practice test

Question 1

Question ID #6599: A difference between the brief dynamic therapies and crisis intervention is:
Select one:
A. brief dynamic therapies focuses on specific symptoms
B. crisis intervention focuses on specific symptoms
C. crisis intervention views the patient’s symptoms as pathological
D. brief dynamic therapies views the patient’s symptoms as pathological

Answer 1

Correct Answer is: D
Brief dynamic therapies emphasize specific symptoms, viewed as pathological, and addresses underlying personality issues with emphasis on altering the normal level of functioning. Crisis intervention also focuses on specific symptoms; however, crisis intervention views symptoms as expected responses to acute trauma and seeks to return the person to the pre-trauma level of functioning.
Additional Information: Brief Psychotherapy

Question 2

Question ID #6576: Although conclusions will vary across different studies, which of the following statements is most supported by the overall body of research on therapy outcome for African-American and Caucasian patients?
Select one:
A. There is no significant difference in outcome between African-American and Caucasian patients.
B. African-American patients have better outcomes overall than Caucasian patients.
C. Caucasian patients have better outcomes overall than African-American patients.
D. Treatment outcomes for African-American patients are better but only when the therapist is also African-American.

Answer 2

Correct Answer is: A
Questions like these are difficult to answer, because research in this area is contradictory, and the issue is not resolved. Research has clearly identified a number of variables that potentially interact with race in influencing therapy outcome. For instance, African-American patients tend to have poorer outcomes when working with therapists who are insensitive to or unknowledgeable about racial or cultural issues. There are also studies that show that African-Americans are more likely to terminate therapy prematurely than Caucasians, and even a few studies which show they are likely to have poorer outcomes. However, the bulk of the literature and thinking on this issue supports the notion that race, in and of itself, is not a good predictor of therapy outcome.

Question 3

Question ID #6546: A therapist using Beck's cognitive approach to therapy would rely primarily on which of the following to induce desirable changes in a depressed client?
Select one:
A. Socratic questioning
B. interpretation
C. reflecting
D. clarification and explanation

Answer 3

Correct Answer is: A
Questioning is a very important strategy in Beck’s cognitive therapy and, in fact, the majority of communications by the therapist take the form of questions designed to help the client consider particular issues, options, and so on.

Question 4

Question ID #6492: J. Berry, who views acculturation as a multidimensional construct, would describe an integrated client as one who:
Select one:
A. Has a low retention of the minority culture
B. Has high maintenance of the mainstream culture
C. Rejects the mainstream culture but has a high retention of the minority culture
D. Gets along with others in the workplace

Answer 4

Correct Answer is: B
J. Barry conceptualizes acculturation as many models existing on a continuum, with the minority culture and the majority or mainstream culture at opposite poles. Integration would be displayed by an individual who has high retention of the minority culture and high maintenance of the mainstream culture.

Question 5

Question ID #6577: Wolfgang Kohler, a founder of the gestalt school of learning and thought, is known for applying gestalt learning principles to the development of
Select one:
A. unfinished business.
B. insight.
C. integration of all parts of the psyche.
D. awareness of psychological boundaries.

Answer 5

Correct Answer is: B
Kohler, a founder of the gestalt school of psychology, studied insight learning. In one of his experiments, a chimpanzee had to get some food placed outside his cage. He had two sticks but they were too short to reach the food. As he was sitting with the two sticks in his hand, the chimp had what Kohler called an “a-ha experience”: He quickly fit the sticks together and was able to get the food. This a-ha experience – a sudden, novel solution to the problem – is the basis of insight learning. According to Kohler, insight learning cannot be explained by traditional behavioral theories of learning, which are based on reinforcement and associations between stimuli.

Question 6

Question ID #6472: Beck’s cognitive therapy includes all of the following characteristics except:
Select one:
A. it is referred to as “collaborative empiricism.”
B. it is structured and goal-oriented.
C. relapse prevention is a focus throughout.
D. it is based on an elaboration likelihood model.

Answer 6

Correct Answer is: D
Beck’s model includes all of the characteristics except an elaboration likelihood model, which is a cognitive model of attitude change that predicts that persuasion can occur in one of two ways–through a central and peripheral route (Petty, 1994). Beck’s model is referred to as “collaborative empiricism” because it is founded on a collaborative relationship between the therapist and client, and involves gathering evidence and testing hypotheses about the client’s beliefs.

Question 7

Question ID #6517: Self-in-Relation theory suggests that:
Select one:
A. the self progresses from infantile dependence to mature independence
B. one’s self depends on how one connects to others
C. people prefer to be right rather than happy
D. the relationships between siblings is the most important influence in the development of the self

Answer 7

Correct Answer is: B
Self-in-Relation theory is a feminist theory which emphasizes the importance of one’s connections with others, particularly a daughter’s relationship with her mother. The development of the self is viewed as progressing from infantile dependence towards a mature state of interdependence.
the self progresses from infantile dependence to mature independence

This is in contrast to the traditional Western view of human development – a progression from infantile dependence towards a state of greater and greater separation, individuation, and independence.

people prefer to be right rather than happy

This refers to Self Verification theory which proposes that people need and seek confirmation of their self-concept, regardless of whether their self-concept is positive or negative.

Question 8

Question ID #6785: Older adults are likely to have more problems than young adults on tasks involving which type of memory?
Select one:
A. remote
B. primary
C. explicit
D. semantic

Answer 8

Correct Answer is: C
The literature on aging and memory is confusing because different authors focus on different aspects of memory (recent versus remote, implicit versus explicit, etc.), and few make direct comparisons between the different aspects. Of the types of memory listed, though, problems in explicit (deliberate) memory have most consistently been linked to advancing age. In contrast, remote long-term memory, primary (short-term) memory, and semantic memory are not strongly affected by normal aging.

