A

Public behavior, duty performance, and physical and mental health

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21
Q

According to AFI 1-1, what is USAF policy regarding alcohol abuse? (19.14)

A

(a) To prevent alcohol abuse and alcoholism among its personnel and dependents
(b) To assist USAF personnel in resolving alcohol-related problems
(c) To ensure humane management and administrative disposition of those who are unable or unwilling to be restored to full, effective functioning

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22
Q

True or False? State and foreign country drinking age laws, including those in a deployed environment, must be obeyed both on and off-duty. (19.14)

A

True

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23
Q

True or false? Use of alcohol must not adversely affect duty performance or conduct on or off-duty, to include the ability to be recalled, if specifically required, (when serving in an on-call status) during scheduled off-duty time. (19.14)

A

True

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24
Q

True or False? Drunk driving can lead to disciplinary action, including criminal prosecution under the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) and local and state criminal laws. (19.14)

A

True

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25
Q

What is a person with a blood alcohol concentration greater than .08 considered, even without any other evidence? (19.14)

A

Per se impaired

Note: “Per se” is a Latin phrase that means “by itself.”

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26
Q

Which AFI, titled Air Force Motor Vehicle Traffic Supervision, applies to everyone with military installation driving privileges? (19.14)

A

AFI 31-218

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27
Q

When is a person presumed to be impaired? (19.14)

A

If a member has a blood alcohol percentage of 0.05 but less than 0.08

Note: This standard may be considered with other competent evidence in determining whether the person is under the influence of alcohol.

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28
Q

How long is the driving privilege suspension for driving or being in physical control of a motor vehicle while under the influence of intoxicating liquor at a blood concentration of 0.08 percent or greater? (19.14)

A

One year

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29
Q

What is the Department of Defense policy on substance use in the Department of Defense? (19.15)

A

To prevent and eliminate problematic substance use

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30
Q

True or False? According to AFI 2-2, Air Force Drug Standards, the illegal use of drugs, or improper use of legal drugs, is prohibited and will not be tolerated. (19.15)

A

False

Note: According to “AFI 1-1, Air Force Standards,” the illegal use of drugs, or improper use of legal drugs, is prohibited and will not be tolerated.

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31
Q

In which AFI is drug abuse described as the wrongful use, possession, distribution, or introduction onto a military installation or other property or facility under military supervision, of a controlled substance, prescription medication, over-the-counter medication, or intoxicating substance (other than alcohol)? (19.15)

A

In AFI 90-507, Military Drug Demand Reduction Program

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32
Q

What term means without legal justification or excuse, and includes use contrary to the directions of the manufacturer or prescribing healthcare provider, and use of any intoxicating substance not intended for human ingestion? (19.15)

A

“Wrongful”

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33
Q

True or False? Drug abuse includes inhalant abuse (sometimes referred to as huffing) and steroid use, other than that specifically prescribed by a competent medical authority. (19.15)

A

True

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34
Q

True or False? The knowing use of any intoxicating substance (other than the lawful use of alcohol, tobacco products, or prescription drugs), which is inhaled, injected, consumed, or introduced into the body in any manner to alter mood or function, is prohibited and will not be tolerated. (19.15)

A

True

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35
Q

True or False? The possession of an intoxicating substance with the intent to use in a manner that would alter mood or function, without legal authorization, is prohibited and will not be tolerated. (19.15)

A

True

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36
Q

True or False? Failure by military personnel to comply with prohibitions of intoxicating substances may result in prosecution under the UCMJ or state and local laws, as well as adverse administrative actions up to and including administrative separation. (19.15)

A

True

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37
Q

From whom are USAF members with substance abuse problems encouraged to seek assistance? (19.15)

A

Unit commander, first sergeant, substance abuse counselor, or a military medical professional through the Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) Program

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38
Q

Which two programs include substance use/misuse prevention, education, treatment, and urinalysis testing? (19.15)

A

Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) and drug demand reduction program

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39
Q

What will all patients diagnosed with a substance use disorder and entered into Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) be recommended for? (19.15)

A

Limited duty, indicating the patient is not worldwide qualified

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40
Q

True or False? Individuals who experience problems related to substance use/misuse will receive counseling and treatment as needed, while not being accountable for unacceptable behavior until after treatment. (19.15)

A

False

Note: Individuals who experience problems related to substance use/misuse will receive counseling and treatment as needed; “however, all Air Force members are held accountable for unacceptable behavior.” (19.7)

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41
Q

To what process will unit commanders refer all service members when substance use or misuse is suspected to be a contributing factor in any misconduct, such as when driving under the influence, public intoxication, drunk and disorderly conduct, or spouse or child abuse and maltreatment? (19.15)

A

Assessment

Note: Commanders who fail to comply with this requirement place the member at increased risk for developing severe substance problems and may jeopardize the safety of others and ultimately mission accomplishment.

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42
Q

According to which AFI does the USAF conduct drug testing of personnel? (19.16)

A

AFI 90-507, Military Drug Demand Reduction Program

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43
Q

What is an effective deterrent for the illegal use of drugs; therefore, USAF military members are subject to it regardless of grade, status, or position? (19.16)

A

Drug testing

Note: Military members may receive an order or may voluntarily consent to provide urine samples at any time.

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44
Q

Military members who fail to comply with an order to provide a urine sample are subject to which action? (19.16)

A

Punitive action under the UCMJ

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45
Q

Which testing should only be used as a last resort because the results may not be used for disciplinary action under the UCMJ or to characterize an administrative discharge? (19.16)

A

Commander-directed testing

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46
Q

In general, what is an examination conducted as an incident of command? Its primary purpose is to determine and ensure the security, military fitness, or good order and discipline of a unit, organization, or installation? (19.16)

A

Inspection

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47
Q

True or False? Inspections may utilize any reasonable natural or technological aid and may be conducted only when given notice to those inspected. (19.16)

A

False

Note: Inspections may utilize any reasonable natural or technological aid and may be conducted “with or without notice” to those inspected.

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48
Q

What may a positive result of a urine sample be used for? (19.16)

A

(a) To refer a member for a substance use evaluation
(b) As evidence to support disciplinary action under the UCMJ or administrative discharge action
(c) As a consideration on the issue of characterization of discharge in administrative discharges

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49
Q

In order to act on probable cause search, what is required to seize a urine specimen? (19.16)

A

Search and seizure authorization from the appropriate commander, military judge, or military magistrate

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50
Q

What exists when there is a reasonable belief that evidence of illegal drug use will be found in the system of the member to be tested? (19.16)

A

Probable cause

Note: Results may be used as evidence to support disciplinary action under the UCMJ, or administrative discharge action.

