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1. UP- PREBOARDS > Resto-Public Health-Com Dent > Flashcards

Resto-Public Health-Com Dent Flashcards

1
Q

A cavosurface bevel is used when preparing a tooth for a cast gold inlay or onlay. What is the principal reason for its use

A. To allow room for the cement
B. To improve marginal adaptation
C. To compensate for shrinkage of cast gold alloy
D. To provide resistance form for the preparation

A

B. To improve marginal adaptation

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2
Q

A composite restoration is wider than the diameter of the light tip of the curing unit. In this situation, the restoration is cured
by:

A. Moving the tip over the surface for the required time
B. Placing the tip stepwise over each area and exposing each area for the required time.
C. Positioning the tip far enough from the surface to illuminate the entire surface
D. Centering the tip on the surface and curing the entire restoration from this position

A

B. Placing the tip stepwise over each area and exposing each area for the required time.

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3
Q

A decrease in which of the following properties saliva is likely to cause a decrease in caries activity?

A. pH
B. Flow
C. Viscosity
D. Mineral content

A

C. Viscosity

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4
Q

A needs assessment should commence during which phase of program development

A. Evaluation
B. Assessment
C. Dental hygiene diagnosis
D. Planning

A

B. Assessment

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5
Q

A patient has a toothache. Radiographs show a deep carious lesion. There is no detectable pulpal exposure upon excavation
of decay. The best treatment at this time is

A. Direct pulp cap
B. Root canal therapy
C. Permanent restoration after placing a suitable base
D. Placement of zinc phosphate cement temporary restoration

A

C. Permanent restoration after placing a suitable base

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6
Q

A properly acid etched enamel surface appears

A. Somewhat yellow in color
B. Identical to unetched enamel
C. Dull white and chalky
D. Slightly gray with a shine

A

C. Dull white and chalky

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7
Q

All of the following are associated with Rampant caries except

A. Acute onset
B. Deep and wide
C. Rapid progression
D. Children

A

B. Deep and wide

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8
Q

All of the following are characteristics of a Class V (five) composite preparation except one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Retention provided by undercuts made into the axial walls
B. Cavosurface margins when placed on enamel should be beveled
C. Outline form of the prep is determined by the extent of the carious lesion
D. A butt joint is not indicated when finishing the preparation on root surfaces

A

D. A butt joint is not indicated when finishing the preparation on root surfaces

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9
Q

All of the following are components of sodium fluoride paste that can be used to treat root sensitivity except

A. Sodium fluoride
B. Eugenol
C. Kaolin
D. Glycerine

A

B. Eugenol

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10
Q

All of the following are radiographic signs of trauma from an occlusion except

A. Hypercementosis
B. Root resorption
C. Alteration of the lamina dura
D. Periodontal pockets

A

D. Periodontal pockets

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11
Q

All of the following are true for Class II amalgam preparations, except one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Proximal retention locks if placed, should be entirely in dentin, and are deeper gingivally than occlusally
B. The axiopulpal line angle is beveled or rounded to reduce stress
C. The uninvolved proximal wall should converge slightly toward the occlusal
D. The pulpal depth aids in the resistance form of the preparation

A

C. The uninvolved proximal wall should converge slightly toward the occlusal

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12
Q

All of the following are zones in four handed dentistry except

A. Operator zone
B. Assistant zone
C. Transfer zone
D. Grasping zone

A

D. Grasping zone

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13
Q

All of the following cavity classifications can involve any teeth except for:

A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class V
D. Class VI

A

B. Class II

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14
Q

Also known as inter-diffusion zone by Nakabayashi and bonds composite to acid-etched dentin

A. Hybrid layer
B. Smear layer
C. Organic layer
D. Inorganic layer

A

A. Hybrid layer

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15
Q

An infection caused by a normally non-pathogenic microorganism in a host where resistance has been decreased or
compromised is known as

A. Nosocomial infection
B. Secondary infection
C. Opportunistic infection
D. Medical infection

A

C. Opportunistic infection

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16
Q

By burnishing from the tooth to the restoration until the amalgam is trimmed to the margin. What shape is the axial wall of a
class V cavity preparation as seen in the transverse section?