Question 9

Question ID #6955: Cameron has changed his major at college three times although believes he has finally found the right major after thoroughly reviewing his skills and interests. Which of Marcia's identity statuses is Cameron most likely in?
Select one:
A. foreclosure
B. moratorium
C. achievement
D. diffusion

Answer 9

Correct Answer is: C
Crisis and commitment are the core variables in Marcia’s four identity status model. Identity diffusion* describes young people who have not undergone an identity crisis nor have committed to an identity. Identity foreclosure* is characterized by a commitment to an identity (e.g., career) that is not the result of an identity crisis, but rather, the suggestions of a parent or significant other. In moratorium, the individual is confused, in a state of crisis, has made no commitment and is actively exploring different options ( incorrect options).
Identity achievement signifies that the adolescent has surmounted the crisis and made a commitment.

Question 10

Question ID #6988: Piaget distinguished between four stages of cognitive development, with the preoperational stage occurring between the ages of 3 to 6 years. Which of the following is not associated with this stage of cognitive development?
Select one:
A. transduction
B. centration
C. primary circular reactions
D. animism

Answer 10

Correct Answer is: C
Primary circular reactions are not associated with the preoperational stage but rather entail repetitions of pleasurable actions and are characteristic of babies between 1 and 4 months of age.
Transduction* refers to reasoning involving by the tendency to move from one specific case to another without taking the general into account. Centration* involves an inability to focus on more than one aspect of a situation or object at a time and animism* refers to the belief that objects have thoughts, feelings, and other lifelike qualities (* incorrect options).

Question 11

Question ID #6982: Research investigating adjustment in early adolescence to parental remarriage has suggested that
Select one:
A. remarriage and the corresponding family structural changes negatively impact early adolescent girls more than early adolescent boys.
B. remarriage and corresponding family structural changes negatively impact early adolescent boys more than early adolescent girls.
C. factors such as increased maternal happiness and increased family functioning typically function as a “buffer” to protect both early adolescent girls and boys from the negative effects of family structural changes caused by remarriage.
D. both early adolescent boys and early adolescent girls typically adjust fairly rapidly to family structural changes caused by remarriage.

Answer 11

Correct Answer is: A
Longitudinal research has shown that, from the point of view of childhood adjustment to structural changes in the family introduced by remarriage and newly blended families, early adolescence is not a good time for a custodial parent to remarry. Adolescents, both boys and girls, display more difficulty adjusting to this new situation on the average than young children. In addition, girls in early adolescence seem particularly prone to adjustment difficulties than boys at the same age. Experts have suggested that these difficulties may be due to the stepfather “dethroning” the almost exclusive relationship the girl previously had with her mother.

Question 12

Question ID #6788: A 1-year old child is placed in a strange situation and appears to be uninterested in the environment and exhibits little distress when his mother leaves the room. According to Ainsworth, the child most likely has which of the following attachment patterns?
Select one:
A. secure
B. avoidant
C. resistant
D. disorganized

Answer 12

Correct Answer is: B
A child with an avoidant pattern of attachment typically appears uninterested in the environment, shows little distress when the mother leaves and avoids contact with her when she returns.

Question 13

Question ID #6938: Adapting attitudes and behaviors to fit the expectations of what girls or boys are “supposed to do” within a sociocultural environment is reflective of which gender-role identity development theory?
Select one:
A. Kagan’s social learning theory
B. Bem’s gender schema theory
C. Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory
D. Freud’s psychodynamic theory

Answer 13

Correct Answer is: B
Bem’s gender schema theory states children develop schema about what is expected of them as girls or boys and then apply those schemas to their own behavior. Because it emphasizes both social, notably sociocultural factors, and cognitive processes, it is classified as a social-cognitive approach.
Kagan’s social learning theory* focuses on social factors role on the development of gender-role identity, yet focuses primarily on the impact of modeling and reinforcement. Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory* emphasizes the cognitive processes that underlie gender-role identity development. Resolution of the psychosexual crisis of the phallic stage of development is the emphasis of Freud’s theory of gender-role identity* (* incorrect options).

Question 14

Question ID #6942: By the age of 6, which of the following are established?
Select one:
A. gender identity and stability
B. gender identity and constancy
C. gender constancy and stability
D. gender constancy, identity and stability

Answer 14

Correct Answer is: D
Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory of gender concept development, grounded in Piagetian theory, asserts that children gradually progress through three stages. Gender identity, usually gained by age three, is the ability to correctly label own gender and identify others as boys/men and girls/women. Gender stability - knowledge, usually gained by age four years, that reflects an understanding that one’s gender remains the same throughout life. Gender constancy: realization, around age 5, 6 or 7 years, that one’s gender stays the same even with alterations in appearance, behaviors, or desires.

Question 15

Question ID #6836: If a child can understand that A is greater than B and B is greater than C, and then understand that as a result, A is greater than C, this is an example of:
Select one:
A. Inductive reasoning
B. Symbolic thought
C. Deductive reasoning
D. Pre-operational thought.

Answer 15

Correct Answer is: A
This is an example of inductive reasoning, or reasoning from a particular fact to a general rule.
Symbolic thought is the understanding that one thing can stand for another; deductive reasoning is reasoning from a general law to a particular case.

