Second try

Question 1

Question ID #6587: A student seeks counseling at the university counseling center due to feelings of failure as a student. When asked about his grades, he states that his grade point average is 3.9 but thinks that he should be doing better. He is most likely using which of the following cognitive distortions?
Select one:
A. arbitrary inference
B. overgeneralization 
C. personalization
D. dichotomous thinking

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Question ID #6501: Beck identified a number of cognitive distortions including the tendency to focus solely on a detail that is taken out of context. He termed this:
Select one:
A. Selective abstraction
B. Overgeneralization 
C. Personalization
D. Dichotomous thinking

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Question ID #6533: According to the theory of psychopathology on which Beck’s model of cognitive therapy is based, which of the following is true regarding the role of schema?
Select one:
A. Dysfunctional schemas always cause problems, even if they are not associated with symptomatic behavior.
B. Certain types of schema, known as “core schema” are not accessible to the conscious mind.
C. Schemas govern cognition but not other psychological phenomena such as memory, affect, or motivation.
D. Dysfunctional schema develop over the course of life experience beginning in childhood.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Question ID #44: In more severe cases of depression, Beck’s cognitive therapy initially focuses on:
Select one:
A. the individual’s cognitive distortions.
B. appropriate behavioral tasks.
C. using free associations to identify automatic thoughts.
D. Socratic questioning.

Answer 4

B

Question 5

Question ID #6574: Research by Sue and his colleagues (1991) suggests that which of the following clients is most likely to return for a second session of psychotherapy?
Select one:
A. an African-American client
B. a Latino-American client
C. an Anglo-American client 
D. an Asian-American client

Answer 5

D

Question 6

Question ID #28: Traditional Western approaches to individual psychotherapy can best be described as:
Select one:
A. linear and reductionist
B. non-linear and holistic 
C. relativistic and abstract
D. elitist and futile

Answer 6

A

Question 7

Question ID #6515: Reduced incidence of substance abuse among Native American adolescents would most likely result from:
Select one:
A. normalizing substance use within tribal communities
B. increasing the legal consequences of substance use
C. aversive conditioning
D. increasing bicultural competence

Answer 7

D

Question 8

Question ID #6472: Beck’s cognitive therapy includes all of the following characteristics except:
Select one:
A. it is referred to as “collaborative empiricism.”
B. it is structured and goal-oriented.
C. relapse prevention is a focus throughout.
D. it is based on an elaboration likelihood model.

Answer 8

D

Question 9

Question ID #6578: The clinical scales of the MMPI-2 were developed using empirical criterion keying. This means that
Select one:
A. items which distinguish between specific subgroups of people are retained for the final version of the test.
B. items that have high correlations with the previous version of the test are retained for the final version of the test.
C. items that have high correlations with other tests designed to measure similar constructs are retained for the final version of the test.
D. items which appear to measure what they are designed to measure are retained for the final version of the test.

Answer 9

A

Question 10

Question ID #6502: A therapist working from the perspective of Minuchin’s school of thought would examine a family system in terms of
Select one:
A. multigenerational transmission processes.
B. subsystems and boundaries.
C. fusion and differentiation.
D. communication style.

Answer 10

B

Question 11

Question ID #52: In psychoanalytic practice, transference is:
Select one:
A. counteracted through direct interpretation of its use as a resistance.
B. discouraged as an interference with the treatment process.
C. a sign that treatment is having an effect and discussed as the patient is made conscious of it.
D. actively encouraged through direct confrontations regarding the patient’s thoughts and feelings toward the therapist.

Answer 11

C

Question 12

Question ID #6538: Eysenck’s 1952 study on psychotherapy outcome:
Select one:
A. concluded that individuals who receive psychotherapy are better off than 80% of controls
B. concluded that psychologists and psychiatrists are more effective than master’s level clinicians
C. challenged the effectiveness of most psychotherapy treatments
D. led to many other outcome studies, most of which have supported his findings

Answer 12

C

Question 13

Question ID #6520: In contrast to feminist therapists, non-sexist therapists:
Select one:
A. emphasize the importance of therapist self-disclosure
B. focus more on individual change than social change
C. de-emphasize the effects of gender on personality development
D. stress the egalitarian nature of the therapist-client relationship

Answer 13

B

Question 14

Question ID #45: Biofeedback is often part of treatments aimed at lowering tension and arousal and increasing relaxation. For this purpose, biofeedback is being used to control the:
Select one:
A. sympathetic nervous system. 
B. parasympathetic nervous system.
C. somatic nervous system.
D. endocrine system.