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51
Q

True or False? Results of any examination conducted for a valid medical purpose, including emergency medical treatment, periodic physical examination, and other such examinations necessary for diagnostic or treatment purposes, may be used to identify drug abusers. (19.16)

A

True

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52
Q

True or False? Results of any examination conducted for a valid medical purpose may be used as evidence to support disciplinary action under the UCMJ or administrative discharge action. (19.16)

A

True

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53
Q

USAF members (not currently under investigation or pending action), with alcohol problems, substance use problems, or personal drug use or possession, are encouraged to seek assistance from the unit commander, first sergeant, substance use counselor, or a military medical professional. What follows an assessment? (19.16)

A

ADAPT program manager will consult with the treatment team and determine an appropriate clinical course of action

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54
Q

True or False? Commanders may use voluntary self-identification of a substance use problem against a member in an action under the UCMJ or when determining the appropriate characterization of service in an administrative discharge action. (19.16)

A

False

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55
Q

True or False? Social interaction that contributes appropriately to unit cohesiveness and effectiveness is encouraged. (19.17)

A

True

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56
Q

While personal relationships between USAF members are normally matters of individual choice and judgment, when do they become matters of official concern? (19.17)

A

When they adversely affect or have the reasonable potential to affect the USAF by eroding morale, good order, discipline, respect for authority, unit cohesion, or mission accomplishment

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57
Q

As stated in AFI 1-1, what is vital to the effective operation of all organizations and to maintaining good order and discipline? (19.17)

A

Appropriate professional relationships

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58
Q

Which distinction makes the maintenance of professional relationships in the military more critical than in civilian organizations? (19.17)

A

The nature of the military mission requires absolute confidence in command and an unhesitating adherence to orders that may result in inconvenience, hardships, and at times, injury or death

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59
Q

Which AFI establishes responsibilities for maintaining professional relationships? (19.17)

A

AFI 36-2909, Air Force Professional Relationships and Conduct

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60
Q

What, whether pursued on or off-duty, are those relationships that detract from the authority of superiors, or result in, or reasonably create the appearance of, favoritism, misuse of office or position, or the abandonment of organizational goals for personal interests? (19.17)

A

Unprofessional relationships

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61
Q

Once established, which relationships do not go unnoticed by other members of a unit, and call into question the superior’s impartiality toward the subordinate and his or her peers? (19.17)

A

Unprofessional relationships

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62
Q

Which relationships must be avoided between officers, between enlisted members, between officers and enlisted members, between military personnel and civilian employees or contractor personnel, as well as within and across the military branches? (19.17)

A

Unprofessional relationships

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63
Q

Which relationships have the potential for becoming unprofessional? (19.17)

A

Relationships in which one member exercises supervisory or command authority over another

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64
Q

What increases the risk that a relationship will be, or will be perceived to be, unprofessional because senior members in military organizations have direct or indirect organizational influence over the duties and careers of junior members? (19.17)

A

Differences in grade

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65
Q

True or False? The ability of a senior member to directly or indirectly influence assignments, promotion recommendations, duties, awards, and other privileges and benefits, places only the junior member in susceptible situations. (19.17)

A

False

Note: The ability of a senior member to directly or indirectly influence assignments, promotion recommendations, duties, awards, and other privileges and benefits, places “both the senior member and the junior member” in susceptible situations.

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66
Q

Fraternization is an unprofessional relationship between an officer and enlisted member. In which article of the Manual for Courts-Martial is this specifically addressed? (19.17)

A

Article 134

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67
Q

What is the term for when a relationship between an officer and an enlisted member puts the enlisted member on terms of military equality with the officer in a way that prejudices good order and discipline in the U.S. Armed Forces or brings discredit upon the U.S. armed forces? (19.17)

A

Fraternization

Note: This custom of the service recognizes that officers will not form personal relationships with enlisted members on terms of military equality, whether on- or off-duty.

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68
Q

True or False? A contact or association constitutes fraternization depending on the surrounding circumstances, such as whether the conduct has compromised the chain of command; has resulted in the appearance of partiality; or has otherwise undermined good order, discipline, authority, or morale. (19.17)

A

True

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69
Q

True or False? Prohibition on fraternization extends within the organizational and chain of command lines, and does not include members among or across different services. (19.17)

A

False

Note: Prohibition on fraternization extends beyond organizational and chain of command lines “to include” members among or across different services. In short, it extends to all officer and enlisted relationships.

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70
Q

True or False? When fraternization occurs, the officer will be held primarily responsible, and is the only member subject to disciplinary action for fraternization. An enlisted member, however, involved in consensual fraternization is still engaged in an unprofessional relationship and is likewise subject to discipline under Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. (19.17)

A

True

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71
Q

The USAF Equal Opportunity Program fosters and supports equal opportunity and must be carried out in the day-to-day actions of all personnel. What will the USAF not tolerate in the day-to-day actions of all its personnel? (19.18)

A

Unlawful discrimination, harassment, or reprisal against individuals who engage in protected activity

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72
Q

In taking proactive steps to prevent and eliminate unlawful discriminatory or harassment behavior, what must Airmen actively make a top priority in doing so? (19.18)

A

Workplace professionalism

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73
Q

Who is charged with taking immediate and appropriate actions to address inappropriate behaviors or allegations once they are made aware and are encouraged to consult with their local equal opportunity office before initiating action to resolve such concerns? (19.18)

A

Commanders and supervisors

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74
Q

Which DAFI is titled: Equal Opportunity Program Military and Civilian? (19.18)

A

DAFI 36-2710

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75
Q

What is established to ensure USAF personnel can easily and freely report to proper equal opportunity authorities any allegations of sexual harassment or discrimination, and provide information on sexual harassment and equal opportunity issues? (19.18)

A

Air Force Sexual Harassment/Unlawful Discrimination (24-hour) Hotline

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76
Q

Which program’s primary objective is to eradicate unlawful discrimination and foster a positive human relations environment? (19.18)

A

Equal Opportunity Program

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77
Q

Which office exists at every installation and stands ready to assist individuals, supervisors, and commanders with eradicating every form of unlawful discrimination and harassment from the workplace? (19.18)

A

Equal Opportunity office

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78
Q

To improve the Air Force human relations environment, which office offers an array of counseling, mediation, education, assessment, training, general assistance, and complaint resolution services? (19.18)

A

Equal Opportunity

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79
Q

What can the use of disparaging terms regarding an individual’s birthplace, ancestry, culture, or the linguistic characteristics common to a specific ethnic group constitute? (19.18)

A

Unlawful discrimination

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80
Q

What can the use of terms that degrade or connote negative statements pertaining to race, color, religion, national origin, sex, age, genetic information, and mental or physical disability constitute? (19.18)

A

Unlawful discrimination

Note: These terms include insults, printed material, visual material, signs, symbols, posters, or insignia.