Question 16

Question ID #6949: Which of the following is NOT one of Baumgartner's incorporation phases of an HIV/AIDS diagnosis into identity?
Select one:
A. post-immersion turning point
B. post-diagnosis turning point
C. disclosure
D. stabilization

Answer 16

Correct Answer is: D
Informed by narrative and transformational learning approaches to identity development, Lisa Baumgartner’s study (2001) on the incorporation of an HIV/AIDS diagnosis into one’s identity identified a six-phase process including: diagnosis, post-diagnosis turning point, immersion, post-immersion turning point, integration and disclosure. The diagnosis phase involved the common reactions of shock, fear, denial, and relief. Post-diagnosis turning point was associated with social interaction or a “catalyst experience.” In the immersion phase, people became immersed in the HIV/AIDS community; the HIV/AIDS identity was central and they educated others. Whereas the post-immersion turning point phase caused a revaluation of priorities. The integration phase was associated with decentralizing (internal experience of the HIV/AIDS identity) and balancing, such as engaging in activities unrelated to HIV/AIDS. Disclosure was woven throughout the process however initially individuals only told significant others, then made public disclosures, and finally made situational disclosures on a need-to-know basis. (See: Baumgartner, L. M. (2002) Living and Learning with HIV/AIDS: Transformational Tales Continued. Adult Education Quarterly, Vol. 53, No. 1, 44-59.)

Question 17

Question ID #7035: Treatment of Gender Identity Disorder in children would be most likely to focus on
Select one:
A. acting as a role-model of gender appropriate behavior for the child.
B. helping the person “come out” as a transgendered individual.
C. peer relationships and self-esteem.
D. working with a medical professional who can prescribe medications to alter hormonal imbalances.

Answer 17

Correct Answer is: C
Treatment of Gender Identity Disorder in children is moderately controversial, with some arguing that any attempt to alter a child’s gender identity is sexist, and others stating that it represents a sneaky attempt to prevent the child from growing up to be homosexual. Nonetheless, a number of treatment models have been applied, even though scientific evidence of their success is limited. Typical interventions focus on social skills, self-esteem, and increasing the child’s comfort with his or her biological gender. They may include positive reinforcement for gender-appropriate behavior, setting limits on cross-gender behavior, social skills training, and parental training in self-esteem enhancement.

Question 18

Question ID #7159: Among individuals with Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder, the deficits in attention are currently believed to be due to significant difficulty in:
Select one:
A. attending to all tasks
B. attending to interesting tasks
C. regulating attention
D. regulating conflicting emotions

Answer 18

Correct Answer is: C
The predominant theories regarding ADHD suggest that individuals with the disorder have difficulty regulating their attention. It is not that they pay too little attention; on the contrary, they often pay too much attention to too many things, many of which are not relevant.

Question 19

Question ID #7249: Of the "big 5" personality dimensions one would most expect a sociopathic personality to have the dimension of:
Select one:
A. Extraversion
B. Openness
C. Conscientiousness
D. Sensing

Answer 19

Correct Answer is: A
This is one of those where the right answer - extraversion - is a “rule out”. The Big Five personality dimensions are extraversion, agreeableness, openness, emotional stability and conscientiousness. An antisocial personality is described as deceitful, impulsive, irritable, consistently irresponsible and with a lack or remorse. You might not always expect an antisocial person to be extroverted, but of the choices, it is what you would most expect.

Question 20

Question ID #81: Dementia and depression both involve cognitive deficits. However, in comparison to dementia, depression:
Select one:
A. is more likely to involve impaired free recall while recognition memory is left relatively intact.
B. is more likely to involve impaired declarative memory while procedural memory is left relatively intact.
C. is more likely to involve impaired nonverbal memory than verbal memory.
D. is more likely to cause deficits on abstract memory tasks than on concrete memory tasks.

Answer 20

Correct Answer is: A
It’s sometimes hard to distinguish between depression and dementia because they share several symptoms, especially cognitive deficits. However, the pattern of cognitive deficits differs. For example, depression is likely to impair free recall only, while dementia affects both free recall and recognition.

Question 21

Question ID #90: The presence of which of the following suggests the diagnosis is Social Phobia rather than Agoraphobia?
Select one:
A. social situations are avoided due to fear of humiliation or embarrassment
B. an absence of the physiological symptoms associated with a panic attack
C. anxiety that is perceived as excessive and temporarily controllable
D. increased anxiety in feared situations when accompanied by a trusted companion

Answer 21

Correct Answer is: D
Individuals with Agoraphobia typically prefer to be with a trusted companion when in the feared situation, whereas, individuals with Social Phobia may feel more anxious due to the potential scrutiny by a companion.
social situations are avoided due to fear of humiliation or embarrassment

This choice does not adequately differentiate the disorders since in both Social Phobia and Agoraphobia there is a fear of humiliation or embarrassment and an avoidance of those situations, although in Agoraphobia the fear is not limited to social situations.

Question 22

Question ID #7281: During the acute phase, hypoglycemia is most likely to be misdiagnosed as:
Select one:
A. Schizophrenia.
B. Major Depression.
C. Panic Disorder.
D. Dementia.

Answer 22

Correct Answer is: C
Many of the endocrine disorders produce symptoms that can be mistaken for a psychiatric illness. Hypoglycemia has both acute and chronic phases, which involve different symptoms. During the acute phase, which this question is asking about, symptoms include panic and anxiety. However, these are replaced during the chronic phase with depression, psychosis, and/or personality change.

Question 23

Question ID #7229: An interpersonal therapist who is working with a client suffering from a prolonged grief reaction would attempt to
Select one:
A. connect the person’s current grief reaction to losses of significant others in early childhood.
B. help the client understanding how the loss is impacting the current therapeutic relationship.
C. build up a positive relationship with the client and avoid discussing the loss until the termination phase of therapy.
D. modify the client’s maladaptive behaviors under the assumption that psychological change follows behavioral change.