Answer 14

B

Question 15

Question ID #6537: According to family therapists:
Select one:
A. when one family member improves, others will improve also.
B. no member of a family will improve unless all members improve.
C. if the identified patient improves, the family system will improve.
D. if the family system changes, the identified patient will improve.

Answer 15

D

Question 16

Question ID #6500: Communication-interaction therapy espouses that communication has both a "report" function and a
Select one:
A. Principle of equifinality
B. Command function
C. Circular model of causality 
D. Paradoxical strategy

Answer 16

B

Question 17

Question ID #34: Despite his many accomplishments and positive feedback from his supervisor, a client believes his work performance is below average because he feels like a failure. This is an example of:
Select one:
A. minimization
B. selective abstraction 
C. emotional reasoning
D. personalization

Answer 17

C

Question 18

Question ID #51: From the perspective of humanistic schools of psychology, psychopathology would be seen as being due to:
Select one:
A. man’s irrational nature, which interferes with a disciplined course of behaviors to enhance personal growth.
B. defenses that interfere with one’s own natural tendency toward personal growth.
C. biological factors that inhibit personal growth.
D. a lack of insight into one’s past, which interferes with the tendency toward personal growth in the present.

Answer 18

B

Question 19

Question ID #6492: J. Berry, who views acculturation as a multidimensional construct, would describe an integrated client as one who:
Select one:
A. Has a low retention of the minority culture
B. Has high maintenance of the mainstream culture
C. Rejects the mainstream culture but has a high retention of the minority culture
D. Gets along with others in the workplace

Answer 19

B

Question 20

Question ID #6585: George Kelly emphasized that:
Select one:
A. people view the world through cognitive schemas
B. individuals progress from infantile dependency to mature interdependency
C. psychopathology is caused by past traumatic events
D. psychopathology is caused by a maladaptive “style of life”

Answer 20

A

Question 21

Question ID #6553: Which of the following statements is true regarding electromyograph (EMG) biofeedback?
Select one:
A. It is more effective in treating tension headaches than migraine headaches.
B. It is more effective in treating migraine headaches than tension headaches.
C. It is equally effective in treating tension headaches and migraine headaches.
D. It is ineffective in treating tension and migraine headaches.

Answer 21

A

Question 22

Question ID #6495: When comparing feminist therapy to a more psychodynamic approach, feminist theory
Select one:
A. Disallows the mother’s role
B. Takes factors other than a woman’s view of herself into consideration
C. Relies much more on the emphasis of the biological mother
D. Encourages women to call men to task for the oppression of women

Answer 22

B

Question 23

Question ID #6463: Cognitive behavior therapy, compared to operant behavior treatments, has been found to be:
Select one:
A. less effective across most diagnostic categories.
B. superior with more intelligent clients.
C. approximately equally effective with all types of disorders.
D. more effective with addictive disorders.

Answer 23

C

Question 24

Question ID #6854: Michael Rutter, a key figure in the field of developmental psychopathology, notes that parental divorce does not have the same effects on all children. According to Rutter, such differences are related to:
Select one:
A. the child’s cognitive understanding of the causes of the divorce.
B. the child’s early social interactions, especially interactions with his or her parents.
C. the nature of the parents’ relationship following the divorce.
D. the custodial parent’s social support and financial status.