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81
Q

What does unlawful discrimination against military members include? (19.18)

A

(a) Any unlawful action that denies equal opportunities to persons or groups based on their race, color, religion, national origin,
sex (to include gender identity), and sexual orientation
(b) Verbal, physical, and non-verbal forms, as well as social media
(c) Unacceptable on- or off-base, 24 hours a day

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82
Q

What type of discrimination includes any unlawful employment practice that occurs such as when an employer fails or refuses to hire or promote or discharges or otherwise discriminates against any individual with respect to compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment? (19.18)

A

Unlawful discrimination against civilian employees

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83
Q

What term includes any behavior against military members or civilian employees that is unwelcome or offensive to a reasonable person, whether oral, written, or physical, that creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive environment? (19.19)

A

Harassment

Note: Harassment includes use of electronic communications, social media, other forms of communication, and in person.

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84
Q

What behavior may include offensive jokes, epithets, ridicule or mockery, insults or put-downs, displays of offensive objects or imagery, stereotyping, intimidating acts, veiled threats of violence, threatening or provoking remarks, racial or other slurs, derogatory remarks about a person’s accent, or displays of racially offensive symbols? (19.19)

A

Harassment

Note: Activities or actions undertaken for a proper military or governmental purpose, such as combat survival training, are not considered harassment.

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85
Q

What are six distinct forms of harassment identified by Air Force Equal Opportunity program? (19.19)

A

Discriminatory, sexual, bullying, hazing, retaliation, and reprisal

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86
Q

What is taking or threatening to take an adverse personnel action against a person, or wrongfully withholding or threatening to withhold a favorable personnel action with respect to a person, as a result of that person reporting a criminal offense or making a protected communication, or planning to do either? (19.19)

A

Retaliation

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87
Q

What is a communication made to a Member of Congress or an Inspector General, or to certain other authorities when the communication discloses evidence of a violation of law or regulation, including sexual harassment and unlawful discrimination? (19.19)

A

Protected communication

Note: Protected communication may also relate to gross mismanagement, fraud, waste and abuse or a substantial danger to public health and safety.

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88
Q

Which form of harassment is conduct that is unwelcome based on race, color, religion, sex (including gender identity), national origin, or sexual orientation? (19.19)

A

Discriminatory

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89
Q

Which form of harassment is conduct of any deliberate or repeated unwelcome verbal comments or gestures of a sexual nature by any military member or civilian employee? (19.19)

A

Sexual

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90
Q

Sexual harassment is conduct that involves unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and deliberate or repeated offensive comments or gestures of a sexual nature. When can this occur? (19.11)

A

(a) Submission to such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of a person’s job, pay, or career
(b) Submission to or rejection of such conduct by a person is used as a basis for career or employment decisions affecting that person
(c) Such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual’s work performance or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive environment
(d) Is so severe or pervasive that a reasonable person would perceive, and the victim does perceive, the environment as hostile or offensive

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91
Q

True or False? Any person in a supervisory or command position who uses or condones any form of sexual behavior to control, influence, or affect the career, pay, or job of a military member or civilian employee is engaging in sexual harassment. (19.19)

A

True

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92
Q

True or False: Sexual harassment includes use of electronic communications, including social media, other forms of communication, and in person. (19.19)

A

True

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93
Q

True or False? There is no requirement for concrete psychological harm to the complainant for behavior to constitute sexual harassment. (19.19)

A

True

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94
Q

True or False? Behavior is sufficient to constitute sexual harassment if it is so severe or pervasive that a reasonable person would perceive, and the complainant does perceive, the environment as hostile or offensive. (19.19)

A

True

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95
Q

Which form of harassment includes acts of aggression by a military member or civilian employee with a nexus to military service, with the intent of harming a service member either physically or psychologically, without a proper military or other governmental purpose? (19.19)

A

Bullying

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96
Q

Which form of harassment may involve the singling out of an individual from his or her coworkers, or unit, for ridicule because he or she is considered different or weak? (19.19)

A

Bullying

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97
Q

Which form of harassment often involves an imbalance of power between the aggressor and the victim? (19.19)

A

Bullying

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98
Q

True or False? Bullying can be conducted through the use of electronic devices or communications and by other means including social media, as well as in person. (19.19)

A

True

99
Q

True or False? Service members may be responsible for an act of bullying even if there was actual or implied consent from the victim and regardless of the grade or rank, status, or service of the victim. (19.19)

A

True

100
Q

True or False? Bullying is prohibited in all circumstances and environments, including off-duty or “unofficial” unit functions and settings. (19.19)

A

True

101
Q

True or False? Bullying does not include properly directed command or organizational activities that serve a proper military or other governmental purpose, or the requisite training activities required to prepare for these activities, such as command-authorized physical training. (19.19)

A

True

102
Q

Which form of harassment includes conduct through which military members or civilian employees, without a proper military or other governmental purpose but with a nexus to military service, physically or psychologically injure or create a risk of physical or psychological injury to service members for the purpose of: initiation into, admission into, affiliation with, change in status or position within, or a condition for continued membership in any military or Department of Defense civilian organization? (19.19)

A

Hazing

103
Q

True or False? Hazing can be conducted through the use of electronic devices or communications and by other means including social media, as well as in person. (19.19)

A

True

104
Q

True or False? Service members are not responsible for an act of hazing if there was actual consent from the victim regardless of the grade or rank, status, or service of the victim. (19.19)

A

False

Note: Service members “may be” responsible for an act of hazing “even if there was actual or implied consent” from the victim and regardless of the grade or rank, status, or service of the victim. (19.11)

105
Q

True or False? Hazing is prohibited in all circumstances and environments including off-duty or “unofficial” unit functions and settings. (19.19)

A

True

106
Q

True or False? Hazing does not include properly directed command or organizational activities that serve a proper military or other governmental purpose, or the requisite training activities required to prepare for these activities, such as, administrative corrective measures, extra military instruction, or command-authorized physical training. (19.19)

A

True

107
Q

What is taking or threatening to take an adverse personnel action against a person, or wrongfully withholding or threatening to withhold a favorable personnel action with respect to a person, as a result of that person reporting a criminal offense or making a protected communication, or planning to do either? (19.19)

A

Retaliation

Note: Retaliation for reporting a criminal offense can occur in several ways, including reprisal. Investigation of complaints of non-criminal retaliatory actions other than reprisal will be processed consistent with service-specific regulations.