A. Straight
B. Kidney shaped
C. Convex
D. Concave

A

C. Convex

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17
Q

Change in dentinal structure as a response to slowly progressive or mild irritations such as mechanical abrasion or chemical
erosion is known as:

A. Physiologic dentinal sclerosis
B. Reactive sclerosis
C. Reparative dentin
D. Smear layer

A

D. Smear layer

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18
Q

Chronic caries is characterized by all of the following except

A. Pain is common
B. Common in adults
C. Extrinsic pigmentation
D. Slowly progressing or arrested

A

A. Pain is common

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19
Q

Conservative tooth preparation is a fundamental principle of sound restorative dentistry. Which of the following strategies
regarding tooth preparation will result in an unsatisfactory result?

A. Preparing the occlusal surface anatomically to create uniform thickness in the restoration
B. Axial wall preparation should be minimal at approximately 6-degree taper
C. Crown preparations should utilize partial ceramic coverage rather than full ceramic coverage in non-esthetic areas
D. Use of a shoulder margin on all full metal crown restorations

A

D. Use of a shoulder margin on all full metal crown restorations

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20
Q

Consuming which of the following is an evidence-based intervention to provide tooth decay

A. Sugarless gum
B. Diet soda
C. Raisins
D. Bottled water

A

A. Sugarless gum

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21
Q

Dentinal slots are prepared using a ______ bur

A. 169
B. 1/2
C. 33 1/2
D. 2

A

C. 33 1/2

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22
Q

Dietary fluoride supplementation has been shown to be an effective, if not efficient, method of decay prevention. What is the
relationship of caries reduction levels seen with this method as compared to water fluoridation and topical application?

A. Greater than water fluoridation and topical application
B. Less than water fluoridation and topical application
C. Greater than water fluoridation but less than topical application
D. Less than water fluoridation but greater than topical application

A

D. Less than water fluoridation but greater than topical application

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23
Q

Direct pulp capping is contraindicated when

A. Size of exposure is >0.5 mm
B. Bleeding at the site is controllable by pressure
C. Vital and healthy pulp
D. Exposure site is uncontaminated by saliva

A

A. Size of exposure is >0.5 mm

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24
Q

Direct pulp capping is contraindicated when

A. Size of exposure is >0.5 mm
B. Bleeding at the site is controllable by pressure
C. Vital and healthy pulp
D. Exposure site is uncontaminated by saliva

A

A. Size of exposure is >0.5 mm

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25
Q

DMF index is an example of

A. Reversible index
B. Irreversible index
C. Full mouth index
D. Simplified index

A

B. Irreversible index

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26
Q

Enamel is etched with

A. Maleic acid
B. Polyacrylic acid
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Tartaric acid

A

C. Phosphoric acid

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27
Q

Filipino children are advised to have their first dental check up

A. As soon as first tooth appears
B. After all primary teeth has erupted
C. After the first birthday
D. All of the above

A

A. As soon as first tooth appears

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28
Q

Fluorides affect the tooth structure in the following manner to make it more resistant to dental caries

I. Fluoride removes the organic component of the enamel matrix
II. Fluoride ions chemically react with the hydroxyapatite crystal and replace the hydroxyl ions
III. Fluoride ions react chemically with the calcium in the enamel
IV. When topically applied, the fluoride ions only affects the outer layers of enamel
V. Fluoride ions react with the apatite crystal to make it more resistant to acid

A. I, II, IV
B. II, IV, V
C. III, IV, V
D. I, III, IV

A

B. II, IV, V

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29
Q

For a 12 year old, the treatment of choice for a fractured mandibular lateral incisor involving the mesio-incisal line angle but
not the pulp is

A. Lingual dovetail inlay
B. Etching and placement of resin restoration
C. Pin retained metallic restoration
D. Porcelain fused to metal crown

A

B. Etching and placement of resin restoration

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30
Q

G.V. Black concluded that the following areas on tooth surfaces are relatively self-cleansable
EXCEPT

A. Pits and fissure
B. Tips and cusps
C. Crest of marginal ridges
D. All inclined planes of cusps and ridges

A

A. Pits and fissure

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31
Q

How should the margins of a dental amalgam restoration be trimmed?

A. By carving along the margins with a sharp instrument that rests on the tooth surface.
B. By carving from the restoration to the tooth with a sharp instrument.
C. By carving from the tooth to the restoration with a sharp instrument

A

A. By carving along the margins with a sharp instrument that rests on the tooth surface.

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32
Q

If a topical fluoride is to be used in conjunction with a pit and fissure sealant, which sequence is used?