Answer 24

B

Question 25

Question ID #6883: The realization that gender is unaffected by superficial changes in appearance or activity is referred to as:
Select one:
A. gender constancy
B. gender stability
C. gender identity 
D. ego-dystonic transvestism

Answer 25

A

Question 26

Question ID #6880: Kohlberg’s theory of moral development focuses on moral reasoning. With regard to the linkage between moral reasoning and moral action, Kohlberg would most likely agree with which of the following?
Select one:
A. There is a direct, one-to-one link between moral reasoning and behavior.
B. The link between moral reasoning and behavior is mediated by the individual’s previous experience with the situation.
C. The link between moral reasoning and behavior is mediated by the individual’s IQ.
D. There isn’t a one-to-one correspondence between moral reasoning and behavior, although, the higher the stage of moral reasoning, the stronger the link is likely to be.

Answer 26

D

Question 27

Question ID #6852: Which of the following best reflects the research findings on stepparenting?
Select one:
A. During late childhood and early adolescence males respond more positively to their stepfathers than do females.
B. During late childhood and early adolescence females respond more positively to their stepfathers than do males.
C. Stepfathers have more frequent contact with their stepchildren than do stepmothers.
D. Stepparents most often utilize an authoritative parenting style.

Answer 27

A

Question 28

Question ID #6885: Normal aging is least likely to negatively affect:
Select one:
A. free recall
B. cued recall
C. working memory  
D. picture recognition

Answer 28

D

Question 29

Question ID #6888: Perry and Busey (1984) focus on family factors that contribute to aggression in children. In particular, they emphasize the role of
Select one:
A. family discord and chaos.
B. parents’ socioeconomic status.
C. parental rejection and use of power assertive discipline.
D. early parent-child attachment.

Answer 29

C

Question 30

Question ID #6879: Gender concept develops during the first 6 years of life in the following sequence of stages:
Select one:
A. gender stability, gender constancy, gender identity
B. gender stability, gender identity, gender constancy
C. gender identity, gender stability, gender constancy
D. gender confusion, gender solidification, gender identity

Answer 30

C

Question 31

Question ID #6816: A college student tells you she has just read that adolescent females are faced with a conflict between their own strengths and accomplishments and the stereotypic feminine roles they are expected to adopt. Apparently, this student has just read the work of:
Select one:
A. Kohlberg.
B. Erikson.
C. Gilligan.
D. Ainsworth.

Answer 31

C

Question 32

Question ID #6782: Thomas and Chess’s goodness-of-fit model addresses compatibility between:
Select one:
A. a child’s temperament and his/her parents’ caretaking practices.
B. a child’s developmental level and environmental demands.
C. an employee’s personality and his/her company’s culture.
D. a client’s level of identity development and the therapeutic strategies used by the therapist.

Answer 32

A

Question 33

Question ID #6886: Research has found that Mexican-American children begin to accurately apply ethnic labels to themselves and others between:
Select one:
A. 3 and 4 years  
B. 5 and 9 years
C. 7 and 12 years
D. 10 and 15 years

Answer 33

B

Question 34

Question ID #6818: Erikson proposed that psychosocial development continues throughout the lifespan. Successful resolution of the conflict of the final stage of development results in:
Select one:
A. formation of intimate relationships.
B. participation in activities that promote the welfare of future generations.
C. development of mature ego defenses.
D. development of a sense of meaning.

Answer 34

D

Question 35

Question ID #6841: Signs of the personality characteristic of social inhibition are usually present
Select one:
A. at birth.
B. by the age of four months.
C. by the age of nine months.
D. by the time the child attends school for the first time.

Answer 35

B

Question 36

Question ID #6901: Symptoms of anxiety in response to the presence of unfamiliar adults usually begins at:
Select one:
A. 9 months
B. 12 months  
C. 18 months
D. 24 months

Answer 36

A

Question 37

Question ID #7163: According to current research, the best predictor(s) for alcoholism would be
Select one:
A. family history of alcoholism.
B. environmental stresses and opportunities for observational learning.
C. interpersonal pressure and identifications.
D. age and SES.

Answer 37

A

Question 38

Question ID #7173: All of the following are true regarding women and depression, except
Select one:
A. marriage reduces the risk of depression to a greater extent for men than it does for women.
B. the more children a woman has, the more likely it is that she’ll be depressed.
C. women who have multiple roles (e.g., a job, children, a marriage) are more vulnerable to depression than women who don’t.
D. gender differences in coping style apparently are a reason why women are at a greater risk for depression than men.

