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Dental > Paediatric Dentistry > Flashcards

Paediatric Dentistry Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 4 types of hyperdontia or supernumery ?

A
  • mesiodens
  • supplemental
  • tuberculate
  • conical
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2
Q

what developmental disease is associated with hyperdontia?

A

cleidocranial dystosis

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3
Q

what are the 3 common signs of cleidocranial dystosis?

A
  • hypoplastic clavicle
  • delayed/failed eruption
  • supernumery
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4
Q

name 3 causes of a diastema?

A
  • enlarged labial frenulum
  • odontoma
  • normal physiology (will close after 3s erupt)
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5
Q

what is amelogenesis imperfecta? (2)

A
  • congenital/genetic disease (X linked)

- causes defect in ameloblast function and enamel matrix mineralisation

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6
Q

what are the 3 classifications of amelogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • hypoplastic
  • hypomineralised
  • hypomaturation (enamel can be pierced under form pressure)
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7
Q

what are the 3 stages of enamel formation?

A
  1. formative stage – deposit enamel matrix
  2. calcification stage – matrix mineralize
  3. maturation stage – crystal enlarge and matures (become enamel rods)
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8
Q

what is dentinogenesis imperfecta? (2)

A
  • genetic disorder of tooth developement

- causing dentine dysplasia

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9
Q

what are the 3 signs of dentinogensis imperfecta?

A
  • teeth appearing yellow
  • signs of amelogenesis imperfecta
  • sclerosed canals (seen on radiograph)
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10
Q

what are the 3 types of dentinogensis imperfecta (DI)?

A

type 1: associated with osteogenesis imperfecta
type 2: only DI
type 3: Brandywine isolate

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11
Q

what is the classic sign of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Blue sclerae (eyes)

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12
Q

what drug could cause dental compiications for patients with osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

bisphosphonates

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13
Q

what causes MIH?

A

caused by the lack of mineralisation of enamel during the maturation phase.

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14
Q

what is Turners hypoplasia?

A

hypoplastic permenant tooth caused by PA infection from previous decidious tooth

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15
Q

what are the 2 developmental disorders that are associated with hypodontia?

A
  • ectodermal dysplasia

- Down’s syndrome

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16
Q

what are the 3 signs of ectodermal dysplasia

A
  • affects males only
  • heat intolerance (lack of sweat glands)
  • hypodontia
  • microdontia (pegged laterals)
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17
Q

what chromosome number defect is causes Down’s syndrome?

A

chromosome 21 (Trisomy 21)

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18
Q

what is anodontia?

A

complete lack of teeth

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19
Q

what is the name of the rare dental malformation that causes “a tooth to be in a tooth”? what dental complication can occur?

A
  • dens invaginatus

- prone to infection and very difficult to RCT

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20
Q

there is a missing lateral incisor, the plan is to bring forward the canine, what are the aesthetic issues?

A
  • yellower than laterals

- wider anatomy

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21
Q

what teeth commonly have a late eruption?

A

canines

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22
Q

what developmental disorder is associated with failed tooth eruption?

A

cleidocranial dystosis

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23
Q

when a tooth is larger or smaller than its normal anatomy, what are they called?

A

macodontia

microdontia

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24
Q

what is the tooth developmental disorder called when 2 crowns have 1 root?

A

Germination

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25
Q

what is the tooth developmental disorder called when 2 teeth are joined together, having separate roots?

A

Fusion

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26
Q

what is it called when there is an extra cusp or bump is formed on a tooth?

A

dens evaginatus

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27
Q

what is it called when an extra cusp forms on an anterior tooth?

A

Talon’s cusp

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28
Q

what is the diagnosis?

  • pulp enlarge vertically
  • furcation moves down apically.
  • associated with amelogenesis imperfecta
A

Taurodontism

29
Q

what is the pathogenesis of taurodontism?

A

failure or late evagination of HERs

30
Q

what are the 3 most common dental anomalies?

A
  • rotation
  • hypodontia
  • impaction
31
Q

why do we only consider XLA 6s after 9.5 years old? (2)

A
  • to prevent mesial tilting of tooth 7

- once bifurcation of 7 to forms, no issue

32
Q

Name 5 non-pathological, developmental oral medicine conditions in kids?

A
  • haemangioma
  • geographic tongue
  • ankyloglossia
  • spongy neavus
  • neonatal/natal cyst
  • eruption cyst
  • melanotic macule
33
Q

what are the 2 signs and symptoms of a geographic tongue?

A
  • burning sensation with spicy, citrus and acidic food

- red patch with yellow/grey borders

34
Q

what is the medical term of geographic tongue?

A

benign migratory glossitis

35
Q

Patient has benign migratory glossitis

  • what is the main concern? (2)
  • what is the management? (4)
A
  • candidal infection
  • discomfort

Tx plan

  • avoid spicy, citrus and acidic food
  • OHI and 0.2% CHX MW
  • antifungal (miconazole gel or nystatin suspension)
  • Difflam (benzydamine MW)
36
Q

Name 6 non-pathological, reactive oral medicine conditions?

A
  • fibroma
  • pyogenic granuloma
  • traumatic ulcer
  • extravasation mucocele
  • ranula
  • orofacial granulomatosis (OFG)
37
Q

what are the signs of OFG? (4)

A
  • lip and facial swelling
  • gingival hyperplasia
  • angular cheilitis
  • cobble-stoned mucosa (also found in Crohn’s disease)
38
Q

Patient has suspected OFG, what additional investigations are required? (3)

A
  • blood test (B12, folate)
  • patch test
  • biopsy
39
Q

what sort of diet are patient’s with OFG sensitive to? (2)

A
  • benzoate

- cinnamon

40
Q

what soft drink does not contain benzoate?

