Revision notes: 9. Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Examples of gram negative bacteria

A
Clostridium
Corynebacterium
Listeria
Bacillus
Actinomycetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gram negative bacilli examples

A
Haemophilus
Klebsiella
Legionella
Pseudomonas
E.  Coli
Proteus
Helicobacter
Salmonella
Campylobacter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Group B strep conditions?

A

Chorioamnionitis
Neonatal sepsis
Endometritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Group A strep otherwise known as

A

Strep pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is maternal carriage percentage of GBS

A

20-35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Neonatal mortality from early onset GBS

A

6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Definition of prolonged rupture of membranes at term

A

> 18 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fetal mortality rate from Listeriosis

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment of uncomplicated gonorrhoea

A

Either:

1g IM Ceftriaxone single dose

OR

Spectinomycin 2g IM single dose (excreted in breast milk - caution)

OR

Azithromycin 2g oral single dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Follow up after gonorrhoea treatment

A

Test of cure 3 days after treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gonorrhoea complications

A

Gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum
Neonatal vaginitis
Disseminated gonococcal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Amsel criteria for diagnosis of BV

A

Vaginal discharge
Clue cells
pH >4.5
Fishy odour with alkali on a wet mount (whiff test)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment of BV

A

Metronidazole 400mg BD 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Features of secondary syphilis

A

Symmetrical non-itchy rash on trunk

Condylomata latum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tertiary syphilis features

A

Gummas
Neurosyphilis - tabes dorsalis, generalised paresis of the insane, Argyll robertson pupil
De Musset’s sign (from syphilitic aortitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis is what type of organism

A

obligate intracellular gram negative organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Test of cure in chlamydia?

A

Only in pregnant or breast-feeding women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Chlamydia treatment

A

Amoxicillin 500mg TDS 7 days

Or

Erythromycin 500mg BD 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What causes type 2 nec fasc

A

Group A strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome

A

RUQ pain, perihepatitis, PID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

complications of PID

A

Ectopic pregnancy
Tubal infertility (12%, 20%, 50% after 3rd episode)
Fitz-hugh-curtis
Chronic pelvic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

OP treatment of PID

A

Oral ofloxacin 400mg BD AND metronidazole 400mg BD 14 days

OR

IM ceftriaxone 250mg or IM cefoxitin 2g STAT with oral probenecid 1g, followed by doxy 100mg BD and metronidazole 400mg BD for 14 days

23
Q

IV treatment of PID

A

IV cefoxitin 2g TDS AND IV doxy 100mg BD

followed by oral doxy 100mg BD + metro 400mg BD for total of 14 days

24
Q

Triad of Reiter’s syndrome

A

Urethritis
Arthritis
Uveitis

25
Q

Diagnosis of Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Wet prep
PCR
Culture

26
Q

congenital defects associated with CMV

A
Sensorineural hearing loss
Retinitis
Hepatosplenomegaly
Cerebral palsy
Intrauterine FGR
Microcephaly
27
Q

Treatment of maternal varicella infection

A

Aciclovir

28
Q

Parvovirus B19 otherwise known as

A

Slapped cheek syndrome
Fifth disease
Erythema infectiosum

Causes hydrops fetalis in 3%

29
Q

HPV alpha subtypes inducing malignant changes

A

16, 18, 31, 33, 45

30
Q

What stage of syphilis are gummas seen

A

Tertiary

31
Q

Which chlamydia subtype causes lymphogranuloma venereum

A

Chlamydia trachomatis L1-L3

32
Q

Which Immunoglobulin crosses the placenta

A

IgG

33
Q

What type of fungus is candida albicans

A

Yeast-like

34
Q

Condylomata latum occur at what syphilis stage

A

Secondary

35
Q

Quadrivalent HPV vaccine - which subtypes

A

6, 11, 16, 18

36
Q

In which cells does CMV lie dormant?

A

Monocytes

37
Q

Which organisms contain ribosomes, do not have a rigid cell wall but cannot be grown on inanimate culture?

A

Chlamydia

38
Q

What is the incubation period for varicella infection?

A

10-20 days

39
Q

Which pathogen is commonly responsible for cellulitis?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

40
Q

Which organism is associated with clue cells?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

41
Q

A pregnant woman is diagnosed with toxoplasmosis.

What is the drug of choice for reducing the risk of fetal infection?

A

Spiramycin

42
Q

A 30-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic after a visit to her home country in Africa. She is suffering from flu-like symptoms, myalgia and her posterior cervical lymph nodes are found to be enlarged. Her temperature is 38.4°C

A

Toxoplasmosis

WCC, ESR and CRP usually normal

43
Q

A 29-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant presents to the delivery suite in labour. Her previous child was affected by group B streptococcus (GBS) infection. She is allergic to penicillin.

Which antibiotic should be prescribed for her as a prophylaxis for GBS?

A

Clindamycin

44
Q

MRSA infections may respond to which antibiotic?

A

Vancomycin

45
Q

What is the incubation period of rubella?

A

13-20 days

46
Q

A pregnant woman at 18 weeks of gestation presents with bloody diarrhoea. Stool microscopy and culture identifies Gram-negative, facultative anaerobic rods.

Which organism is most likely to be responsible?

A

Salmonella

47
Q

In genito-urinary medicine clinics, a technique where the microscope condenser causes the

bacteria to appear brightly lit is especially useful for visualising very thin organisms such as

treponema pallidum.

Which microscopic technique fits this description?

A

Darkfield microscopy

48
Q

Treatment of asymptomatic non-pregnant woman with incidental finding of BV

A

No treatment

49
Q

Herpes transmission rate during delivery with primary genital lesions present

A

41%

50
Q

VDRL test positive other than syphilis?

A

Yaws
Bejel
Pinta

51
Q

What is trichomonas vaginalis

A

An anaerobic, flagellated protozoan parasite and the causative agent of trichomoniasis, an STI causing fishy smelling vaginal discharge, genital itching and painful urination

Treatment: metro 400mg BD 7 days

52
Q

glycopeptide mechanism of action e.g. vancomycin

A

cell wall synthesis inhibition

53
Q

Ciprofloxacin mechanism of action

A

Interferes with DNA replication

54
Q
A