SDCEP antibiotic Flashcards

1
Q

name the first line antibiotics? (3)

A

amoxicillin
metronidazole
phenymethylpenicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

metronidazole is contraindicated when patient is taking what drug?
- what warning should you give patient before prescribing.

A

warfarin

no alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

name the second line antibiotics? (3)

A

clindamycin
co-amoxiclav
clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

clindamycin

  • effective against what kind of bacteria? (2)
  • can cause what sort of serious side effect? (1)
  • contraindications (1)
A
  • gram positive cocci
  • penicillin resistant staphylococci

antibiotic associated collitis

pt with diarrhoeal state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

co-amoxiclav (augmentin)

  • effective against what kind of bacteria? (2)
  • can cause what sort of serious side effect? (1)
A

active against beta-lactamase (penicillin resistant bacteria)

cholestic (obstructive) jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

clarithromycin

  • contraindications? (2)
  • drug interactions? (3)
A
  • pregnant
  • liver and kidney problems

interactions

  • warfarin
  • statins
  • Ca channel blockers
  • cyclosporin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

doxycycline

  • when to prescribe?
  • contraindications (3)
  • drug interaction (1)
A

persistent sinusitis

contraindications

  • <12 years
  • pregnancy / breastfeeding

interaction
- warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

name 4 antifungals

A

non-azole type

  • nystatin
  • amphotericin

azole type

  • fluconazole
  • miconazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what form (gel, solution, capsule) is ___

  • nystatin
  • miconazole
  • fluconazole
A

nystatin SOLUTION
miconazole GEL
fluconazole CAPSULE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

miconazole is effective against what organisms? (2)

A
  • candida

- gram positive cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

name 3 drug interactions with azole type antifungals.

A
  • warfarin
  • statins
  • theophylline (for COPD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pt is taking theophylline, what condition does he/she might have? (2)

A

COPD

asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is 2% sodium fusidate used for? (2)

A
  • antibiotic oitment

- angular cheilitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CHX MW

  • %?
  • interactions? (1)
A

0.2%

SLS in toothpaste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

SLS is found in toothpaste.

  • what is it?
  • function?
  • what brand does not have SLS?
A
  • sodium lauryl sulfate
  • creates foam
  • Sensodyne
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hydrogen peroxide

  • %?
  • properties (2)
A

6%

  • bleaching agent
  • antiseptic
17
Q

when would you prescribe Aciclovir?

A

shingles (herpes zoster)

note:
for PHG, herpangina, glandular fever are self-limiting. No need antivirals

18
Q

Shingles

  • also known as?
  • what drug is prescribed?
A
  • herpes zoster

- 800mg aciclovir tablet x5 daily.

19
Q

name 2 PPI

A

lanzoprazole

omeprazole

20
Q

name 4 types of MW

A
  • salt water
  • antimicrobial (CHX, hydrogen peroxide)
  • tetracycline
  • analgesic (benzydamine)
21
Q

name 4 topical corticosteroids

A
  • beclomethasone (clenil modulite)
  • betamethasone
  • hydrocotisone
22
Q

what is the active ingredient in Clenil Modulite?

A

beclomethasone

23
Q

name 3 artificial saliva

A

glandosane
BioXtra gel
Orthana

24
Q

Name 5 NSAIDs

A
ibuprofen
aspirin
diclofenac
naproxen
benzydamine
25
Q

NSAID contraindications (5)

A
asthma
acute peptic ulcer
pregnancy/breast feeding
renal/liver problems
<16 years old
26
Q

NSAID drug interactions (4)

A

anticoagulants (Warfarin)
aspirin
antihypertensive drugs
lithium

27
Q

what is the max 24 hr dose for paracetamol in mg/kg? (2)

A

> 75mg/kg

about 8 x500mg tablets

28
Q

Before prescription of Carbamazepine, what test does pt have to undergo? why?

A

FBC and liver function test

- carbamazepine has adverse side effects in CNS, including elevated levels of liver transminases

29
Q

what drug causes dry mouth?

A

tricyclic antidepressants

30
Q

what is the mechanism of Penicillin? (3)

A

binds to penicillin binding protein (PBP)

inhibits transpeptidase
- hindering cross-link formation for cell wall integrity.

Produces autolysin

31
Q

Augmentin

  • is also called __ in SDCEP
  • active ingredient?
  • how does it overcome penicillin resistance?
A
  • co-amoxiclav
  • amoxicillin + clavulanic acid
  • clavulanic acid contains beta lactamase inhibitor.
32
Q

Metronidazole

- mechanism of action? (3)

A
  • inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
  • by disrupting DNA of microbial cells
  • this only occurs when metronidazole is partially reduced, which only happens in anaerobic cells.
33
Q

Clindamycin

- mechanism of action (2)

A
  • bacteriostatic effect

- inhibits protein synthesis

34
Q

Paracetamol

- mechanism of action (2)

A
  • COX inhibitor

- Cylcooxygenase (COX) produces prostaglandin, which mediate inflammation, pain, fever

35
Q

NSAID

- mechanism of action (2)

A

COX inhibitor