108
Q

What is a communication made to a Member of Congress or an Inspector General, or to certain other authorities when the communication discloses evidence of a violation of law or regulation, including sexual harassment and unlawful discrimination? (19.19)

A

Protected communication

Note: Protected communication may also relate to gross mismanagement, fraud, waste and abuse or a substantial danger to public health and safety.

109
Q

Who may file military Equal Opportunity complaints? (19.20)

A

Only military personnel, their family members, and retirees

110
Q

To file an Equal Opportunity complaint, the individual must be the subject of the alleged unlawful discrimination or sexual harassment. Which of the following statements is true? (19.20)

A

Commanders, supervisors, or coworkers, may not file a complaint on behalf of another individual

111
Q

Where will Equal Opportunity office refer all third-party individuals who are aware of specific allegations of military Equal Opportunity policy violations? (19.20)

A

To their respective chain of command

112
Q

When will the Equal Opportunity office NOT accept military complaints from military members, family members, or retirees? (19.20)

A

If the concerns are related to off-base or Department of Defense civilian employment

113
Q

What is the purpose of the military informal complaint process? (19.20)

A

To attempt resolution at the lowest possible level

114
Q

How may an individual informally resolve an unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment complaint? (19.20)

A

(a) Orally address or prepare written correspondence to the alleged offender
(b) Request intervention by a coworker
(c) Opt to use the alternate dispute resolution process
(d) Use the chain of command, such as requesting assistance from the supervisor, first sergeant, or commander

115
Q

True or False? There is no time limit for filing informal complaints and no requirement for commander approval before accepting informal complaints. (19.20)

A

True

116
Q

What is the purpose of the military formal complaint process? (19.20)

A

To enable military members, retirees, and their family members to formally present allegations of unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment to the Equal Opportunity office with the goal of attempting resolution through a complaint clarification process

117
Q

What is the complaint clarification process? (19.20)

A

The process of gathering information regarding a formal military complaint or hotline complaint to determine whether a ‘preponderance of evidence’ exists to demonstrate that unlawful discrimination or harassment occurred

118
Q

What does the complaint clarification include when gathering information regarding a military formal complaint? (19.20)

A

Interviewing or taking statements from complainants, potential witnesses, alleged offenders, and anyone else who may have information relevant to the case

Note: The Equal Opportunity office may use information gathered from other investigations in conjunction with, but not in lieu of, their own clarification process to establish a preponderance of credible evidence.

119
Q

Where are the clarification results regarding a formal military complaint forwarded? (19.20)

A

To the Staff Judge Advocate for a legal sufficiency review

Note: Once the review is complete, the alleged offender’s commander receives the complaint for final action, if appropriate.

120
Q

Within how many days of the alleged offense must formal military complaints be filed? (19.20)

A

60 calendar days

Note: The installation commander may waive the time limits for good cause based on a memorandum with sufficient justification provided by the complainant and submitted through the Equal Opportunity office.

121
Q

Who are the only people who may file civilian Equal Opportunity complaints? (19.21)

A

Only USAF employees, former employees, and applicants for employment

122
Q

An aggrieved person can file a complaint if discriminated against on the basis of age if they are in what age range? (19.21)

A

40 or older

123
Q

Which Act of 2008 prohibits genetic information discrimination for any aspect of employment, including hiring, firing, pay, job assignment, promotion, layoff, training, fringe benefits, or any other term or condition of employment? (19.21)

A

Title II of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination

124
Q

Under which Act of 2008 is it illegal to harass or retaliate against a person because of his or her genetic information? (19.21)

A

Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act

125
Q

What is the purpose of the civilian informal complaint process? (19.21)

A

To provide for the prompt, fair, and impartial processing and resolution of complaints

126
Q

What is the objective of the civilian informal complaint process? (19.21)

A

To seek opportunities to resolve issues at the lowest organizational level at the earliest possible time

127
Q

The Equal Opportunity office will work with management and the Staff Judge Advocate in an attempt to resolve civilian complainant concerns. Unless the complainant grants an extension not to exceed 60 additional calendar days, within how many days of the complaint being filed must the Equal Opportunity office complete the informal complaint process? (19.21)

A

30 calendar days

128
Q

In the civilian informal complaint process, what is the complainant given if the matter is not resolved to the complainant’s satisfaction before the end of the authorized period, including extensions? (19.21)

A

Notice of right to file a formal complaint

129
Q

For the complaint to be processed at the formal stage, within how many days of the initial contact of the matter alleged to be discriminatory or, in the case of a personnel action, the effective date or when he or she becomes aware of the personnel action, must the complaint be made? (19.21)

A

Within 45 calendar days

Note: Formal complaint must be filed at the installation where the alleged discrimination occurred.