A. Fluoride before sealant
B. Fluoride after sealant
C. Fluoride should not be used
D. It really does not make any difference

A

B. Fluoride after sealant

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33
Q

Instruments that might logically be used for placing gingival bevels on inlay preparations are the following except:

A. Fine, tapered diamond stones
B. Margin trimmers
C. Enamel hatchets
D. Tapered carbide burs

A

C. Enamel hatchets

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34
Q

Loading of a restoration beyond the material’s elastic limit produces

A. Stress relaxation
B. Plastic deformation only
C. Elastic deformation only
D. Both elastic and plastic deformation

A

D. Both elastic and plastic deformation

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35
Q

Marginal leakage of an amalgam restoration is

A. Related to the new phases formed
B. Severe throughout the life of the restoration
C. Less after initial placement than at 6 months
D. Decreased as the restoration ages

A

D. Decreased as the restoration ages

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36
Q

Most common fracture occurring in amalgam restoration is seen at

A. Isthmus area
B. Cavosurface margin
C. The contact area
D. Proximal box

A

A. Isthmus area

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37
Q

Nutritional counseling is

A. Unimportant in the dental care setting as it does not have any clear relationship with oral diseases
B. An inadequate mode of interaction between the patient and health care provider aimed in adopting healthy dietary
behaviors associated with improved health
C. Emphasizes the different types of carbohydrates but how the frequency, consistency, and position of their
consumption in meals can increase risk of dental caries
D. None of the above

A

C. Emphasizes the different types of carbohydrates but how the frequency, consistency, and position of their
consumption in meals can increase risk of dental caries

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38
Q

One toothbrushing method which is known to be potentially destructive of hard and soft tissue is

A. Side to side
B. Bass
C. Roll
D. Up and down

A

A. Side to side

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39
Q

Pins as secondary retention for amalgam should be oriented

A. Parallel to long axis of the tooth
B. Parallel to the external tooth surface
C. Perpendicular to the forces of mastication
D. Parallel to the adjacent tooth

A

B. Parallel to the external tooth surface

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40
Q

Professionally applied topical fluoride include the following EXCEPT

A. 8% stannous fluoride
B. Duraphat
C. 1.23% APF
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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41
Q

Rapid cooling by immersion in water, of a dental casting from the high temperature at which it has been shaped is referred to
as

A. Annealing
B. Tempering
C. Quenching
D. All of the above

A

C. Quenching

42
Q

Recurrent caries fall under which category

A. Decayed
B. Missing
C. Filled
D. Indicated for extraction

A

A. Decayed

43
Q

Restorative material used in atraumatic restorative treatment or ART

A. Polycarboxylate cement
B. Composite resin
C. Amalgam
D. Glass ionomer

A

D. Glass ionomer

44
Q

Senile carious lesions are most commonly found exclusively on the following areas of the tooth

A. Pits and fissure
B. Occlusal, incisal, facial and lingual embrasures
C. Inclined cusps of teeth
D. Root surfaces of teeth

A

D. Root surfaces of teeth

45
Q

Serves as a basis for the testing of the statistical significance of the finding of the study

A. Abstract
B. Manuscript
C. Related literature
D. Hypothesis

A

D. Hypothesis

46
Q

Stannous fluoride solution for topical applications possesses fluoride in which concentration

A. 8%
B. 1.2%
C. 2%
D. 0.2%

A

A. 8%

47
Q

Sterilization in dry heat is done

A. One hour at 160 °C
B. 90 minutes at 160 °C
C. Two hours at 160 °C
D. None of the above

A

C. Two hours at 160 °C

48
Q

Surrounding the wax pattern with a material which can accurately duplicate its shape and anatomical features is referred to as

A. Investing
B. Burnout
C. Casting
D. Pickling

A

A. Investing

49
Q

The classification of fluorosis wherein opaque white areas cover 40% of the tooth surface :

