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1. UP- PREBOARDS > Gen Path-Oral Path-Microbio-Embryo > Flashcards

Gen Path-Oral Path-Microbio-Embryo Flashcards

1
Q

The connective tissue layer surrounding each individual muscle fiber is called:

A. Epimysium
B. Perimysium
C. Endomysium
D. Sarcolemma

A

C. Endomysium

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2
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of syphilis infection?

A. The primary form includes a highly infectious maculopapular rash.
B. It is treated with penicillin.
C. The secondary form is characterized by gumma formation.
D. It is caused by Mycobacterium infection

A

B. It is treated with penicillin.

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3
Q

Which of the following definitions is NOT correct regarding classical signs of acute inflammation?

A. Dolor →due to inflammatory mediators
B. Rubor →due in part to vasodilation
C. Tumor →due to tissue edema
D. Calor →due to decreased tissue perfusion

A

D. Calor →due to decreased tissue perfusion

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4
Q

Intranuclear inclusions called _______________ are detected during the course of herpes simplex virus clinical infection

A. Paschen bodies
B. Guarnieri’s bodies
C. Lipschutz bodies
D. Negri bodies

A

C. Lipschutz bodies

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5
Q

Which disease produces diffuse enlargement of the thyroid with increased thyroid hormone production from the onset

A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Paget’s disease
C. Diabetes
D. Grave’s disease

A

D. Grave’s disease

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6
Q

Which of the following is a disease that involves softening of the bones caused by deficiency of Vitamin D or problems with
the metabolism of this vitamin?

A. Osteonecrosis
B. Osteomalacia
C. Ewing’s sarcoma
D. Multiple myeloma

A

B. Osteomalacia

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7
Q

An endocrine disorders which is characterized by upper body obesity, round face (moon face), and fat around the neck

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Addison’s disease
D. Cushing’s syndrome

A

D. Cushing’s syndrome

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8
Q

It is associated with iron deficiency anemia with atrophy of mucous membrane, koilonychias and dysphagia

A. Plummer Vinson
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Aplastic anemia

A

A. Plummer Vinson

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9
Q

Hyperglycemia is characterized by blood glucose levels greater than

A. 100 mg/dL.
B. 125 mg/dL.
C. 75 mg/dL.
D. 90 mg/dL.

A

B. 125 mg/dL

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10
Q

Each of the following conditions can lead to tissue hypoxia EXCEPT

A. Decreased tissue perfusion.`
B. Decreased blood oxygenation.
C. Vascular ischemia.
D. None of the above.

A

D. None of the above

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11
Q

Which of the following skin neoplasms is benign?

A. Keratoacanthoma
B. Melanoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Pigmented nevus

A

D. Pigmented nevus

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12
Q

Passive immunization

A. Provides protection without hypersensitivity
B. Employs sensitized T-cells
C. Provides immediate protection
D. Provides long lasting projection

A

C. Provides immediate protection

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13
Q

Most viruses which cause common cold syndrome are:

A. Adenoviruses
B. Members of the chlamydial group
C. Arborviruses
D. Enteroviruses

A

A. Adenoviruses

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14
Q

Consider a patient who is unaware of the cardiac condition he is suffering from. You note splinter hemorrhages under his
finger nails. What is this clinical sign indicative of?

A. Endocarditis
B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Primary hypertension
D. Coronary artery disease

A

A. Endocarditis

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15
Q

Each of the following is a risk factor for atherosclerosis EXCEPT

A. Nephrosclerosis.
B. Smoking.
C. Premenopause.
D. Hypertension

A

C. Premenopause

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16
Q

The stage in tooth development soon after lamina formation, dental lamina shows specific sites of mitotic activity

A. Cap stage
B. Bud stage
C. Germ stage
D. Bell stage

A

B. Bud stage

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17
Q

The sudden obstruction of some part of the vascular system through the impaction of undissolved material carried by the
blood current is known as

A. Embolism
B. Infarction
C. Hemorrhage
D. Thrombosis

A

A. Embolism

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18
Q

Which of the following forms of sterilization is adequate for killing hepatitis B?

A. Ethylene oxide gas
B. Chemical vapor
C. Formaldehyde
D. Autoclaving

A

D. Autoclaving

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19
Q

The first sign of tooth development as seen in histological sections occurs about the

A. Tenth week in utero
B. Second week in utero
C. Fourth month in utero
D. Sixth week in utero

A

D. Sixth week in utero

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20
Q

Tocopherol is a class of organic chemical may of which have _________ activity

A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K

A

C. Vitamin E

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21
Q

Gas gangrene is caused by

A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium perfringens

A

D. Clostridium perfringens

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22
Q

As the result of dental prophylaxis, microorganisms from about the teeth get into the blood streams. This condition is an
example of

A. Bacteremia
B. Septicemia
C. Pyemia
D. Focal infection

A

A. Bacteremia

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23
Q

Necrosis of cardiac muscle following coronary artery thrombosis is what type of necrosis?

