Retroviridae Part II Flashcards

1
Q

Avian leukosis targets which cells? A. B-lymphocytes in bone marrow B. B-lymphocytes in the bursa of fabricius C. T-Lymphocytes mostly in the bursa of fabricius D. B and T lymphocytes in many lymphoid organs

A

B. Lymphocytes, with B-lymphocyte markers in the bursa of fabricius

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2
Q

Exogenous replication of competent avian leukosis viruses results in the following conditions: A. Lymphoid Leukemia (Big liver Dz) B. Osteopetrosis C. Renal Tumors D. B and C only

A

D. Competent results in: Lymphoid leukosis (visceral lymphomatosis, big liver dz) Osteopetrosis (Thick Leg), and renal tumors

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3
Q

Exogenous replication of defective avian leukosis viruses results in the following conditions: A. Erythroblastosis B. Leukemia C. visceral lymphomatosis D. Anemia E. A, B, and D.

A

E. defective results in: Erythroblastosis, Myeloblastosis, Myelocytomatosis —–> Anemia, Leukemia

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4
Q

Match correctly for Avian Leukosis:

  1. Vertical transmission via egg/first few days of life 2. Vertical transmission via proviral integration into host germ cell line 3. Horizontal transmission after 5-6 days old ____________________________________________

A. Latent state; no viremia or leukemia B. Immunological tolerance and life-long viremia; leukemia probable. C. Infection and transient viremia, with development of neutralizing antibodies

A
  1. B 2. A 3. C
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5
Q

T or F: Subgroup E of Avian Leukosis is genetically inherited and is oncogenic.

A

F: It is non-oncogenic

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6
Q

T or F: Avian Leukosis is an alpharetrovirus which has 6 subgroups.

A

F; 10 subgroups

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7
Q

The following are TRUE of FIV except: A. It is a lentivirus B. It has 5 subtypes based on differences in env gene C. Subtypes A and B are prominent in N. America D. The main mode of transmission is cat bites. E. All of the above are true.

A

E.

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8
Q

T or F: the hallmark of FIV is the disruption of immune function, which is caused by a progressive loss of CD4+ Helper T-cells.

A

T.

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9
Q

The following are mechanisms by which FIV results in CD4+ cell loss: A. Cytotoxic T-cell-mediated cytolysis of infected CD4+ B. Apoptosis of infected cells C. Cytopathic effect of FIV viruses D. Bone marrow or thymic infection will cause decreased production of CD4+ cells. E. All of the above.

A

E.

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10
Q

T or F: In the acute phase of FIV, cats will exhibit transient signs such as diarrhea, malaise, and lymphadenopathy, and fever, and neutralizing antibodies can be detected in the blood.

A

F. The Abs detected are ineffective at eliminating or neutralizing virus

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11
Q

The latent phase of FIV is characterized by the following: A. Transient diarrhea and fever B. Persistent lymphadenopathy C. No detectable clinical signs. D. A and B

A

B. Ghosh stressed persistent lymphadenopathy as being the only thing clinically seen; there can be no other signs for years.

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12
Q

The terminal phase of FIV is characterized by: A. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (Feline AIDS) B. Chronic recurrent bacterial and fungal infections C. Gingivitis and stomatitis D. Respiratory disease E. Diarrhea and wasting F. All of the above.

A

F.

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13
Q

The SNAP test for FIV detects what? A. pE1 envelope protein antibody B. p24 core protein antibody C. p17 core protein antigen D. p24 core protein antigen

A

B.

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14
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding Equine Infectious Anemia? A. It is a lentivirus, also called Swamp Fever B. Transmitted mechanically by stable flies, tabanids, mosquitos and Culucoides spp. C. Results in an intermittent viremia that lasts 30 days. D. Results in persistent Ag-Ab complex Hypersensitivity reaction. E. All of the above are true.

A

C. LIFELONG VIREMIA!!!

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15
Q

Common sequelae of Equine Infectious Anemia are: A. Spinal leptomeningitis and encephalomyelitis B. Glomerulonephritis C. Hepatic and other parenchymatous organ inflammation D. Vasculitis E. Anemia F. All of the above.

A

F.

