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1
Q

Influenza vaccine type

A

inactivated

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1
Q

Malaria prophylaxis pregnancy drug

A

Mefloquin

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2
Q

Metronidazole mechanism of action

A

Inhibits DNA synthesis

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3
Q

Antibiotic that binds 50s ribosomal unit - inhibit protein synthesis

A

Clindamycin

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4
Q

rate of recurrence of ectopic pregnancy

A

15%

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4
Q

lidocaine with adrenaline max dose

A

7mg/Kg or 490mg for a 70kg person

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5
Q

Doxazosin mechanism of action

A

Alpha 1 receptor antagonist

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6
Q

Fluconazole mechanism of action

A

cytochrome P450 enzyme 14α-demethylase

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7
Q

Robertsonian translocation possible in which aneuploidy

A

Down’s, Patau. Not Edward’s (only occurs with acrocentric chromosome pairs)

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8
Q

Metyrapone mechanism of action

A

Inhibits adrenal 11B-hydroxylation leading to reduced cortisol and resultant increase in ACTH production

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9
Q

Ischaemic stroke - type of necrosis

A

Colliquative necrosis

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10
Q

Which immunoglobulin is dimeric

A

IgA

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11
Q

Which HLA class is expressed in extravillous trophoblast

A

HLA-G

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12
Q

Sperm production per day

A

300 million/day

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13
Q

Clomiphene is a

A

SERM

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14
Q

LH is structurally similar to

A

FSH, HCG, TSH

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15
Q

What percentage of DNA is mitochondrial DNA

1

A

1%

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16
Q

Major buffer in urine

A

Phosphate

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17
Q

Carbons in the sex hormones

A

Androgens: 19C
Oestrogens: 18C
Progesterones 21C

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18
Q

Allantois is derived from

A

Endoderm

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19
Q

The ureteric bud is derived from

A

Mesonephric duct

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20
Q

Ondansetron mechanism of action

A

Serotonin 5-HT3 antagonist

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21
Q

enzyme that catalyses conversion of purines to uric acid

A

Xanthine oxidase

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22
Q

Name for cellular process in breast that allows prolonged breast feeding

A

Lobular hyperplasia

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23
Q

Bladder embryology

A

Trigone forms from mesonephric ducts

Rest of bladder forms from urogenital sinus

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24
Q

Carboprost is

A

Synthetic prostaglandin F2a analogue

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25
Q

Misoprostol is

A

Synthetic prostaglandin E1 analogue

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26
Q

Most common contrast agent used for MRI exams

A

Gadolinium

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27
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism is usually associated with

A

Chronic kidney disease

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28
Q

Labetalol mechanism of action

A

Combines selective alpha 1 and non-selective beta receptors antagonist

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29
Q

Deep circumflex iliac artery is a branch of which artery?

A

External iliac artery

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30
Q

What is the SI unit for the absorbed dose of ionising radiation

A

Gray

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31
Q

Which organ is principle site of urea synthesis via urea cycle

A

Liver

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32
Q

Most common cause of cushing’s syndrome

A

Iatrogenic steroid administration

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33
Q

Gartner’s duct is a remnant of what

A

Mesonephric duct

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34
Q

Where is bicarbonate reabsorbed in the kidney

A

PCT

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35
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy inheritance pattern

A

X-linked recessive

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36
Q

Lymph drainage of cervix and upper vagina

A

External iliac, internal iliac, obturator and sacral LNs

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37
Q

HIV vertical transmission - most common time

A

Labour and delivery

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38
Q

Parent compound of most eicosanoids

A

Arachidonic acid

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39
Q

Epithelium lining the ECTOcervix

A

Stratified squamous, non-keratinised

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40
Q

Which cells produce Mullerian-inhibiting substance in the developing foetal testis

A

Sertoli cells

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41
Q

Endocrine gland responsible for increased sweating in pregnancy

A

Thyroid

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42
Q

Lichen planus can become which sort of cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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43
Q

Which hormone enhances urinary calcium excretion

A

Calcitonin

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44
Q

Passive neonatal immunity - immunoglobulin

A

IgG

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45
Q

Which tocolytic agent exerts effects through blocking of oxytocin receptor

A

Atosiban

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46
Q

Which hormone increases in second half of menstrual cycle and decreases endometrial proliferation

A

Progesterone

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47
Q

Most common adverse effect of Depo medroxyprogesterone acetate

A

Menstrual abnormalities

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48
Q

marked glandular growth and mitosis, stromal edema with subnuclear vacuoles and prominent coiled spiral arterioles’’ This finding are consistent with what histological type of endometrium

A

Secretory endometrium

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49
Q

pyloric stenosis metabolic abnormality

A

Hypochloraemic hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

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50
Q

Narrowest part of fallopian tube

A

Isthmus

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51
Q

Lancefield grouping of streptococci is based on presence of

A

Carbohydrate antigen on cell wall

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52
Q

Enzyme buffer of co2 in red blood cells

A

carbonic anhydrase

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53
Q

streptomycin damages which cranial nerve

A

8 (vestibulocochlear)

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54
Q

Cause of increased GFR in pregnancy

A

Increased plasma volume

55
Q

Sulfur granules, IUD in situ

A

Actinomyces species

56
Q

Sub Occipito-bregmatic

57
Q

Occipito frontal

A

Deflexed OP

11.5cm

58
Q

Submental bregmatic

A

Face presentation
9.5cm

59
Q

Mento-vertical

A

Brow presentation
14cm

60
Q

DES-associated cancer

ed

A

Clear cell carcinoma of vagina

61
Q

Neostigmine mechanism of action

A

Anticholinesterase

62
Q

Homogeneously black area on ultrasound name

63
Q

Artery occasionally branching from external iliac or inferior epigastric instead of internal iliac