Answer 38

C

Question 39

Question ID #7182: When developing a treatment plan for a client with a Specific Phobia, it is important to keep in mind that
Select one:
A. exposure in vivo and exposure in imagination are about equally effective as long as exposure sessions are sufficiently long in duration.
B. the effectiveness of exposure is increased, especially with regard to long-term effects, when it is used in conjunction with cognitive techniques.
C. for some Specific Phobias (e.g., dental and animal phobias), two to four sessions are often useful for significantly reducing phobic reactions in many people.
D. systematic desensitization has recently been found to be more effective than prolonged exposure treatments, especially in terms of reducing the risk for relapse.

Answer 39

C

Question 40

Question ID #7022: According to current cognitive-behavioral theories, a central factor in the maintenance of anorexia nervosa symptom is
Select one:
A. intense fear of gaining weight.
B. positive reinforcement from family and friends for weight loss.
C. the need to control eating.
D. a fear of sexuality and sexual maturity.

Answer 40

C

Question 41

Question ID #7164: Functional nocturnal enuresis
Select one:
A. is associated with some physical medical disorder.
B. most often occurs during REM sleep and is associated with dreaming.
C. is not found in children above 12 years of age.
D. is not associated with any particular stage of sleep.

Answer 41

D

Question 42

Question ID #7060: Individuals with narcolepsy and individuals with hypersomnia have which of the following in common?
Select one:
A. sleep paralysis  
B. cataplexy
C. daytime sleep attacks
D. hypnagogic hallucinations

Answer 42

C

Question 43

Question ID #7026: Possible causes of a Mood Disorder caused by a known organic factor such as a medical condition or substance use include:
Select one:
A. PCP use, cataracts, and ulcer
B. viral illness, hallucinogen use, and carcinoma of the pancreas
C. barbiturate use, hypothyroidism, and broken bones
D. hyperthyroidism, cerebral palsy, and arthritis

Answer 43

B

Question 44

Question ID #7094: Factitious Disorder treatment typically involves symptom management rather than curing the disorder. Which of the following is currently considered to be the most effective treatment?
Select one:
A. confrontational therapy in an inpatient setting
B. individual and group therapy in an inpatient treatment
C. supportive psychotherapy in an outpatient setting
D. group or family therapy in an outpatient setting

Answer 44

C

Question 45

Question ID #7090: A serious complication of binging and purging involves a low level of serum potassium that can lead to kidney failure and cardiac arrest. This condition is called:
Select one:
A. hyponatremia.
B. hypokalemia.
C. hypoglycemia.  
D. hypercapnia.

Answer 45

B

Question 46

Question ID #7047: Of the following, which would be the most effective treatment for Factitious Disorder?
Select one:
A. outpatient treatment using supportive therapy
B. outpatient group or family therapy
C. inpatient individual and group therapy
D. inpatient treatment using confrontational therapy

Answer 46

A

Question 47

Question ID #7175: Evidence of genetic etiological influences is strongest for which of the following disorders?
Select one:
A. Avoidant Personality Disorder
B. Dependent Personality Disorder
C. Borderline Personality Disorder  
D. Antisocial Personality Disorder

Answer 47

D

Question 48

Question ID #7159: Among individuals with Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder, the deficits in attention are currently believed to be due to significant difficulty in:
Select one:
A. attending to all tasks
B. attending to interesting tasks
C. regulating attention
D. regulating conflicting emotions

Answer 48

C

Question 49

Question ID #7195: Anxiety and depression share which of the following symptoms?
Select one:
A. anhedonia
B. somatic arousal  
C. obsessive thoughts
D. negative affect

Answer 49

D

Question 50

Question ID #198: From a legal standpoint, a charge of malpractice against a psychologist would be held valid if it were proven that the therapist:
Select one:
A. had a duty of care to the patient, held malevolent intentions toward the patient, and engaged in activity that resulted in harm to the patient.
B. had a duty of care to the patient and held malevolent intentions toward the patient; demonstration of actual harm is not necessary.
C. had a duty of care to the patient and engaged in activity that resulted in harm to the patient; malevolent intentions need not be present.
D. engages in activity that harms a patient; malevolent intentions and a duty of care are not necessary.