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16
Q

All of the associations are correct for the mechanism of anemia in EIA EXCEPT:

A. Erythrophagocytosis by liver macrophages B. MAC-mediated RBC lysis C. Type II Hypersensitivity D. Viral antigens adsorb to RBC is initial event E. All are correct.

A

A. SPLENIC macrophages

17
Q

T or F: The acute phase of EIA is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: A. Fever B. Severe anemia C. Jaundice D. Petechial hemorrhages of mucosae E. Blood-stained stool F. All of the above are true.

A

F. HaHa

18
Q

T or F: The subacute phase/form of EIA is characterized by a moderate fever, followed by recovery.

A

T.

19
Q

T or F: The acute form of EIA often will present with ventral edema.

A

F. Ventral edema is classic for the chronic form, which will vary in presentation, but usually accompanied by intermittent or persistent fever and cachexia.

20
Q

T or F: Bone Marrow Hyperplasia is a common finding in Equine Infectious Anemia Virus.

A

True!!!

21
Q
A
22
Q

The following is true about the test for EIA except:

A. Detects group-specific antigen p27

B. It is an AGID test

C. Test results are good up to 6 months from date sample collected

D. Detects all positives except those in early incubation period, 2-3 weeks from initial infection.

E. All of the above are true.

A

C. Good for 6-12 months

23
Q

Caprine Arthritis-Encephalomyelitis (CAE) is defined by the following EXCEPT:

A. Caprine lentivirus infecting goats

B. Main mode of transmission is via placenta

C. Persistent infection of monocytes and macrophages

D. Immune complex hypersensitivity reactions exhibiting a chronic inflammatory response in tissues.

E. All of the following are true

A

B.

The main mode of transmission is via colostrum and milk from doe to newborn

24
Q

The arthritis seen in CAE is characterized by the following, EXCEPT :

A. Unilateral or bilateral arthritis of mostly carpal joints (Big Knee)

B. Seen in newborn goats.

C. Hyperplastic synovitis (pain and swelling of joint capsules)

D. the most common clinical sign of the infection

E. All of the above are correct

A

B. It is seen in goats 12 months or older

25
Q

T or F: The encephalomyelitis seen in Caprine Arthritis-Encephalomyelitis is usually in kids 1-5 months of age and presents as a descending paresis or paralysis.

A

False!

It is ASCENDING! :)

26
Q

T or F: Caprine Arthritis-Encephalomyelitis will have the clinical signs of indurative mastitis (hard bag) and intersitital pneumonia in adult goats.

A

True!

27
Q

T or F: Control of spread of Caprine Arthritis-Encephalomyelitis can be by removing the kid from its doe and giving it colostrum from a CAEV-free doe or giving its mother’s colostrum that has been treated at 56 degrees C for 1 hour.

A

True.

28
Q

T or F: Maedi/Visna disease is actually two diseases caused by the same lentivirus or very closely related ones, and affects neonatal sheep and sometimes goats

A

F; affects ADULTS

29
Q

T or F:

Maedi/Visna disease is transmitted most frequently by the aerosol route, but can also come from contaminated water, colostrum, milk, contaminated surgical instruments, as well as the intrauterine route.

A

True.

30
Q

Maedi/Visna disease is characterized by:

A. Lifelong neutrophil-associated viremia

B. Lifelong lymphocyte-associated viremia

C. Transient Lymphocyte-associated viremia

D. Transient macrophage-associated viremia

A

B.

31
Q

T or F:

Maedi is also known as ovine progressive pneumonia, and is characterized by coughing, dyspnea, progressive weight loss and abortion.

A

True

32
Q

T or F: Visna is characterized by slowly progressing ataxia, trembling, paresis and paralysis because of diffuse demyelinating encephalomyelitis, including laryngeal muscles, causing inability to chew food and thus animals starve to death.

A

False; generally they become totally paralyzed, causing them to not be able to obtain food. They can usually chew and swallow fine.

33
Q

Maedi/Visna disease is characterized by shortness of breath, wasting, polyarthritis, and non-inflammatory indurative mastitis.

A

True

34
Q

T or F:

The humoral and cell-mediated responses of the host to Maedi/Visna disease are relatively effective in adults.

A

False; antibiodies and CMI fail to remove virus