130
Q

A formal complaint must describe the actions or practices that form the basis of the complaint that was discussed with the Equal Opportunity office during which previous process? (19.21)

A

Informal complaint process

131
Q

Within how many days must a formal complaint be filed with the Equal Opportunity director or designee of the complainant receiving the notice of right to file a formal complaint? (19.21)

A

Within 15 calendar days

132
Q

Which publication is the USAF required to follow when processing civilian formal Equal Opportunity complaints? (19.21)

A

Title 29, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 1614, Federal Sector Equal Employment Opportunity

133
Q

Within how many calendar days from the date of filing must the Equal Opportunity office accept, dismiss, or partially dismiss a complaint or portion of a complaint to allow an investigation to be completed? (19.21)

A

Within 180 calendar days

134
Q

Which office is responsible for oversight of the Department of Defense sexual assault policy and works hand-in-hand with the services and the civilian community to develop and implement innovative prevention and response programs? (19.22)

A

Sexual Assault Prevention and Response (SAPR)

135
Q

Who is the single point of contact at an installation or within a geographic area reporting to the installation commander, who oversees sexual assault awareness, prevention, and response training; coordinates medical treatment, including emergency care for sexual assault victims; and tracks the services provided to a victim of sexual assault from the initial report through final disposition and resolution? (19.22)

A

Installation Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC)

136
Q

The USAF will identify trained military Installation Sexual Assault Response Coordinators (SARCs), as well as trained civilian SARCs or Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Victim Advocates (SAPR VA), for rotational support of global contingency operations and deployments. Normally, how many SARCs and SAPR VAs positions are warranted for each air expeditionary wing? (19.22)

A

At least one SARC and one SAPR VA

Note: For deployments smaller than an air expeditionary force, deployed commanders must provide a sexual assault response capability consistent with Air Force requirements. (19.14)

137
Q

Who are military and Department of Defense civilian employees who are selected, trained, and credentialed to provide non-clinical crisis intervention, referral, and ongoing non-clinical support to adult sexual assault victims? (19.22)

A

Volunteer Victim Advocates (VVA)

138
Q

Who provides information on available options and resources to victims, conducts liaison assistance with other organizations and agencies on victim care matters, and reports directly to the SARC when performing victim advocacy duties? (19.22)

A

Volunteer Victim Advocate (VVA)

139
Q

Which counsel is a military attorney who is authorized to provide independent legal representation to eligible victims of sexual assault, sexual misconduct, stalking, and other similar crimes? (19.22)

A

Victims’ Counsel (SVC)

Note: A SVC’s primary responsibility is to their client.

140
Q

Which counsel has the 3 main roles: (1) Advocate - to provide victims zealous advocacy by protecting their rights; (2) Advise - to provide legal advice by developing victims’ understanding of the often complex investigatory and military justice system; (3) Empower - by removing barriers to their full participation in the military justice process? (19.22)

A

Victims’ Counsel (VC)

141
Q

Sexual assault is criminal conduct that violates the standards the United States of America expects of the men and women serving in the USAF and is inconsistent with USAF core values. Which of the USAF core values does it violate? (19.22)

A

Respect–self-respect, mutual respect, and respect for the USAF as an institution

142
Q

What is an intentional sexual contact, characterized by the use of force, threats, intimidation, abuse of authority, or when the victim does not or cannot consent? (19.22)

A

Sexual assault

143
Q

What is an intentional sexual contact, characterized by the use of force, threats, intimidation, abuse of authority, or when the victim does not or cannot consent? (19.22)

A

Sexual assault

144
Q

What term encompasses a range of sexual offenses consisting of rape, sexual assault, aggravated sexual contact, abusive sexual contact, forcible sodomy, or attempts to commit any of these offenses? (19.22)

A

Sexual assault

145
Q

What is defined as words or overt acts indicating a freely given agreement to the sexual conduct by a competent person? (19.22)

A

Consent

146
Q

True or False? An expression of lack of consent through words or conduct means there is no consent. (19.22)

A

True

147
Q

True or False? Lack of verbal or physical resistance or submission resulting from the accused’s use of force, threat of force, or placing another person in fear, does not constitute consent. (19.22)

A

True

148
Q

True or False? A current or previous relationship, or the manner of dress of the person involved with the accused in the sexual conduct at issue, shall constitute consent. (19.22)

A

False

Note: A current or previous relationship, or the manner of dress of the person involved with the accused in the sexual conduct at issue, shall “not” constitute consent. (19.14)

149
Q

True or False? There is no consent where the person is sleeping or incapacitated, such as due to age, alcohol or drugs, or mental incapacity. (19.22)

A

True

150
Q

What must any military member or civilian employee, other than those authorized to receive confidential communications or otherwise exempted by law, regulation, or policy, who receives a report of a sexual assault incident about a subordinate in the individual’s supervisory chain, do? (19.22)

A

Report the matter to the commander, the Installation Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC), and the Air Force Office of Special Investigations

151
Q

True or False? Military members or civilian employees who become aware of a sexual assault incident, not involving a subordinate in the supervisory chain, are strongly encouraged, but not required, to report the incident to the Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC) or encourage the victim to do so. (19.22)

A

True

152
Q

What two sexual assault reporting options does the USAF have? (19.23)

A

Unrestricted and restricted reporting

153
Q

The USAF makes every effort to treat victims of sexual assault with dignity and respect, to protect their privacy to the maximum extent of the law, and provide support, advocacy, and care. Regardless of whether the victim elects restricted or unrestricted reporting, what will be maintained? (19.23)

A

Confidentiality of medical information

154
Q

Which reporting option has the Department of Defense directed the implementation of confidentiality into that enables eligible victims to report allegations of sexual assault to specified personnel, without triggering an investigation? (19.23)

A

Restricted reporting

155
Q

Which reporting option is intended to remove barriers to medical care and support while giving the victim additional time and increased control over the release and management of personal information? (19.23)

A

Restricted reporting

156
Q

Who may only receive restricted reports of sexual assault? (19.15)

A

(a) Sexual Assault Response Coordinators (SARCs)
(b) Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Victim Advocates (SAPR VAs)
(c) Volunteer Victim Advocates (VVAs)
(d) Healthcare personnel

157
Q

True or False? If a victim elects restricted reporting option, a victim may convert a restricted report to an unrestricted report at any time. (19.23)

A

True

158
Q

Who, although entitled to privileged communications, will NOT accept a restricted report of sexual assault? (19.23)

A

Chaplains, legal assistance attorneys, and Victims’ Counsel (VC)

159
Q

In the course of otherwise privileged communications with chaplains, legal assistance attorneys, and Victims’ Counsel (VC), a victim may indicate that he or she wishes to file a restricted report. What happens if this occurs? (19.23)

A

Chaplains, legal assistance attorneys, and VC should facilitate contact with a Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC), Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Victim Advocate (SAPR VA), or Volunteer Victim Advocate (VVA) to ensure that a victim is offered SAPR services

160
Q

What type report is considered when any report of a sexual assault is made by the victim through normal reporting channels, including the victim’s chain of command, law enforcement, and the Air Force Office of Special Investigations or other criminal investigative services? (19.23)