Answer 23

Correct Answer is: B
Though the correct answer is an imprecise description of what an interpersonal therapist would do, it is the best answer available. Interpersonal therapists believe that depression is caused and maintained by disturbances in early life, especially attachment disturbances. Rather than focusing on the past, however, they focus on the connection between the presenting problem and client’s current relationships – including the current relationship with the therapist. Grief reactions are a common focus of interpersonal therapy.

Question 24

Question ID #7263: The findings of the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) research project regarding the relative effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral therapy and antidepressant medication in the treatment of depression indicate that
Select one:
A. both treatments are about equally effective.
B. cognitive/behavioral therapy is more effective in the short-term, while medication is more effective in the long-term.
C. cognitive-behavioral therapy has an immediate effect, while medication has a delayed effect.
D. cognitive-behavioral therapy is more effective.

Answer 24

Correct Answer is: A
The findings of the NIMH research project were that, on an overall level, cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and antidepressant medication are about equally effective in the treatment of depression. There was some evidence that the treatments differed in the types of depression for which they are most effective. Specifically, some evidence suggested that CBT is more effective for milder forms of depression, while medication is more effective for relatively severe forms. But in terms of overall effectiveness, both treatments were found to be about equal.

Question 25

Question ID #7207: Research by Foa et al. (1999) found which of the following treatments most effective for post-traumatic stress disorder?
Select one:
A. prolonged exposure
B. stress inoculation training
C. response prevention
D. prolonged exposure combined with stress inoculation training

Answer 25

Correct Answer is: A
Foa et. al. (1999) compared prolonged exposure, stress inoculation training, combined prolonged exposure and stress inoculation training, and a waiting list control group. The results indicated that all treatments (except the waiting list) were effective; however, prolonged exposure was superior to either stress inoculation training or the combined treatment.
Response prevention was not included in the study, and is typically used with disorders that include more of a behavioral component, such as obsessive-compulsive disorder (E. Foa, C. Dancu, E. Hembree, L. Jaycox, E. Meadows, & G. Street, A comparison of exposure therapy, stress inoculation training, and their combination for reducing posttraumatic stress disorder in female assault victims. Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 1999, 67(2), 194-200).

Question 26

Question ID #7284: Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between environmental factors and the course of Bipolar Disorders?
Select one:
A. Environmental factors are likely to have a greater impact during the early stages of the disorder.
B. Environmental factors are likely to have a greater impact during the latter stages of the disorder.
C. Environmental factors are likely to have an approximately equal impact throughout the course of the disorder.
D. Environmental factors are likely to have no impact because Bipolar Disorders are entirely due to biological factors.

Answer 26

Correct Answer is: A
Bipolar Disorders have a strong genetic and biological component. Nonetheless, evidence suggests that environmental factors can trigger episodes. This is especially true in the early stages of the disorder; psychosocial stressors often trigger the initial mood episodes; they less frequently trigger subsequent episodes.

Question 27

Question ID #84: The incidence of OCD is:
Select one:
A. the same for males and females across all ages
B. about twice as common in males than females
C. higher among boys but about equal among adult males and females
D. higher among girls but about equal among adult males and females

Answer 27

Correct Answer is: C
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder has an earlier peak onset for males than females. For males the peak onset is between ages 6 and 15, and for females it is between ages 20 and 29. The incidence is, therefore, higher among boys than girls but in adulthood the incidence is about the same.

Question 28

Question ID #260: With parental consent, a psychologist has been providing therapy to a 12-year-old boy for a couple of months. Unexpectedly, both parents suddenly withdraw their consent. The psychologist believes that continuing therapy is in the best interests of the boy. The psychologist’s best course of action would be to:
Select one:
A. seek judicial intervention
B. obtain a signed consent from the girl and continue treatment
C. stop the treatment because both parents have withdrawn their consent but provide them with referrals to other therapists
D. continue to see the girl without the parents’ consent

Answer 28

Correct Answer is: A
The psychologist’s ethical obligation is to serve the best interests of the child, but legally, he/she cannot proceed with treatment if the parents do not give consent to do so. While some states have laws that allow psychologists to provide services without parental consent, no information is given in this question regarding the relevant law or whether the child’s problem(s) would be covered by this type of law.
The Ethics Code Standard 1.02 states that “If psychologists’ ethical responsibilities conflict with law, psychologists make known their commitment to the Ethics Code and take steps to resolve the conflict in a responsible manner.” Therefore, the psychologist would not just terminate without attempting to advocate for the patient; nor continue to treat the child without the parents consent, as violating the law is not consistent with resolving the conflict in a responsible manner.

Question 29

Question ID #290: Based on the description of test fairness in APA’s Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing, which of the following is not necessarily an indicator of unfairness in test use?
Select one:
A. a test measures a construct not relevant to what it purports to measure, resulting in one group consistently scoring lower than another.
B. access to the test center is easier to obtain for one subgroup than for another.
C. minority group members do not succeed on an employee selection test at the same rate as majority group members.
D. on a prediction test, errors in prediction consistently occur for members of a particular minority group.