A. Very mild
B. Mild
C. Moderate
D. Severe

A

B. Mild

50
Q

The cleansing property of a toothpaste is primarily a function of its

A. Fluoride content
B. Physical form, paste or powder
C. Abrasiveness
D. Binding agents

A

C. Abrasiveness

51
Q

The document that defined primary health care in Kazakhstan is

A. Declaration of Alma-Ata
B. Declaration of Almighty
C. Declaration of Primary Health Care
D. Declaration of Pandemic Control

A

A. Declaration of Alma-Ata

52
Q

The first researcher to publish a theory about the involvement of microorganisms in the dental caries process was:

A. Pierre Fauchard
B. Robert Koch
C. Paul Keyes
D. Willoughby Miller

A

B. Robert Koch

53
Q

The goal of the Philippine Oral Health Program is the

A. Improvement of school performance of schoolchildren by treating dental caries
B. Attainment of improved quality of life through promotion of oral health and quality oral health care
C. Attainment of improved maternal oral health through regular oral prophylaxis of pregnant mothers
D. Improvement of employment rate by out-of-school youths by promoting regular dental visits.

A

B. Attainment of improved quality of life through promotion of oral health and quality oral health care

54
Q

The lab calls your office and asks if you want a particular casting done in a base or noble metal. Which of the following
responses is appropriate?

A. Noble, because the patient has a bad bruxing habit
B. Base, because the patient wants a gold tooth
C. Base, because the patient has a bad bruxing habit
D. Noble, because the patient wants a gold tooth

A

C. Base, because the patient has a bad bruxing habit

55
Q

The location of the gingival margin in the preparation of proximal cavities is influenced by

I. Need for retention of a cast restoration
II. Amount of gingival recession
III. Need to extend gingivally to clear the contact area
IV. Convenience form of the cavity

A. I, II
B. I, III
C. II, III
D. III, IV

A

B. I, III

56
Q

The most common cariogenic bacteria responsible for coronal caries are:

A. Streptococcus mutans and Lactobacilli
B. Actinomyces viscosus
C. Streptococcus sanguis
D. Veillonella

A

A. Streptococcus mutans and Lactobacilli

57
Q

The most current light cure units with camphorquinone as photoinitiator, absorbs light at

A. 200-300 nm
B. 300-350 nm
C. 400-500 nm
D. 550-600 nm

A

C. 400-500 nm

58
Q

The non-government organization implementing the Essential Healthcare Package Program is

A. Philippine Dental Organization
B. Hands free of Germs
C. Fit for school Program
D. None of the above

A

C. Fit for school Program

59
Q

The number one indication for the use of direct filling gold is

A. The small initial class III lesion
B. The large class II lesion
C. The small class II lesion
D. The large class III lesion

A

A. The small initial class III lesion

60
Q

The one characteristic that is common to all Class II gold inlay preparation is

A. The uniform depth of the pulpal floor
B. The lack of undercuts
C. The placement of a base
D. None of the above

A

B. The lack of undercuts

61
Q

The optimal fluoride concentration in community drinking water is

A. 0.1 ppm
B. 0.12 ppm
C. 1.0 ppm
D. 10.0 ppm

A

C. 1.0 ppm

62
Q

The outline form a class V composite restoration resembles that of a class V amalgam preparation except for what important
feature

A. No retentive grooves are necessary
B. The internal line angles are much more rounded
C. Pulp protection is not required
D. None of the above

A

B. The internal line angles are much more rounded

63
Q

The principal purpose of trituration is

A. Dissolve all alloy particles in the mercury
B. Coat the alloy particles with mercury
C. Reduce the size of the crystals as rapidly as they form
D. Reduce the size of the original alloy particles as much as possible

A

B. Coat the alloy particles with mercury

64
Q

The process of annealing gold foil is more commonly referred to as

A. Pickling
B. Tempering
C. Compacting
D. Degassing

A

D. Degassing

65
Q

The pulp has several defense mechanisms in order to protect it from irritation. These include:

I. Sclerotic dentin
II. Interglobular dentin
III. Reparative dentin
IV. Vascularity

A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. All of the above

A

C. I, III, IV

66
Q

The retention of a pin

A. Decreases as the diameter of the pin increases
B. Increases as the diameter of the pin increases
C. Increases as the diameter of the pin decreases
D. The retention of a pin has nothing to do with the diameter of a pin

A

B. Increases as the diameter of the pin increases

67
Q

The second number on those instruments having a three number formula indicates the:

A. Angle of cutting edge in degrees centigrade
B. Length of blade in tenths of a millimetre
C. Length of blade in millimetres
D. Width of blade in millimetres

A

C. Length of blade in millimetres

68
Q

This is computed by adding all of the observations and dividing by the number of observations

A. Statistical average
B. Mean
C. Variance
D. Median

A

B. Mean

69
Q

This type of immunity is natural and artificial

A. Active
B. Passive
C. Specific
D. Cell mediated

A

A. Active

70
Q

Under R.A. 2620, public school dentists are employed by:

A. Department of Health
B. Local Government
C. Department of Education
D. None of the above

A

C. Department of Education

71
Q

Varnish should be placed on the ____ of the preparation

A. Walls
B. Floors
C. Margins
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

72
Q

What is the outermost zone of carious dentin which still is capable of remineralization?

A. Normal dentin
B. Sub-transparent dentin
C. Transparent dentin
D. Turbid dentin

A

C. Transparent dentin

73
Q

When cleaning of the sulcus becomes particularly important, as in inflammation or pocket formation, a good toothbrushing
method is

A. Side to side
B. Bass
C. Roll
D. Up and down

A

B. Bass

74
Q

When considering the acid etch composite resin technique, etching of the enamel with acid enhances retention by

I. Creating a chemical bond between tooth and restorative material
II. Allowing a mechanical bond between tooth and restorative material
III. Cleansing the surface of debris

A. I
B. II, III
C. I, III
D. II

A

B. II, III

75
Q

When is the matrix band removed from the tooth

A. Prior to the final carving of the restoration
B. As soon as amalgam has been condensed into the prep
C. After the final carving of the restoration
D. None of the above

A

A. Prior to the final carving of the restoration

76
Q

When preparing a class V composite prep, you can have ______ rounded internal line angles because it is ______ to
compress composite into them than amalgam

A. More, easier
B. Less, harder
C. More, harder
D. Less, easier

A

A. More, easier

77
Q

When preparing a tooth for a composite restoration, the dimension of the preparation is solely determined by the access and:

A. Removing sound tooth structure to obtain the most optimal preparation
B. The extent of the caries
C. Removing sound tooth structure to obtain mechanical retention
D. The shade of the tooth

A

B. The extent of the caries

78
Q

When restoring an endodontically treated tooth, what are the first two things that must be considered?

A. The canal configuration and if a post will be necessary
B. Which restoration is indicated and if a post will be necessary
C. The canal configuration and which restoration is indicated
D. Which restoration is indicated and the function of the restored tooth

A

B. Which restoration is indicated and if a post will be necessary

79
Q

Which class III lesions should not be filled with composite resins?

A. Mesial-lingual of canines
B. Distal-lingual of laterals
C. Mesial-lingual of centrals
D. Distal-lingual of canines

A

D. Distal-lingual of canines

80
Q

Which component of dental amalgam prevents oxidation of the other metals while the alloy is being prepared by the
manufacturer?

A. Silver
B. Copper
C. Tin
D. Zinc

A

D. Zinc

81
Q

Which number in instruments describes the angle formed by the long axis of the blade and of the handle in degrees
centigrade?

A. 1st number
B. 2nd number
C. 3rd number
D. 4th number

A

C. 3rd number

82
Q

Which of the following cements has the highest compressive strength?

A. Glass ionomer
B. Reinforced ZOE
C. Zinc phosphate
D. Zinc polycarboxylate

A

C. Zinc phosphate

83
Q

Which of the following conclusions is correct if after 6 weeks a pulp capped tooth is asymptomatic?

A. Pulp capping was a complete success
B. Lack of adverse symptoms may be temporary in nature and detrimental change may occur at a later time
C. Reparative dentin formation at exposure site is complete
D. Adjacent odontoblasts have proliferated to cover site of exposure

A

B. Lack of adverse symptoms may be temporary in nature and detrimental change may occur at a later time

84
Q

Which of the following finishing margins is essentially a hollow ground bevel, creating more bulk restorative material near the
margin and providing a greater cavosurface angle?

A. Knife edge
B. Beveled shoulder
C. Chamfer
D. Shoulder

A

C. Chamfer

85
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of a total etch technique?