Answer 50

C

Question 51

Question ID #216: Which of the following is not a recommendation of APA’s Guidelines for Providers of Service to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations?
Select one:
A. Psychologists should downplay their own culture and emphasize the client’s culture.
B. Psychologists should help clients understand, maintain, and resolve their own sociocultural identification.
C. Psychologists should seek to help determine whether a so-called “problem” stems from racism or bias in others so that clients don’t inappropriately personalize problems.
D. Psychologists should work to eliminate biases, prejudices, and discriminatory practices.

Answer 51

A

Question 52

Question ID #103: You are a psychologist at a state mental hospital. One of your colleagues, a psychiatrist, tells you that one of his clients has reported to him that he has sexually abused a child. The perpetrator still has access to the child. The psychiatrist says that he is not going to report the abuse because the client expressed remorse, promised not to do it again, and promised to continue treatment. Furthermore, he is widely-known and highly respected in the community. The psychiatrist adamantly refuses to report the child abuse. You should:
Select one:
A. discuss the matter further with your colleague and encourage him to make a report to the appropriate child abuse reporting agency.
B. file a complaint against your colleague with APA or state licensing board.
C. contact the appropriate child abuse reporting agency and provide them with information about the abuse, but refuse to give the colleague’s name.
D. contact the appropriate child abuse reporting agency and provide them with information about the abuse and with the colleague’s name.

Answer 52

D

Question 53

Question ID #133: You have been retained by the court to make a recommendation concerning custody of a 4 year old girl. You have met with the mother on two occasions and also administered some psychological tests. You have completed a phone interview with the father who lives out of state. In reporting to the court, you should
Select one:
A. explain that you cannot present any data.
B. recommend custody go to the parent you have determined is most competent to parent.
C. present the results of your evaluation but refrain from making a recommendation.
D. make a recommendation, but note that your evaluation of the father was incomplete.

Answer 53

C

Question 54

Question ID #159: A woman comes to you who has been put on morphine due to her pain. She is an ex-alcoholic in recovery and does not want to become addicted to the morphine. She asks your assistance in lowering the dosage. You should:
Select one:
A. Work with her physician to lower the dose but explain that synthetic morphine isn’t addicting
B. Tell her she needs to speak directly to her physician
C. Suggest she give you the extra morphine and you will dispose of it properly
D. Support her choice to not get addicted and work with her physician

Answer 54

D

Question 55

Question ID #107: Although you have extensive experience in administering the WAIS-R, you have not yet administered the WAIS-III. If you would like to administer the WAIS-III you should:
Select one:
A. obtain additional training
B. obtain supervision by a psychologist experienced in the use of the WAIS-III
C. seek consultation to determine the most appropriate action to take
D. be able to administer the WAIS-III since it is very similar to the WAIS-R

Answer 55

A

Question 56

Question ID #321: In contrast to job enlargement, job enrichment involves
Select one:
A. increasing an employee’s decision-making authority.
B. increasing the number of tasks done by an employee.
C. an attempt to increase the employee’s motivation.
D. increasing external rewards for the employees such as pay and benefits.

Answer 56

A

Question 57

Question ID #337: An organization is updating its telecommunication and information technology systems and its employees will need to be retrained on the changes. The most likely initial step for establishing training needs would be to:
Select one:
A. perform a needs analysis.
B. pinpoint training objectives.  
C. complete a personnel audit.
D. execute a job evaluation.

Answer 57

A

Question 58

Question ID #408: Which of the following proposed a behavioral theory of career decision making?
Select one:
A. Holland
B. Super  
C. Herzberg
D. Krumboltz

Answer 58

D

Question 59

Question ID #399: According to Bass, transformational leadership contains four interrelated components. Which of the following is characterized by high moral and ethical standards?
Select one:
A. intellectual stimulation
B. inspirational motivation
C. individualized consideration  
D. idealized influence

Answer 59

D

Question 60

Question ID #424: According to Fiedler’s contingency model, a task-oriented leader is most effective when
Select one:
A. the task is very structured or very unstructured.
B. the task is moderately structured.
C. the employees are either very high or very low in ability.
D. the employees are moderate in terms of ability level.