Answer 29

Correct Answer is: C
According to APA’s Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing, test fairness is a general social concept, not a psychometric one, and is therefore difficult to describe in precise terms. The Standards provide multiple meanings of the term–for instance, it can refer to equitable treatment of all examinees in terms of testing conditions such as access to a test center and practice materials. In psychometric terms, test unfairness is usually defined as either measurement bias (“a test measures a construct not relevant to what it purports to measure, resulting in one group consistently scoring lower than another”) or predictive bias (“minority group members do not succeed on an employee selection test at the same rate as majority group members”) systematically lowering the scores of a particular subgroup. In measurement bias, the test measures a construct not relevant to its stated purpose, with the result of lower of scores for a given subgroup.
An example would be a math test on which scores are systematically lower for people whose first language is not English, due to the wording of the questions. In predictive bias, errors of prediction consistently occur for a particular subgroup. An example would be an employment selection test on which African-Americans consistently score lower than Caucasians even though both groups perform equally well on the job.

The Standards explicitly reject a definition of test fairness based solely on equal outcome (i.e., “minority group members do not succeed on an employee selection test at the same rate as majority group members”). If members of a minority group do not succeed on an employee selection test at the same rate of majority group members, the test would not be unfair unless the job performance of both groups did not reflect this difference in test scores.

Question 30

Question ID #237: You are a psychologist in private practice and, due to a heavy case load, you decide to work with another psychologist. The second psychologist will see many of the clients and share office space with you. You agree to give this psychologist 50% of all fees received. This arrangement is
Select one:
A. unethical, because the ethical standards prohibit fees for referrals.
B. unethical, because it threatens the best interests of the clients.
C. unethical, because the clients will be misled about their fees.
D. ethical.

Answer 30

Correct Answer is: D
There is nothing inherently unethical about this arrangement, and it is not barred by APA’s ethical standards. The standards do prohibit payment for referrals that are based on the referral itself and not based on services rendered. However, both psychologists in this case will apparently be rendering services, so the arrangement appears acceptable.

Question 31

Question ID #314: According to APA’s Ethical Standards, psychologists would be banned under all circumstances from soliciting testimonials from
Select one:
A. anyone.
B. current patients.
C. current and former patients.
D. no one - the Ethical Standards do not deal with the issue of testimonials.

Answer 31

Correct Answer is: B
Ethical Standard 5.05 states that “Psychologists do not solicit testimonials from current therapy clients/patients or other persons who because of their particular circumstances are vulnerable to undue influence.” So you would be banned under all circumstances from soliciting testimonials from current patients. Certainly, the “vulnerable due to undue influence” language would ban you from soliciting testimonials from former patients in many if not most cases. But this is not an absolute ban from seeking testimonials from former patients, so, due to the wording “under all circumstances” in the question, this choice (“current and former patients”) is not the best answer.

Question 32

Question ID #216: Which of the following is not a recommendation of APA’s Guidelines for Providers of Service to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations?
Select one:
A. Psychologists should downplay their own culture and emphasize the client’s culture.
B. Psychologists should help clients understand, maintain, and resolve their own sociocultural identification.
C. Psychologists should seek to help determine whether a so-called “problem” stems from racism or bias in others so that clients don’t inappropriately personalize problems.
D. Psychologists should work to eliminate biases, prejudices, and discriminatory practices.

Answer 32

Correct Answer is: A
Although these Guidelines do emphasize the need to consider, respect, and understand the client’s cultural background, they don’t advise psychologists to downplay their own backgrounds. The other choices are all paraphrases of statements contained in these Guidelines.

Question 33

Question ID #485: A leader should adopt a “telling” style if:
Select one:
A. The employee has low ability but high willingness to accept responsibility
B. The employee has high ability but low willingness to accept responsibility
C. The employee’s ability to and willingness to accept responsibility are both high
D. The employee’s ability and willingness to accept responsibility are both low

Answer 33

Correct Answer is: D
The “telling style” according to Hersey and Blanchard’s (1974) description, is more effective when an employee’s ability and willingness to accept responsibility are low. This leadership style involves high task orientation and low relationship orientation.
The employee has low ability but high willingness to accept responsibility

The leader should adopt the “selling” style-high task orientation and high relationship orientation.

The employee has high ability but low willingness to accept responsibility

The leader should adopt a “participatory” style-low task orientation and high relationship orientation.

The employee’s ability to and willingness to accept responsibility are both high

The leader can use a “delegating style”; both low task and low relationship orientation.

Question 34

Question ID #523: Which of the following is true about the use of biodata as a selection tool?
Select one:
A. It has low validity apparently because it is so susceptible to faking.
B. A drawback of empirically-derived biodata forms is that they often lack face validity.
C. For most jobs, biodata is superior to cognitive ability tests for predicting job performance.
D. Biodata is a good predictor of job performance for white-collar jobs only.

Answer 34

Correct Answer is: B
Biodata is generally considered second to cognitive ability tests in terms of validity for predicting job performance. Although empirically-derived biodata forms are most valid, their questions sometimes lack face validity; i.e., they ask for information that doesn’t seem to have anything to do with job performance. This can be a problem because it decreases applicants’ motivation to fill out the forms accurately.

Question 35

Question ID #549: Research has generally found that job enrichment:
Select one:
A. increases job performance and, to a lesser degree, job satisfaction particularly among blue collar workers
B. increases job satisfaction and decreases absenteeism, particularly among younger, well-educated employees
C. increases job satisfaction but has no effect on job performance
D. has no significant effects on job satisfaction or performance

Answer 35

Correct Answer is: B
Job enrichment involves redesigning a job in order to enable workers to have more challenge, responsibility, decision-making authority, and opportunities for advancement. Although the research findings are mixed, they generally have found that job enrichment leads to increased job satisfaction, decreased absenteeism and turnover, and in some cases, increased job performance in terms of quality rather than quantity. The benefits of job enrichment are greatest among younger, well-educated, employees who have a high need for achievement.