A. More complete penetration into dentin
B. Not critical of amount of moisture
C. Incorporates smear layer
D. Greater post-operative sensitivity

A

D. Greater post-operative sensitivity

86
Q

Which of the following is formed in large quantities following the degradation of sucrose by streptococcus mutans?

A. Acetic acid
B. Lactic acid
C. Butyric acid
D. Propionic acid

A

B. Lactic acid

87
Q

Which of the following is least cariogenic?

A. Glucose
B. Sucrose
C. Lactose
D. Xylitol

A

D. Xylitol

88
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the polishing of amalgam?

A. It reduces marginal discrepancy
B. It should be done 10 minutes after placement
C. It prevents tarnish of the restoration
D. It improves the appearance of the restoration

A

B. It should be done 10 minutes after placement

89
Q

Which of the following is the advantage of using water spray during cutting procedures?

A. Dehydration of oral tissues
B. Tooth restorative material and other debris are carried away
C. Pulp is protected from heat
D. Bacterial contamination is controlled

A

C. Pulp is protected from heat

90
Q

Which of the following is the process of killing all microorganisms on an object or in a material?

A. Standardization
B. Sanitation
C. Disinfection
D. Sterilization

A

D. Sterilization

91
Q

Which of the following materials could be used to cement a bridge and fill a cervical lesion?

A. Zinc oxide eugenol
B. Glass ionomer
C. Zinc polycarboxylate
D. Zinc phosphate

A

B. Glass ionomer

92
Q

Which of the following refers to lesions that have remineralized and are hard, black or brown in color and asymptomatic?

A. Rampant caries
B. Residual caries
C. Recurrent caries
D. Arrested caries

A

D. Arrested caries

93
Q

Which of the following regarding cusp capping is NOT true?

A. When facial or lingual extension is 2/3 from primary groove to cusp tip, it must be capped
B. When lingual extension is ½ from the primary groove to cusp tip, may or may not be capped
C. When lingual extension is ½ from the primary groove to cusp tip, when antagonist is functional cusp, it must be capped
D. When lingual extension is ½ from the primary groove to cusp tip, when antagonist is RPD, it must be capped

A

D. When lingual extension is ½ from the primary groove to cusp tip, when antagonist is RPD, it must be capped

94
Q

Which of the following statements about indirect pulp caps is false?

A. Some leathery caries may be left in the preparation
B. A liner is generally recommended in the excavation
C. The operator should wait at least 6-8 weeks before re-entry (if then)
D. The prognosis of indirect pulp cap treatment is poorer than that of direct pulp caps

A

D. The prognosis of indirect pulp cap treatment is poorer than that of direct pulp caps

95
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding chemical adhesion in clinical restorative materials?

A. Chemical adhesion is demonstrated in clinical performance of polycarboxylate cements
B. Resins exhibit chemical adhesive properties to hard tooth structure in the mouth
C. Chemical adhesion to hard tooth structure under oral conditions does not exist
D. Recent techniques of acid etching of enamel have produced chemical adhesion to enamel in the mouth

A

A. Chemical adhesion is demonstrated in clinical performance of polycarboxylate cements

96
Q

Which of the following teeth retain sealants the worst?

A. Permanent first molars
B. Primary second molars
C. Permanent second premolars
D. Permanent second molars

A

A. Permanent first molars

97
Q

Which phase of the amalgam reaction is prone to corrosion in clinical restoration?

A. Gamma
B. Gamma-one
C. Gamma-two
D. They have all the same resistance to corrosion

A

C. Gamma-two

98
Q

Which will not influence the curing time of composite restoration?

A. Manufacturer’s instructions
B. The base used
C. Thickness or size of restoration
D. The shade of the restoration

A

B. The base used

99
Q

Who advocated the Levels of Prevention Model (primary, secondary, tertiary) in 1975?

A. Greene and Vermillion
B. Leavell and Clark
C. Leavell and Mark
D. Loe and Sillness

A

B. Leavell and Clark

100
Q

_______ is degraded by streptococcus mutans into ______ and ______ thereby causing caries initiation and progression.

A. Sucrose, glucans, lactic acid
B. Glucose, glucans, lactic acid
C. Sucrose, glucose, lactic acid
D. Glucose, sucrose, lactic acid

A

A. Sucrose, glucans, lactic acid

1. UP- PREBOARDS (9 decks)

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