A

Unrestricted report

161
Q

True or False? If a victim elects unrestricted reporting option, they will NOT be permitted to change from unrestricted to a restricted report. (19.23)

A

True

162
Q

The individual to whom an unrestricted report was made is required to notify who? (19.23)

A

Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC)

163
Q

Where will any report of sexual assault made through the SARC, SAPR VA, VVA, or healthcare personnel by an individual who elects an unrestricted report and designates so in writing, be forwarded? (19.23)

A

Air Force Office of Special Investigations

164
Q

In cases of an unrestricted report of a sexual assault or information concerning a sexual assault, to whom will the information concerning the victim and the offense be provided? (19.23)

A

Only to governmental entities or persons with an established official need to know

165
Q

In cases of an unrestricted report of a sexual assault or information concerning a sexual assault, who are those routinely deemed to have an official need to know in the USAF to perform their respective duties? (19.23)

A

(a) Law enforcement
(b) Commanders and first sergeants of the victim and the alleged assailant
(c) Legal personnel
(d) SARC, SAPR VA, VVA, and healthcare providers, as required

166
Q

Who must take immediate steps to ensure the victim’s physical safety, emotional security, and medical treatment needs are met and that the Air Force Office of Special Investigations or appropriate criminal investigative agency and Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC) are notified? (19.23)

A

Commanders notified of a sexual assault through an unrestricted report

167
Q

What individuals are eligible for both the restricted and unrestricted reporting option within the Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC) program? (19.23)

A
  • RegAF members who were sexual assault victims perpetrated by someone other than the victim’s spouse, same sex domestic partner, and/or unmarried intimate partner.
  • Military members on RegAF status, but who were sexual assault victims prior to enlistment or commissioning. Support to a member on RegAF status is available regardless of when or where the sexual assault took place.
  • Service members’ dependents, 18 years of age and older, who are eligible for treatment in the military health system worldwide, and who were sexual assault victims perpetrated by someone other than the victim’s spouse, same sex domestic partner, and/or unmarried intimate partner.
  • Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard members who are sexually assaulted when performing active service and inactive duty training.
  • DoD civilian employees will have access to full SAPR services that are offered to service members.
168
Q

True or False? An investigation into the facts and circumstances surrounding an alleged sexual assault may produce evidence that the alleged victim engaged in misconduct. (19.23)

A

True

169
Q

What, by a sexual assault victim, is a significant barrier to reporting because of the victim’s fear of punishment? (19.23)

A

Collateral misconduct

170
Q

Pursuant to DAFI 51-201, Administration of Military Justice, to whom is the authority to dispose of collateral misconduct in sexual assault cases initially reserved? (19.23)

A

Special court-martial convening authority

171
Q

What can commanders, supervisors, and other persons in authority issue to improve, correct, and instruct subordinates who depart from standards of performance, conduct, bearing, and integrity, on or off-duty, and whose actions degrade the individual and the unit mission? (19.24)

A

Administrative counseling, admonitions, and reprimands

172
Q

Which AFI authorizes the use and maintenance of personnel information files (PIF) by commanders and supervisors? (19.24)

A

AFI 36-2608, Military Personnel Records System

173
Q

Which form is used to establish a PIF? (19.24)

A

AF Form 10A, Personnel Information File, Record of Performance, or Officer Command Selection Record Group (Folder)

174
Q

Custodians must keep PIFs current and secured in a locked area or container to protect against misuse or unauthorized access. Which AFI directs the member access to their PIF at any time? (19.24)

A

AFI 33-332

175
Q

To whom must the contents of the PIF be available? (19.16)

A

(a) Commanders
(b) Raters
(c) First sergeants
(d) Senior raters
(e) Air Force Office of Special Investigations
(f) Staff Judge Advocate personnel

176
Q

True or False? Release and review of PIF contents are for official business use only. (19.24)

A

False

Note: Release and review of the PIF contents are for official business or “routine” use. (19.16)

177
Q

What provides commanders with an official and single means of filing derogatory data concerning a USAF member’s personal conduct and duty performance? (19.24)

A

Unfavorable Information File (UIF)

178
Q

What mandatory documents are included in UIFs? (19.24)

A

(a) Suspended or unsuspended Article 15 punishment of more than one month (31 days or more)
(b) Court-martial conviction
(c) Civilian conviction where the penalty or actions equivalent to a finding of guilty of an offense which resulted in confinement of one year or more or could have resulted in a penalty of confinement for more than one year or death
(d) Control roster actions

179
Q

Up to how long may optional documents be included in UIFs? (19.24)

A

One year

180
Q

How many days do individuals have to acknowledge and provide pertinent information before the commander makes the final decision to file information in their UIF? (19.24)

A

Three duty days

Note: The commander advises the individual of the final decision. If the commander decides to file the information in a UIF, the individual’s response is also filed.

181
Q

When must unit commanders review all UIFs? (19.24)

A

(a) Within 90 days of assuming or being appointed to command;
(b) When individuals are considered for promotion, reenlistment, permanent change of station or assignment
(c) Reclassification or retraining

182
Q

In the course of their USAF duties, which individuals are authorized access to a member’s UIF? (19.24)

A

(a) The member
(b) Commander
(c) First sergeant
(d) Enlisted performance report reporting and rating officials
(e) Force support squadron personnel
(f) Inspector general, inspection team
(g) Legal office personnel
(h) Military equal opportunity personnel
(i) Law enforcement personnel
(j) Substance abuse counselors

183
Q

Which AFI provides additional information regarding the UIF program? (19.24)

A

AFI 36-2907, Adverse Administrative Actions

184
Q

What is used by commanders to establish an observation period as a rehabilitative tool for individuals whose duty performance is substandard or who fail to meet or maintain USAF standards of conduct, bearing, and integrity, on- or off-duty? (19.24)

A

Control rosters

185
Q

True or False? A single incident of substandard performance or an isolated breach of standards not likely to be repeated, is NOT ordinarily a basis for a control roster action. (19.24)

A

True

Note: Commanders should consider prior incidents, acts, failures, counseling, and rehabilitative efforts when establishing control rosters.