Question 36

Question ID #520: In order to best reduce leniency bias you would use:
Select one:
A. peer ratings
B. BARS
C. BIB
D. forced-choice

Answer 36

Correct Answer is: D
Leniency bias is the tendency of a rater to give all ratees positive ratings. Although the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) may improve rating accuracy over a standard Likert Scale, it is not as effective at reducing biases as a forced-choice method. A forced-choice method consists of pairs of statements about job performance that both appear equally favorable or unfavorable, but the statements in each pair actually differentiate between good and poor performing individuals.

Question 37

Question ID #471: According to social learning theory, job training would be most effective when using:
Select one:
A. behavioral modeling
B. vestibule training
C. reinforcement on a variable interval schedule
D. reinforcers tailored to each employee’s needs

Answer 37

Correct Answer is: A
According to Bandura’s social learning theory (or theory of observational learning), it is possible to learn a given behavior merely by watching a model perform it. Behavioral practice and reinforcement, though they influence the probability that a behavior will be learned, are not absolutely necessary for the behavior to be imitated.
vestibule training

Vestibule training involves a simulation of work conditions, although it does not necessarily involve modeling.

reinforcement on a variable interval schedule

reinforcers tailored to each employee’s needs

These two choices, which involve reinforcement procedures, can be eliminated.

Question 38

Question ID #645: There is evidence that the effectiveness of systematic desensitization for reducing anxiety is actually due to repeated exposure to the feared stimulus, which leads to extinction of the anxiety response. However, systematic desensitization was originally developed as an application of
Select one:
A. negative reinforcement.
B. counterconditioning.
C. stimulus discrimination.
D. avoidance conditioning.

Answer 38

Correct Answer is: B
In systematic desensitization, anxiety-arousing stimuli are paired with stimuli that produce an incompatible response (often relaxation). In other words, it was designed to use counterconditioning in order to eliminate an anxiety response. Some research suggests, however, that it is actually just the exposure to anxiety-arousing stimuli, without aversive consequences, that explains the effectiveness of this technique.

Question 39

Question ID #674: The extinction of responding to one cue results in an increase in responding to the other is a phenomenon known as:
Select one:
A. cue deflation
B. overshadowing
C. potentiation
D. backward blocking

Answer 39

Correct Answer is: A
The cue deflation effect happens when the extinction of a response to one cue leads to an increased reaction to the other conditioned stimulus (CS). It sometimes occurs in a situation where two simultaneous CSs of different salience are paired with an UCS. The extinction of responding to the more salient (overshadowing) CS sometimes produces increased CR strength to the less salient CS.
Overshadowing is when two CSs are presented simultaneously and followed by an UCS, the more salient CS is more strongly conditioned than the less salient. In contrast, potentiation refers to when the salient CS enhances the conditioning of the less salient CS. In backward blocking, a conditioned response to the second stimulus is reduced. Two CSs are simultaneously paired with an UCS and then only one of those CSs continues to be paired with the UCS.

Question 40

Question ID #575: The basic requirements of a token economy are:
Select one:
A. stimulus sensitization, choice of tokens, rate of exchange.
B. target behaviors, choice of reinforcers, rate of exchange.
C. goal setting, staff cooperation, choice of reinforcers.
D. target behaviors, choice of tokens, primary reinforcers.

Answer 40

Correct Answer is: B
To institute a token economy program, you need to know the behaviors you want to change (the target behaviors). You also need to know what is reinforcing for the client (choice of reinforcer). For a hospitalized schizophrenic, it might be walking around; for a child, it might be a candy treat. You also need to know the relationship between token and the reinforcer (rate of exchange); that is, how many tokens will purchase the reinforcer.

Question 41

Question ID #620: Marital therapy based on the principles of social learning theory most often emphasizes
Select one:
A. behavioral therapy combined with communication and problem-solving skills training.
B. individual exploratory therapy for each spouse combined with communication and problem-solving skills training.
C. group therapy combined with communication and problem-solving skills training.
D. group therapy combined with individual behavior-oriented therapy for each spouse.

Answer 41

Correct Answer is: A
Social learning theory has been applied to family therapy in the area of marital therapy as well as child management. In both cases, the emphasis is on behavioral methodology as well as on communication and problem-solving skills. For example, in marital therapy based on the principles of behavioral and social learning theory, typical methods include functional analysis of the spouses’ behaviors, contracts stipulating specific behavioral changes, communication skills training, and directive advice regarding solutions to problems. Consistent with the principles of social learning theory, the therapist will often model healthy communication and interpersonal behavior for the couple.

Question 42

Question ID #786: Memory impairment is to Alzheimer's disease as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is to Parkinson's disease:
Select one:
A. bradykinesia/akinesia
B. dyspraxia
C. hyperkinesia
D. hypophonia

Answer 42

Correct Answer is: A
Bradykinesia/akinesia refer to slowness and absence of movement, respectively, and is one of the primary symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. Other primary symptoms of PD are tremor or trembling in hands, arms, legs, jaw, and face; rigidity or stiffness of the limbs and trunk; and postural instability, or impaired balance and coordination. Other symptoms may include depression and other emotional changes; sleep disruptions; skin problems; difficulty in swallowing, chewing, and speaking; and urinary problems or constipation. Motor planning or “praxis” is the ability of the brain to conceive, organize, and carry out a sequence of unfamiliar actions. Praxis enables us to deal with the physical environment in an adaptive manner. In Dyspraxic Syndrome there is a reduced ability to carry out non-learned movements, even though adequate physical and conceptual capacity exists. Dyspraxia* is a lifelong disorder that affects a person’s development in the area of motor development. People with dyspraxia have difficulty planning and completing intended fine motor tasks. It is estimated that as many as 6% of all children show some signs of dyspraxia, and in the general population, about 70% of those affected by dyspraxia are male. Dyspraxia can affect different areas of functioning, varying from simple motor tasks such as waving goodbye to more complex tasks like brushing teeth. Hyperkinesia* refers to abnormally increased motor function or activity; hyperactivity. Hypophonia* refers to a weak voice due to incoordination of the vocal muscles (* incorrect options).