A. Caseous
B. Gangrenous
C. Liquefactive
D. Coagulation

A

D. Coagulation

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24
Q

A 6-year old boy has minute white specks on the oral mucosa opposite the first molars. A bluish to red ring surrounds these
spots. He also has a cold and his eyes are red and runny. There is a blotchy reddish rash behind his ears and on his face. This
child has:

A. Measles
B. Scarlet fever
C. Chickenpox
D. Eczema

A

A. Measles

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25
Q

Which cells of the stomach produce intrinsic factor essential for Vitamin B12 absorption?

A. Parietal cells
B. Mucous neck cells
C. Enteroendocrine cells
D. Chief cells

A

A. Parietal cells

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26
Q

A disease with oro-pharyngeal lesions caused by coxsackievirus is called

A. Herpangina
B. Cat-scratch fever
C. Salivary gland disease
D. Infectious mononucleosis

A

A. Herpangina

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27
Q

A specific chromosome marker (Philadelphia chromosome) in which long arm of chromosome 22 is translocated
characterizes

A. Chronic myeloid leukemia
B. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. Acute myeloid leukemia

A

A. Chronic myeloid leukemia

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28
Q

Neutralization and inactivation of bacterial toxins is accomplished by

A. Delayed hypersensitivity
B. Cellular immunity
C. Humoral immunity
D. A and C

A

C. Humoral immunity

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29
Q

The correct temperature for autoclaving/ sterilization with moist heat is

A. 250°F for 4 hours.
B. 170°C for 1 hour.
C. 320°F for 2 hours.
D. 121°C for 15-20 minutes.

A

D. 121°C for 15-20 minutes

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30
Q

Which zone of the adrenal cortex secretes cortisol?

A. Zona fasciculata
B. Zona glomerulosa
C. Zona reticularis
D. All of the above

A

A. Zona fasciculata

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31
Q

Which of the following is the process of killing all microorganisms on an object or in a material?

A. Sanitization
B. Disinfection
C. Sterilization
D. Standardization

A

C. Sterilization

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32
Q

A dietary deficiency of vitamin B12 causes which of the following?

A. Folate deficiency anemia
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A

B. Pernicious anemia

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33
Q

Rheumatic fever is a disease which may leave the heart seriously damaged because of

A. Primary infection of the heart valves with ?-hemolytic
B. Primary infection of the heart valves with group A streptococci
C. Streptococci
D. Damage to the heart valves thought to be a result of hypersensitivity to infection with group A streptococci
E. Damage to the heart valves thought to be a result of hypersensitivity to infection with hemolytic staphylococcus

A

D. Damage to the heart valves thought to be a result of hypersensitivity to infection with group A streptococci

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34
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of fungi?

A. Cell walls are composed of ergosterol.
B. Their asexual form of reproduction is via spores.
C. They are gram positive.
D. They are obligate anaerobes.

A

C. They are gram positive

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35
Q

Which of the following types of periodontal disease commonly presents with punched-out interproximal papillae, fetor oris,
and marginal gingival pseudomembrane formation?

A. Aggressive periodontitis
B. Plaque-induced gingivitis
C. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
D. Chronic periodontitis

A

C. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

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36
Q

Necrotizing papillitis and nodular glomerulosclerosis (Kimmelstiel-Wilson’s syndrome) are renal lesions usually associated
with

A. Uremia
B. Hydronephrosis
C. Malignant hypertension
D. Diabetes mellitus

A

D. Diabetes mellitus

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37
Q

It is the division of single tooth germ by an invagination with resultant incomplete formation of two teeth

A. Gemination
B. Fusion
C. Mesiodens
D. Concrescence

A

A. Gemination

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38
Q

The characteristic appearance of viral pneumonia is that of

A. Bronchopneumonia
B. Lobar pneumonia
C. Lobular pneumonia
D. Interstitial pneumonia

A

D. Interstitial pneumonia

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39
Q

Histologically, at what level glands (goblet cells) no longer present?

A. Large Bronchioles
B. Terminal bronchioles
C. Trachea
D. Bronchi

A

B. Terminal bronchioles

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40
Q

Bacteria that causes root caries

A. Actinomyces viscosus
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Veillonella sp.
D. Lactobacillus acidophilus

A

A. Actinomyces viscosus

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41
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of cephalosporins?

A. They are bacteriostatic.
B. There is only one generation of the drug available.
C. They contain beta lactam rings.
D. They inhibit protein synthesis.