Answer 60

A

Question 61

Question ID #342: A summative evaluation of a mental health program primarily deals with which of the following questions?
Select one:
A. Did the program meet its goals?
B. How can the program be improved in the future?
C. How can the strengths and weaknesses of the program be summarized?
D. What is preventing the program from operating more effectively right now?

Answer 61

A

Question 62

Question ID #365: The “paired comparison” technique is a method to:
Select one:
A. evaluate appropriate compensation
B. determine qualification for advancement
C. assess appropriateness of a hiring decision
D. appraise performance

Answer 62

D

Question 63

Question ID #425: The theories of Holland and Roe both predict that job satisfaction will be greatest when there is a(n)
Select one:
A. personality-job environment match.
B. interests-job requirements match.  
C. values-job characteristics match.
D. self-concept-job demands match.

Answer 63

A

Question 64

Question ID #376: Organizational justice research indicates:
Select one:
A. procedural justice is the best predictor of work performance and of counterproductive work behavior, but all justice forms are related to organizational citizenship behaviors.
B. distributive justice is the best predictor of work performance and counterproductive work behavior, but all justice forms are related to organizational citizenship behaviors.
C. procedural and distributive justice are the best predictors of work performance and counterproductive work behavior, but interactional justice is the best predictor of organizational citizenship behaviors.
D. procedural and distributive justice are the best predictors of work performance, counterproductive work behavior, and organizational citizenship behaviors.

Answer 64

A

Question 65

Question ID #433: According to Holland’s personality typology, a person’s personality type indicates the:
Select one:
A. person’s unconscious occupational abilities
B. one occupation the person is capable of performing
C. occupational environment in which the person would be most satisfied and productive
D. person’s occupational interests, but does not predict job satisfaction

Answer 65

C

Question 66

Question ID #371: Low LPC leaders, according to contingency theory of leadership, are most effective when relationships with subordinates are:
Select one:
A. moderate  
B. very good or very poor
C. very good
D. very poor

Answer 66

B

Question 67

Question ID #333: All of the following are examples of a rater bias except:
Select one:
A. central tendency bias
B. ceiling effect
C. contrast effect
D. severity error

Answer 67

B

Question 68

Question ID #407: Organizations that advocate individual responsibility, consensual-decision making, slow promotion, and holistic knowledge of the organization are using which of the following management philosophies:
Select one:
A. Theory J  
B. Theory A
C. Theory Z
D. TQM

Answer 68

C

Question 69

Question ID #329: The organizational developmental intervention called team building is most appropriate for addressing which of the following issues?
Select one:
A. increasing the morale of an entire organization.
B. diagnosing group interactional issues that interfere with group effectiveness.
C. reducing role ambiguity or role confusion in work groups.
D. providing feedback to group members about group norms of which they are unaware.

Answer 69

C

Question 70

Question ID #344: Which of the following types of assessment has the lowest validity in terms for predicting performance in an industrial setting?
Select one:
A. assessment center
B. biographical data
C. personal interview  
D. personality inventory

Answer 70

D

Question 71

Question ID #330: Which of the following is not significantly associated with flextime?
Select one:
A. productivity
B. absenteeism
C. self-rated performance
D. job satisfaction

Answer 71

C

Question 72

Question ID #340: The fundamental principle underlying goal-setting theory is:
Select one:
A. self-efficacy beliefs are related to an individual’s commitment to organizational goals.
B. organizational goals are only achieved when they are consistent with a person’s self-concept.
C. behavior is regulated by a person’s conscious goals and intentions.
D. participation is necessary to ensure commitment to goals.