186
Q

Which form do Commanders use to place an individual on the control roster, which puts the member on notice that his/her performance and behavior must improve, or he/she will face more severe administrative action or punishment? (19.24)

A

AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action

187
Q

How many days after acknowledging receipt of a control roster action, does an individual have to respond and submit a statement on his or her behalf before the action is finalized? (19.24)

A

Three duty days

188
Q

True or False? Placement on the control roster is a mandatory UIF entry and is initially instated for twelve months, but it can be removed early at the commander’s discretion. (19.24)

A

False

Note: Placement on the control roster is a mandatory UIF entry and is initially instated for “six” months, but it can be removed early at the commander’s discretion. (19.16)

Note: If a member is not rehabilitated within six months of being placed on the control roster, the commander initiates more severe action.

189
Q

Placement on the control roster is a mandatory UIF entry and is initially instated for six months. When does the UIF six-month time period begin and end? (19.24)

A

The day the AF Form 1058 is finalized and ends at 2400 hours six months later

190
Q

True or False? The control roster can be used by commanders as a substitute for more appropriate administrative, judicial, or nonjudicial action. (19.24)

A

False

Note: The control roster “is not” to be used by commanders as a substitute for more appropriate administrative, judicial, or nonjudicial action. (19.16)

191
Q

What quality force management tools are available to supervisors, commanders, and other persons in authority to help maintain established USAF standards and enhance mission accomplishment? (19.25)

A

Administrative counseling, admonitions, and reprimands

192
Q

Which quality force management tools are intended to improve, correct, and instruct subordinates who depart from standards of performance, conduct, bearing, and integrity on- or off-duty, and whose actions degrade the individual and unit’s mission? (19.25)

A

Counseling, admonitions, and reprimands

193
Q

Counseling, admonitions, and reprimands should be used as part of what type of pattern in response to repeated departures from standards? (19.25)

A

Graduated

194
Q

Gg

A
195
Q

On what should the decision to issue a letter of counseling, admonition, or reprimand be based? (19.25)

A

Primarily on the nature and seriousness of the incident and on the previous disciplinary record of the member

196
Q

On what should the decision to issue a letter of counseling, admonition, or reprimand be based? (19.25)

A

Primarily on the nature and seriousness of the incident and on the previous disciplinary record of the member

197
Q

Counseling statements may be either verbal or written. Which corrective actions are more meaningful to the member, and when documented properly, may be used in subsequent proceedings? (19.25)

A

Written

198
Q

Which law outlines the rules of access, protection, and disclosure for written administrative counseling, admonitions, and reprimands? (19.25)

A

Privacy Act of 1974

Note: The same rules apply to copies kept by supervisors and commanders and those filed in a UIF or PIF.

199
Q

Which standard should commanders utilize when evaluating whether the evidence establishes that misconduct occurred? (19.25)

A

“Preponderance of the evidence” standard

200
Q

What means simply the greater weight of credible evidence? If such proof is lacking, administrative action is susceptible to being found to be legally unsupportable and, as a result, could be set aside. (19.25)

A

Preponderance of the evidence

201
Q

What is used by first line supervisors, first sergeants, and commanders to help Airmen use good judgment, assume responsibility, and face and solve problems? It, whether conducted verbally or in writing, helps subordinates develop skills, attitudes, and behaviors consistent with maintaining USAF readiness. (19.25)

A

Counseling

202
Q

On which format may counseling be documented? (19.25)

A

AF Form 174, Record of Individual Counseling or on bond paper or letterhead as a letter of counseling

203
Q

What is used to document an infraction that warrants more severe action than a counseling, but not serious enough to warrant a reprimand? (19.25)

A

Admonishment

204
Q

For officer personnel, if a letter of admonishment is not filed in the UIF, where must it be filed? (19.25)

A

In the individual’s PIF

205
Q

What is more severe than a letter of counseling and letter of admonishment and indicates a stronger degree of official censure? (19.25)

A

Reprimand

206
Q

True or False? Commanders must file a letter of reprimand in a UIF for enlisted personnel. (19.25)

A

False

Note: Commanders “may elect” to file a letter of reprimand in a UIF for enlisted personnel.

207
Q

True or False: It is mandatory to file letters of reprimand in the UIF for officer personnel. (19.25)

A

True

208
Q

What are the most common reasons commanders would administratively demote an Airman? (19.26)

A

(a) Failure to complete officer transitional training due to reasons of academic deficiency, self-elimination, or misconduct (trainees will be demoted to the grade they formerly held)
(b) Failure to maintain or attain the appropriate grade and skill level
(c) Failure to fulfill the responsibilities as prescribed The Little Brown Book, The Enlisted Force Structure
(d) Failure to attain or maintain fitness program standards
(e) Upon termination of student status of members attending temporary duty Air Force schools

209
Q

Upon decision to proceed with an administrative demotion, of what does the immediate commander notify the member in writing? (19.26)

A

(a) The intention to recommend demotion, citing the paragraph, the demotion authority if other than the initiating commander, and the recommended grade
(b) The specific reasons for the demotion and a complete summary of the supporting facts

210
Q

After the member was notified in writing of the intention to recommend demotion, which rights does the commander inform the member of? (19.26)

A

(a) Right to counsel
(b) Right to respond within three duty days
(c) Right to apply for retirement in lieu of demotion, if eligible

211
Q

After commander’s notification of the intention to recommend demotion, the member is informed of their right to counsel, right to apply for retirement in lieu of demotion, if eligible, and right to respond within three duty days. Following this response, what happens to the case file if the commander elects to continue the proceedings? (19.26)

A

The case file is forwarded with a summary of the member’s written and verbal statements to the force support squadron for processing prior to forwarding to the demotion authority

212
Q

If the commander elects to continue the demotion proceedings, the case file is forwarded with a summary of the member’s written and verbal statements to the force support squadron for processing prior to forwarding to the demotion authority. What must the member be notified in writing of prior to the case file being forwarded to the demotion authority? (19.26)

A

The decision to forward the action to the demotion authority

Note: The demotion authority obtains a written legal review before making a decision.

Note: Airmen may appeal the demotion decision through proper channels.

213
Q

True or False? Airmen are entitled to separate at their expiration of term of service unless there is a specific authority for retention. (19.27)

A

True

214
Q

True or False? As a rule, Airmen separate on the date their expiration term of service occurs, but their separation is NOT automatic. (19.27)

A

True

215
Q

Airmen are members of the USAF until they are separated by which action? (19.27)

A

Administrative

216
Q

Suitability of persons to serve in the Air Force is judged on the basis of what characterizations? (19.19)

A

(a) Conduct
(b) Ability to meet required standards of duty performance and discipline

217
Q

Commanders and supervisors must identify enlisted members who show a likelihood for early separation. In addition, what must they do with these members? (19.27)

A

Make reasonable efforts to help these members meet Air Force standards

Note: Members who do not show potential for further service should be discharged.