A

diet coke

41
Q

What are the 5 viruses that may cause dental conditions and what is the condition called?

A
  • Varicella Zoster (Herpes zoster)
  • Herpes Simplex (PHG)
  • Coxsackie (herpangina, hand/foot/mouth)
  • Epstein-Bar (glandular fever)
  • MMR
42
Q

what is the medical term for glandular fever?

A

infective mononucleosis

43
Q

what is MMR and how is it related to dentistry? (3)

A

mumps - parotid swelling, flu-like symptoms
measles - Kopilks spots, fever
rubella - german measles

44
Q

recurrent aphthous ulcers

  • 3 types?
  • what are the difference?
A

minor
- small, only on non-keratinized mucosa

major
- bigger, slow to heal
on both keratinized and non-keratinized mucosa

herpetiform
- frequent

45
Q

what are the 3 main causes of TMD?

A
  • disc displacement
  • degenerative joint disease
  • psychosocial factors
46
Q

what are the 2 types of disc displacement types in TMD? what is are the signs?

A
  • with reduction (has clicking/popping and pain)

- without reduction (limited jaw opening)

47
Q

TMD management

  • 4 advises
  • 2 prescriptions
A

advices

  • soft diet
  • analgesic
  • jaw exercises
  • don’t chew gum

prescriptions

  • diazepam
  • stabilisation splint
48
Q

what are the 3 common cysts of the jaw?

A
  • radicular
  • residual
  • dentigerous
  • orokeratocyst (OKC)
49
Q

OKC

  • signs/symptoms (2)
  • recurrence rate
  • pathogenesis origin?
A
  • no tooth mobility
  • little or no expansion
  • 60% recurrence rate
  • Gland of Serres (dental lamina remnant)
50
Q

what is the condition called if there are multiple OKC lesions?

A
  • Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma Syndrome

- Gorlin Syndrome

51
Q

name 4 common tumours of the jaw

A
  • ameloblastoma
  • odontomes
  • juvenile ossifying fibroma
  • sarcoma
52
Q

what is the odontogenic origin of an odontome?

A

benign mixed epithelial odontogenic tumour

53
Q

what is the odontogenic origin of an ameloblastoma?

A

benign epithelial odontogenic tumour

54
Q

4 signs of a lesion that you should refer?

A
  • more than 2 weeks
  • bleeding, ulcerative
  • lymph node involvement
  • risk factors present (smoking, betel nut chewing)
55
Q

Patient has asthma. Name 3 dental implications

A
  • dry mouth
  • candidiasis
  • dental erosion (low pH of inhaler)
56
Q

Patient has asthma. What 3 dental treatment is contraindicated (1) or be used with caution (2) ?

A

contraindication
- NSAID

caution

  • GA (increased risk of bronchospasm)
  • Fluoride varnish
  • Elastoplasts
57
Q

why do we need to be cautious when using elastoplast or fluoride varnish in pt with asthma? (2)

A
  • has colophony (rosin)

- causes allergic contact dermatitis

58
Q

DKA.

  • what is it?
  • why it happens?
  • what happens to body?
  • Tx?
A
  • diabetic ketoacidosis
  • body breaking down fat as unable to use glucose in blood as energy source
  • blood becomes acidic
  • insulin injection
59
Q

symptoms of DKA? (4)

A
  • nausea / vomiting
  • increased thirst
  • excessive urination
  • “fruity” breath smell
60
Q

oral features of pt with Downs syndrome? (6)

A
  • mid face hypoplasia
  • narrow palate
  • large fissured tongue
  • microdontia
  • delayed eruption
  • crossbites / class 3 malocclusion / anterior open bites
61
Q

Pt with Down’s Syndrome.

  • caries risk?
  • why? (3)
A

low

  • shallow fissures
  • high salivary pH
  • spaced dentition
62
Q

what problems (2) can cause for Down’s syndrome during GA? and why (1)

A
  • weak atlanto-axial spine
  • narrow respiratory airway

why?
- spine damage during intubation

63
Q

what dental implications happen in pt with cerebral palsy? (4)

A
  • poor plaque control
  • malocclusion
  • wear (bruxism, erosion)
  • enamel hypoplasia
64
Q

pt with cerebral palsy usually have a PEG. what does it stand for?

A

Percutaneous Endoscopic Gastronomy

65
Q

name 3 bleeding disorders. what clotting factors are they missing? (3)

A

haemophilia A - factor 8
haemophilia B - factor 9
Von Willibrands - VWB factor

66
Q

what 2 drugs are commonly prescribed for VWB disease? what are their functions (2 each) ?

A

oral tranexamic acid

  • antifibrolytic
  • stops prolonged bleeding

desmopressin

  • diuretic
  • stimulates endothelial cells to produce VWB factors
67
Q

name 3 types of anaemia

A
  • sickle cell
  • deficiency
  • thalassemia (abnormal haemogoblin synthesis)
68
Q

what does ADHD stand for?

A

attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

69
Q

what is the ASA classification?

A

american society of anesthesiology

class
1 - healthy
2 - mild disease
3 - severe disease
4 - life threatening disease
5 - expected to die with surgery
6 - brain dead

Dental (16 decks)

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