Answer 72

C

Question 73

Question ID #358: The two aspects of interactional justice are:
Select one:
A. environmental and social justice
B. interpersonal and environmental justice
C. informational and comparative justice
D. interpersonal and informational justice

Answer 73

D

Question 74

Question ID #396: All of following are rater biases EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. contrast effect
B. severity error  
C. central tendency bias
D. floor effect

Answer 74

D

Question 75

Question ID #417: Which of the Big Five personality traits is least stable over time?
Select one:
A. Conscientiousness
B. Extraversion  
C. Agreeableness
D. Neuroticism

Answer 75

D

Question 76

Question ID #435: An employer is concerned about the high voluntary turnover rates in her company. Which of the following would be most useful for ensuring that she identifies job applicants who are at high-risk for quitting their jobs if they are hired?
Select one:
A. a biographical information form
B. an interview
C. a personality test
D. a measure of "g"

Answer 76

A

Question 77

Question ID #409: An organization decides to implement changes based on a job characteristics assessment. Which of the following is least likely to be affected?
Select one:
A. work quality
B. motivation
C. satisfaction  
D. absenteeism

Answer 77

A

Question 78

Question ID #1042: Using an 8 hour comprehensive battery of tests to assess intelligence, subjects' performance systematically declined in the later hours of assessment. This is due to which of the following threats to internal validity?
Select one:
A. maturation
B. testing
C. selection
D. instrumentation

Answer 78

A

Question 79

Question ID #1083: Excessive variability in a behavior over time can make it difficult to obtain accurate information about the effects of an intervention on that behavior. Such variability poses the biggest threat for which of the following research designs?
Select one:
A. single-subject
B. factorial
C. split-plot
D. Solomon four-group

Answer 79

A

Question 80

Question ID #1094: The Solomon four-group design is:
Select one:
A. a quasi-experimental design
B. used to analyze the difference scores among four different treatment groups
C. used to reduce practice effects
D. used to evaluate the effects of pretesting

Answer 80

D

Question 81

Question ID #1054: From a large population, you take two random samples and measure them on one dependent variable. In this case, you would expect the F-ratio to be close to:
Select one:
A. 0.0.
B. 0.50.  
C. 2.50.
D. 1.0.

Answer 81

D

Question 82

Question ID #1065: In principal components analysis, an eigenvalue would indicate
Select one:
A. the amount of variability in a group of variables accounted for by an independent statistical component.
B. the amount of variability in a group of variables accounted for by a statistical component that shares variability with other statistical components in the analysis.
C. the amount of variability in one measured variable accounted for by all the independent statistical components in the analysis.
D. the amount of variability in all measured variables accounted for by all the statistical components in the analysis.

Answer 82

A

Question 83

Question ID #1045: Which of the following would increase the power of a statistical test?
Select one:
A. an increase in alpha
B. a decrease in alpha  
C. a decrease in sample size
D. use of a two-tailed test

Answer 83

A

Question 84

Question ID #1089: The coefficient of determination indicates
Select one:
A. the proportion of variability in one variable that is accounted for by variability in another variable.
B. the correlation between two variables with the effects of a third variable removed.
C. the correlation between two variables without the effects of a third variable removed.
D. the proportion of variability accounted for in a variable by all the factors in a factor analysis.

Answer 84

A

Question 85

Question ID #1069: When a study has two or more independent variables the research design used is:
Select one:
A. MANOVA
B. ANOVA-one way
C. Factorial ANOVA
D. ANCOVA

Answer 85

C

Question 86

Question ID #1075: In a normal distribution of scores, the range of raw scores represented by the percentile rank range of 50 to 55 is _______ the range of raw scores represented by the percentile rank range of 90 to 95.
Select one:
A. less than
B. greater than
C. the same as
D. depending on the standard deviation, either less than, greater than, or the same as

Answer 86

A

Question 87

Question ID #1091: If data points are widely scattered around a regression line, it would indicate
Select one:
A. high heteroscedasticity.
B. low heteroscedasticity.
C. low homoscedasticity.  
D. a low correlation coefficient.

Answer 87

D

Question 88

Question ID #1276: Which of the following is related to minority influence?
Select one:
A. Ambiguity
B. Idiosyncracy credits
C. Conformity  
D. Psychological reactance

Answer 88

B

Question 89

Question ID #1261: Based on Schachter’s work, one would treat a client with an obesity problem by:
Select one:
A. manipulating the external cues.
B. changing the client’s self-attributions.
C. changing the social reinforcers for food consumption.
D. manipulating the internal cues.