218
Q

Who must commanders consult with before initiating the involuntary separation of a member? (19.27)

A

Servicing Staff Judge Advocate and military personnel flight

219
Q

What are two required separations for Airmen? (19.27)

A

(1) Airmen who will continue to serve in another military status must separate; for example, an Airman may separate to serve with the Air Force Reserve or Air National Guard
(2) Airman who accept an appointment as a commissioned officer of the USAF or to accept an appointment as a warrant or commissioned officer of another branch of service

220
Q

Airmen may ask for early separation for the convenience of the government if they meet the criteria. What are some reasons they may be allowed to voluntarily separate? (19.27)

A

(a) Entering an officer training program
(b) Pregnancy
(c) Conscientious objection
(d) Hardship
(e) Early release to attend school

221
Q

What are some reasons for involuntary discharge for the convenience of the government? (19.27)

A

(a) Physical conditions that interfere with duty performance or assignment availability
(b) Inability to cope with parental responsibilities or military duty
(c) Insufficient retainability for required retraining
(d) Defective enlistment (fraudulent or erroneous)
(e) Causes based on such factors as unsatisfactory performance, substance abuse, misconduct, or in the interest of national security

222
Q

Airmen who do not qualify for reenlistment receive a discharge without regard to their remaining military service obligation. What does the service characterization depend upon? (19.28)

A

The reason for the discharge and the member’s military record in the current enlistment or period of service

223
Q

What are the three characterizations of discharges for the service of members administratively discharged under AFI 36-3208, Administrative Separation of Airmen? (19.20)

A

(1) Honorable
(2) General (under honorable conditions)
(3) Under other than honorable conditions

224
Q

Which characterization of administrative discharge is given to members separating at their expiration of term of service, or voluntarily or involuntarily separating for the convenience of the government? (19.28)

A

Honorable

225
Q

Which characterization of administrative discharge is given when the quality of the member’s service generally has met USAF standards of acceptable conduct and performance of duty, or a member’s service is otherwise so meritorious that any other characterization would be inappropriate? (19.28)

A

Honorable

226
Q

Which characterization of administrative discharge is given when a member’s service has been determined to be honest and faithful, but significant negative aspects of the member’s conduct or performance outweigh positive aspects of the Airman’s military record? (19.28)

A

General (under honorable conditions) discharge

227
Q

Which characterization of administrative discharge is given based upon a pattern of behavior, or one or more acts or omissions, that constitute a significant departure from the conduct expected of an Airman? (19.28)

A

Under other than honorable conditions

228
Q

Which characterization of administrative discharge can be given only if the member is offered an administrative discharge board or if a discharge is unconditionally requested in lieu of trial by court-martial? (19.28)

A

Under other than honorable conditions

229
Q

If charges have been referred against an Airman and if the Uniform Code of Military Justice authorizes punitive discharge as punishment for the offense, what may the Airman request instead of trial by court-martial? (19.28)

A

Administrative discharge

Note: There is no guarantee; however, that the Airman’s request will be granted.

230
Q

Which board affords former USAF members the opportunity to request review of their discharge (except for a bad-conduct discharge, dishonorable discharge, or dismissal by general court-martial) within 15 years of the date of separation? (19.29)

A

Air Force Discharge Review Board

231
Q

Which board reviews an applicant’s administrative discharge and considers changing the characterization of service, the reason for discharge, and the re-enlistment code (when applicable), based on standards of propriety or equity? (19.29)

A

Air Force Discharge Review Board

232
Q

Airmen separated under circumstances (except retirement) that make them ineligible for reenlistment, and officers discharged under adverse conditions, are briefed by the military personnel section at the time of their discharge about the discharge review board process. What are they provided? (19.29)

A

A discharge review fact sheet and an application, DD Form 293, Application for the Review of Discharge from the Armed Forces of the United States

233
Q

True or False? A personal appearance before the Air Force Discharge Review Board is a statutory right. (19.29)

A

True

234
Q

True or False? An applicant or an applicant’s counsel may appear before the Air Force Discharge Review Board or address the board via video teleconference. (19.29)

A

True

Note: Procedures allow the applicant latitude in presenting evidence, witnesses, and testimony in support of the applicant’s case.

235
Q

True or False? The Air Force Discharge Review Board does NOT review cases based on documentation in the military record and any additional evidence provided by an applicant. (19.29)

A

False

Note: Air Force Discharge Review Board “may review” a case based on documentation in the military record and any additional evidence provided by the applicant. (19.21)

236
Q

What is the highest level of administrative review for correcting military records? (19.30)

A

Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records

237
Q

When may a family member, heir, or legal representative (such as a guardian or executor) of the member or former member with a proper interest, request correction of another person’s military records to the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records? (19.30)

A

When that person is incapable of acting on his or her own behalf, is missing, or is deceased

238
Q

True or False? With a few exceptions, most records generated by the USAF may be corrected by the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records. (19.30)

A

True

Note: Records addressed for change include, but are not limited to: enlisted performance reports, fitness test results, debts incurred, discharges and reenlistment/reentry eligibility codes, survivor benefit plans, accumulated leave days, Article 15 actions, and reinstatement into the Air Force.

239
Q

The Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records is a recommending body and will vote to grant, partially grant, or deny a requested monetary relief. If the board recommends favorable relief, to whom is the case forwarded for final decision? Unless procured by fraud, their decision is final and binding on all USAF officials and government agencies. (19.30)

A

Secretary of the Air Force or their designee

240
Q

Personal appearance to present an application to the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records is NOT a statutory right. It is granted solely at the discretion of the board, predicated on what? (19.30)

A

The finding the applicant’s presence, with or without counsel, and will materially add to the board’s understanding of the issue(s) involved

241
Q

Which AFI provides information on the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records? (19.30)

A

AFI 36-2603, Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records

242
Q

What must applicants do first prior to applying to the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records? Otherwise, their application will be returned without action. (19.30)

A

Exhaust other reasonably available administrative avenues of relief

243
Q

Which DD Form is used to apply to the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records? (19.30)

A

DD Form 149

A ✨Staff Testing✨ (14 decks)

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