Question 43

Question ID #975: The brain part or system that manages the circadian rhythm is located in the
Select one:
A. caudate nucleus.
B. cerebellum.
C. reticular activating system.
D. hypothalamus.

Answer 43

Correct Answer is: D
You may have thought the answer was reticular activating system, which is involved in many functions related to sleep. However, the circadian rhythm, or the innate, 24-hour cycle of biological activity (i.e., the biological clock) is managed by the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), a group of cells found within the hypothalamus. The SCN gets information about day length via a pathway between it and light receptors in the retina. The SCN interprets this information and passes it to the pineal gland, which secretes the hormone melatonin in response (nighttime increases melatonin secretion, while daylight inhibits it). Destruction of the SCN causes circadian rhythms to disappear entirely.

Question 44

Question ID #991: The brand name for one of the medications used for ADHD is:
Select one:
A. Tegretol
B. Depakote
C. Dolophine
D. Dexedrine

Answer 44

Correct Answer is: D
Dexedrine is sometimes used in the treatment of ADHD. Tegretol and Depakote are both used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. Dolophine is used for the treatment of heroin addiction.

Question 45

Question ID #1020: Methylphenidate (Ritalin) administered to children with ADHD is most likely to result in which of the following side effects:
Select one:
A. hyperactivity
B. dizziness
C. loss of appetite
D. increase in blood pressure

Answer 45

Correct Answer is: C
The most common side effects associated with Methylphenidate (Ritalin) use in children with ADHD are loss of appetite, abdominal pain, insomnia, and tachycardia. A number of other side effects can also occur, but are less common, such as headache, dizziness, drowsiness, increase or decrease in blood pressure, and toxic psychosis. In many cases, the side effects can be alleviated by reducing the dosage.

Question 46

Question ID #739: The neurotransmitter most directly related to voluntary muscle movement is
Select one:
A. dopamine.
B. epinephrine.
C. serotonin.
D. acetylcholine.

Answer 46

Correct Answer is: D
Acetylcholine, the first neurotransmitter discovered, has a number of functions. For instance, when it binds to receptors on skeletal muscle fibers, it stimulates muscle contraction by opening channels that allow sodium ions to enter the muscle cell. Its other functions include decreasing contraction in cardiac muscles, and activating arousal and reward systems in the central nervous system.

Question 47

Question ID #986: The medication considered most effective for the treatment of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is:
Select one:
A. Lithium
B. Clomipramine
C. Disulfiram
D. Diazepam

Answer 47

Correct Answer is: B
Most of the antidepressant drugs such as clomipramine, imipramine, as well as the SSRIs are believed to increase serotonin activity which seems to lessen the effects of OCD.
Lithium is often used in treating mood disorders, disulfiram is the generic name for Antabuse and diazepam as well as the other “pams” are benzodiazephines- sometimes used in the treatment of anxiety.

Question 48

Question ID #864: Which of the following is a non-stimulant medication that alleviates inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity symptoms in AD/HD?
Select one:
A. methylphenidate
B. atomoxetine
C. pemoline
D. dextroamphetamine

Answer 48

Correct Answer is: B
In November 2002, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved a new medication called atomoxetine (Strattera) specifically for AD/HD. This medication is neither a stimulant nor an antidepressant. It alleviates inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity symptoms of AD/HD by affecting specific aspects of the norepinephrine system. This medication is a reuptake inhibitor that acts on the neurotransmitter norepinephrine (which affects blood pressure and blood flow) in the same way that antidepressants act on the neurotransmitter seratonin, allowing the natural chemical to remain longer in the brain before being drawn back up. Because it is a non-stimulant, it may be less objectionable to some families. Nevertheless, it has similar side effects as other medications used for AD/HD. It is a prescription medication, but it is not a controlled substance like a stimulant. This allows medical professionals to give samples and to place refills on the prescriptions. It does not start working as quickly as the stimulants do. Reports suggest that the full effects are often not seen until the person has been taking atomoxetine regularly for 3 or 4 weeks.
Methylphenidate, i.e., Ritalin, Concerta, Metadate, pemoline, i.e., Cylert (less commonly prescribed because it can cause liver damage), and dextroamphetamine, i.e., Dexedrine, Dextrostat, along with amphetamines, i.e., Adderall are four main types of stimulants used for the treatment of AD/HD ( incorrect options).

Question 49

Question ID #1125: Which of the following techniques is most similar to latent trait analysis (LTA)?
Select one:
A. cluster sampling
B. analysis of covariance
C. multitrait-multimethod matrix
D. latent class analysis

Answer 49

Correct Answer is: D
Latent class analysis, like latent trait analysis, is used to identify the underlying latent structure of a set of observed data. The techniques differ in that in LTA, the latent variable that determines the structure is continuous whereas in LCA, the latent variable is nominal.
Cluster sampling is a sampling technique in which groups of participants are selected instead of individuals.

Used to statistically remove the effects of the covariate, or an extraneous variable, on the dependent variable, the analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) makes it easier to determine the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable.

The multitrait-multimethod matrix is used to assess convergent and divergent validity.