A

Obturator artery

64
Q

Lithium use in pregnancy associated with which cardiac defect

A

Ebstein’s anomaly

65
Q

Most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

von Willebrand’s disease

66
Q

Ligament that supports the bladder

A

Pubocervical ligament

67
Q

How many days from primordial follicle to mature ovum

A

320 approx

68
Q

TAP block location

A

Between transversus abdominis and internal oblique

69
Q

Most common in uteru infection causing fetal anaemia

A

Parvovirus B19

70
Q

Sensory innervation to the cervix

A

Pelvic splanchnic nerves

71
Q

Gram negative dipplococci STI

A

Gonorrhoea

72
Q

40mm CRL gestational age

73
Q

30mm CRL gestational age

74
Q

At what level does the aorta bifurcate

75
Q

What level does ovarian artery arise from aorta

76
Q

Which hormone decreases appetite as levels increase

77
Q

Where does Krukenberg tumour come from

A

GIT metastasising to ovary

78
Q

Which artery supplies anorectal canal superior to pectinate line

A

Inferior mesenteric artery

79
Q

Which artery supplies anorectal canal inferior to pectinate line

A

Inferior rectal artery (from internal pudendal artery)

80
Q

Blood volume in a term newborn in ml/kg

81
Q

Molluscum contagiosum virus

82
Q

Untreated syphillis, what percentage go on to develop tertiary syphillis

83
Q

Trimethoprim mechanism

A

Inihibits dihydrofolate reductase

84
Q

radioactive decay SI unit

85
Q

Muscles damaged in episiotomy

A

Bulbospongiosus and superficial transverse perineal muscle

86
Q

which cells produce surfactant

A

Type 2 pneumocytes

87
Q

organism associated with bladder catheterisation

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

88
Q

25 day cycle when do you ovulate

89
Q

ovarian cancer endometriosis link

A

Clear cell carcinoma

90
Q

Conn’s syndrome acid basis disturbance

A

Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

91
Q

Finasteride mechanism

A

5a reductase inhibitor

92
Q

How is urea transferred from fetal to maternal circulation

A

Passive diffusion

93
Q

Clue cells, fishy odour

A

Gardnerella vaginalis (BV)

94
Q

which cells produce PTH

A

Chief cells

95
Q

Bartholin’s gland is located in which anatomical location

A

Superficial perineal pouch

96
Q

Sympathetic control of bladder

A

Hypogastric nerve T12-L2

97
Q

Earliest sign of puberty in girls

98
Q

Vincristine mechanism of action

A

Inhibits microtubule function

99
Q

Mirabegron mechanism of action

A

Selective beta 3 adrenoceptor agonist

100
Q

Which ligament allows standing upright with minimal muscular support

A

Iliofemoral ligament

101
Q

Rejecting the null hypothesis when there is no difference

A

Type 1 error

102
Q

Endometrial cancer - endometrial glands and metaplastic cartilage

A

Endometrial carcinosarcoma

103
Q

The gonads are derived from

A

Intermediate mesoderm

104
Q

cell organelle abundant in cells producing antibodies

105
Q

Psammoma bodies are collections of

A

Calcium salts

106
Q

Terbutaline mechanism of action

A

Beta 2 agonist

107
Q

GnRH is what type of biochemical

A

Decapeptide

108
Q

Active management of 3rd stage reduces PPH risk

109
Q

Methotrexate is a

A

antimetabolite

110
Q

magnesium is secreted in which nephron segment

111
Q

Haldane effect

A

Increased capacity for deoxygenated blood to carry CO2

112
Q

Hydralazine mechanism of action

A

Direct-acting smooth-muscle relaxant

113
Q

Drug class causing neonatal kernicterus

A

Sulphonamides

114
Q

PID abx

A

Ceftriaxone
Metronidazole
Doxycycline

115
Q

nasal hypoplasia and skeletal abnormalities, including short limbs and digits (brachydactyly), and stippled epiphyses.

A

Warfarin teratogenicity

116
Q

The vitelline duct connects

A

Midgut and yolksac

117
Q

LMWH dose before regional anaesthesia

A

Stop 24hrs before

118
Q

Organelles in type 2 pneumocytes which house surfactant

A

Lamellar bodies

118
Q

Sacrospinous ligament fixation - nerve damage

A

Pudendal nerve

118
Q

Treatment for chicken pox in pregnancy

A

800mg aciclovir 5 times/day

118
Q

hPL structurally homologous to

A

Growth hormone

118
Q

What is Raloxifene

A

SERM - prevents osteoporosis (agonist) and reduces risk of breast cancer (antagonist)

118
Q

Cytokeratins

119
Q

iodine transport into thyroid gland - symport with

119
Q

Simple endometrial hyperplasia resembles

A

Proliferative endometrium

119
Q

Which cells are phagocytic for residual bodies left over from spermatogenesis

A

Sertoli cells

120
Q

Hip adduction nerve

A

Obturator nerve

121
Q

Diabetes insipidus in pregnancy - likely cause

A

Placental vasopressinase

122
Q

which chromosomes are capable of robertsonian translocation

A

13,14,15,21,22

123
Q

Which nerves enters thigh by passing underneath inguinal ligament just medial to ASIS

A

Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

124
Q

Drug that causes premature closure of PDA

A

Indomethacin (NSAID)

125
Q

Kolmogorov Smirnov test

A

Non-parametric test comparing two non-related independent samples

126
Q

Lymph drainage of sigmoid colon

A

Inferior mesenteric and preaortic lymph nodes

127
Q

Kleihauer test basic principle

A

Fetal haemoglobin resistant to acid elution

128
Q

Strawberry cervix

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

mrcog part 1 (14 decks)

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