Answer 89

A

Question 90

Question ID #1301: From the perspective of Lewin’s field theory, the focus when studying human behavior should be on
Select one:
A. the immediate present.
B. the past factors that determined the present.
C. the past, the present, and the future.
D. the past, present, and/or future, depending on the nature of the target problem or behavior.

Answer 90

A

Question 91

Question ID #1269: When you look up to a person, are influenced by that person, identify with that person and hold them in high regard, that person has:
Select one:
A. Expert power  
B. Coercive power
C. Referent power
D. Reward power

Answer 91

C

Question 92

Question ID #1298: Which of the following statements is most consistent with Lewin’s field theory?
Select one:
A. As a person moves towards one of the goals in an approach-approach conflict, it becomes less attractive and the other goal becomes more attractive.
B. Leadership is a function of the relationship between a task and the environment.
C. Behavior is a function of the relationship between the person and the environment.
D. A person’s “life space” is equivalent to Jung’s notion of the collective unconscious.

Answer 92

C

Question 93

Question ID #1309: The tendency to experience losses more heavily than gains of equal magnitude results in less risky decisions and is referred to as:
Select one:
A. risky shift
B. adverse impact  
C. satisficing
D. loss aversion

Answer 93

D

Question 94

Question ID #1312: Journal reviewers who show strong bias against manuscripts that report results contrary to their theoretical perspective are demonstrating:
Select one:
A. self-serving bias
B. confirmatory bias
C. fundamental attribution bias
D. self verification theory

Answer 94

B

Question 95

Question ID #1290: When an impulsive group decision that reflects an incomplete consideration of alternatives and consequences is the result of high stress, high group cohesiveness, and a directive leader, this is an example of:
Select one:
A. groupthink.
B. group polarization.  
C. the risky shift.
D. the Rosenthal effect.

Answer 95

A

Question 96

Question ID #1387: A condition necessary for pooled variance is:
Select one:
A. unequal sample sizes
B. equal sample sizes
C. unequal covariances
D. equal covariances

Answer 96

B

Question 97

Question ID #1376: Which of the following is not a norm referenced test?
Select one:
A. GRE
B. drivers license
C. EPPP
D. GED

Answer 97

B

Question 98

Question ID #1371: In a study assessing the predictive validity of the SAT test to predict college success, it is found the SAT scores have a statistically significant correlation of .47 with the criterion, first year college GPA. A follow-up study separating the data by gender finds that for a given SAT score, the predicted GPA scores are higher for women than for men. This situation is most clearly an example of
Select one:
A. single group validity.
B. differential validity.  
C. differential prediction.
D. adverse impact.

Answer 98

C

Question 99

Question ID #1398: Which of the following would be used to determine how well an examinee did on a test in terms of a specific standard of performance?
Select one:
A. norm-referenced interpretation  
B. criterion-referenced interpretation
C. domain-referenced interpretation
D. objectives-referenced interpretation

Answer 99

B
There are several ways an examinee’s test score can be interpreted. In this question, a criterion-referenced interpretation, an examinee’s test performance is interpreted in terms of an external criterion, or standard of performance.
norm-referenced interpretation

In a norm-referenced interpretation, an examinee’s test performance is compared to the performance of members of the norm group (other people who have taken the test).

domain-referenced interpretation

Domain-referenced interpretation is used to determine how much of a specific knowledge domain the examinee has mastered.

objectives-referenced interpretation

Objectives-referenced interpretation involves interpreting an examinee’s performance in terms of achievement of instructional objectives.

Question 100

Question ID #1381: The slope of the item response curve, with respect to item response theory, indicates an item's:
Select one:
A. reliability
B. validity
C. difficulty  
D. discriminability

Answer 100

D

Question 101

Question ID #1395: Likert scales are most useful for:
Select one:
A. dichotomizing quantitative data  
B. quantifying objective data
C. quantifying subjective data
D. ordering categorical data

Answer 101

C