Question 50

Question ID #1089: The coefficient of determination indicates
Select one:
A. the proportion of variability in one variable that is accounted for by variability in another variable.
B. the correlation between two variables with the effects of a third variable removed.
C. the correlation between two variables without the effects of a third variable removed.
D. the proportion of variability accounted for in a variable by all the factors in a factor analysis.

Answer 50

Correct Answer is: A
The coefficient of determination is calculated by squaring a correlation coefficient. As compared to the correlation coefficient, it provides a more direct way of interpreting the calculated relationship between two variables. Specifically, it indicates the proportion of variability shared by the two variables, or the proportion of variability in one variable that can be accounted for by variability in the other.

Question 51

Question ID #1058: An advantage of using a MANOVA over multiple one-way ANOVAs is that
Select one:
A. the use of a MANOVA reduces the experiment-wise error rate.
B. a MANOVA can be used when the study involves more than one dependent variable.
C. a MANOVA is the more appropriate test when the researcher has an a priori hypotheses about the nature of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables.
D. a MANOVA involves simpler mathematical calculations.

Answer 51

Correct Answer is: A
When a study involves two or more dependent variables, data can be analyzed with either multiple (one for each dependent variable) statistical tests (e.g., multiple one-way ANOVAs) or one MANOVA. An advantage of the latter technique is that it reduces the probability that at least one Type I error (incorrect rejection of the null hypothesis) will be made. This is because the fewer statistical tests one conducts, the less likely it is that a Type I error will occur. In an experiment that involves more than one comparison, the probability of at least one Type I error is referred to as the experiment-wise error rate.

Question 52

Question ID #1346: The phenomenon of “groupthink” which occurs in highly cohesive groups is characterized by
Select one:
A. group members’ failure to analyze and evaluate their own decisions.
B. group decisions that are more conservative than they otherwise would be.
C. group behavior that results in greater positive outcomes for others not associated with the group.
D. group members feeling more free to express their opinions than they would in less cohesive groups.

Answer 52

Correct Answer is: A
The phenomenon of groupthink was studied extensively by Irving Janis, who developed the notion based on his post-hoc studies of poor decision-making in history. He defined groupthink as “a mode of thinking that people engage in when they are deeply involved in a cohesive in-group, when the members’ strivings for unanimity override their motivation to realistically appraise alternative courses of action.” In other words, in highly cohesive groups, groupthink occurs when group members are more concerned with agreeing with each other than acting rationally and evaluating alternatives. As stated by Janis’ definition, groupthink involves the group’s failure to analyze and evaluate its decisions. Other signs of groupthink include illusions of invulnerability that lead to more risky decisions than would otherwise be the case; fear among group members of expressing dissenting opinions; rationalizing warnings that challenge the group’s assumptions; unquestioned belief in the goodness of the group; stereotyped beliefs about people who oppose the group; pressure for conformity; an illusion among group members that their beliefs are unanimous; and the emergence of self-appointed “mindguards”, or group members who shield the group from dissenting information.

Question 53

Question ID #1327: A sports psychologist suggests the most important factor in understanding the relationship of intensity to athletic performance is the individual athlete’s own interpretation of his or her perceived intensity. This explanation is based on:
Select one:
A. Inverted-U Theory
B. Individual Zones of Optimal Function (IZOF) Model
C. Catastrophe Model
D. Reversal Theory

Answer 53

Correct Answer is: D
There are four current theoretical explanations for the relationship between intensity (i.e., anxiety, arousal, nervousness) and athletic performance: Inverted-U Hypothesis (Yerkes & Dodson, 1908); Individual Zones of Optimal Functioning Model (Hanin, 1986); Catastrophe theory (Hardy & Fazey, 1987), and Reversal theory (Kerr, 1987).
The Inverted-U theory* is the most popular explanation of the relationship of intensity and athletic performance and is often referred to as the Yerkes-Dodson Law. It purports moderate intensity is optimal for all athletes, theorizing as intensity increases from low to moderate levels there is an associated improvement in performance and performance worsens once intensity levels either exceed or fall below this moderate range.

The Individual Zones of Optimal Function (IZOF) model*, proposes that the optimal level of intensity may vary, ranging from very low to very high for different individuals, and that a multitude of inter-individual differences exist across athletes and sport settings.

Catastrophe theory, suggests that physiological arousal is dependent upon the level of cognitive intensity of the individual athlete and that cognitive, somatic and self-confidence aspects exert an interactive three-dimensional influence on performance ( incorrect options).

Reversal theory states how an athlete interprets his or her own intensity levels, whether as positive or negative, influences performance. The theory also suggests for successful performances to occur, athletes must view their own intensity level as positive and that perceptions of intensity are dynamic and constantly changing throughout the course performance. (See: Taylor, J., & Wilson, G.S. (2002). Intensity regulation and sport performance. In J. Van Raalte & B. Brewer (Eds.) Exploring Sport and Exercise Psychology (2nd ed.) (pp. 99-130). Washington, D.C.: American Psychological Association.)

Question 54

Question ID #1400: A test with limited ceiling would have a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ distribution shape.
Select one:
A. normal
B. flat
C. positively skewed
D. negatively skewed

Answer 54

Correct Answer is: D
A test with limited ceiling has an inadequate number of difficult items resulting in few low scores. Therefore the distribution would be negatively skewed.

Question 55

Question ID #1434: A way to define criterion in regard to determining criterion related validity is that the criterion is:
Select one:
A. The predictor test
B. The validity measure
C. The predictee
D. The content.

Answer 55

Correct Answer is: C
To determine criterion-related validity, scores on a predictor test are correlated with an outside criteria. The criteria is that which is being predicted, or the “predictee.”