A

C. They contain beta lactam rings.

42
Q

Involves the use of Carbolfuchsin stain, then alcohol decolorization and methylene blue counterstain

A. Acid fast staining
B. PPD testing
C. Gram staining
D. Mantoux testing

A

A. Acid fast staining

43
Q

A type of muscle tissue which have striations, voluntary and peripherally located nucleus

A. Eye muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Cardiac muscle
D. Skeletal muscle

A

D. Skeletal muscle

44
Q

The unlimited spread through the tissues of an exudate of acute inflammation is characteristic of

A. Granulomatous infection
B. Abscess
C. Leukopenia
D. Cellulitis

A

D. Cellulitis

45
Q

An accumulation of pus, usually caused by a bacterial infection, is called a (an)

A. Cyst
B. Tumor
C. Granuloma
D. Abscess

A

D. Abscess

46
Q

A condition of excessive mucus production and also known as blue bloaters

A. Bronchiectasis
B. Asthma
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. COPD

A

C. Chronic bronchitis

47
Q

Fluid withdrawn from the peritoneal cavity of a patient complaining of a -swollen belly was found to be rich in protein with a
specific gravity of 1.020 and exhibited a tendency to coagulate. Such a fluid indicates the presence of inflammation and is
correctly called

A. Serum
B. Transudate
C. Exudate
D. Blood

A

C. Exudate

48
Q

Hepatitis also known as serum hepatitis

A. Hepatitis D
B. Hepatitis A
C. Hepatitis B
D. Hepatitis C

A

C. Hepatitis B

49
Q

Which of the following specialized mucosa is associated with the Von Ebner glands?

A. Fungiform
B. Circumvallate
C. Filiform
D. Foliate

A

B. Circumvallate

50
Q

What is the most common cause of xerostomia?

A. Medications
B. Mouth breathing
C. Tooth decay
D. Hereditary

A

A. Medications

51
Q

Each of the following is an antigen presenting cell EXCEPT

A. Macrophages.
B. PMNs
C. Langerhans cells.
D. B cells.

A

B. PMNs

52
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of caries pathogenesis?

A. Glucans and fructans inhibit the adherence of plaque to the tooth surface.
B. Lactic acid build-up causes an increase in salivary pH.
C. The most detrimental effect on salivary pH is frequency of carbohydrate intake.
D. Sucrose is a by-product of glucan metabolism. The quantity of carbohydrate intake is not detrimental to salivary pH.

A

C. The most detrimental effect on salivary pH is frequency of carbohydrate intake.

53
Q

Which of the following cells has the lowest radiosensitivity?

A. Epithelial cells
B. Lymphocytes
C. Nerve cells
D. Reproductive cells

A

C. Nerve cells

54
Q

In which phase of the interphase does the DNA replicate in preparation for mitosis?

A. G2 Phase
B. G1 Phase
C. M Phase
D. S Phase

A

D. S Phase

55
Q

The localized premature disintegration of the Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath leads to the formation of the

A. Cellular cementum
B. Secondary cementum
C. Intermediate cementum
D. Acellular cementum

A

A. Cellular cementum

56
Q

The antibody class most prevalent in human saliva

A. IgD
B. IgM
C. Secretory IgA
D. IgG

A

C. Secretory IgA

57
Q

Which of the following definitions is correctly matched to its form of angina?

A. Prinzmetal angina - most common type
B. Stable angina - precipitated by exertion
C. Unstable angina - most common type
D. Stable angina - intermittent chest pain at rest

A

B. Stable angina - precipitated by exertion

58
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of septic shock?

A. Due to exotoxin release.
B. Caused by injury to the CNS.
C. Causes vasodilation
D. It is a type I hypersensitivity reaction.

A

C. Causes vasodilation

59
Q

Dead tracts refer to the

A. Dentin
B. Cementum
C. Bone
D. Enamel

A

A. Dentin

60
Q

Which of the following bacteria is implicated in the majority of subacute bacterial endocarditis?

A. Streptococcus mutans
B. Streptococcus viridans
C. Streptococcus sanguis
D. Streptococcus epidermidis

A

B. Streptococcus viridans

61
Q

Heart failure cells are lung macrophages which contain pigment granules derived from the breakdown of hemoglobin. The
pigment is

A. Bilirubin
B. Hemosiderin
C. Melanin
D. Hematin

A

B. Hemosiderin

62
Q

The leading cause of death from cancer in female is cancer of the

A. Lung
B. Colon
C. Thyroid
D. Breast

A

D. Breast

63
Q

Chickenpox is produced by the varicella virus, which is the same agent, or is related to the agent, causing

A. Hepatitis
B. Rabies
C. Herpes zoster
D. Mumps

A

C. Herpes zoster

64
Q

Which of the following bacteria possesses hyaluronidase and is known to cause glomerulonephritis?

A. Helicobacter pylori
B. Bordetella pertussis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Haemophilus influenzae

A

C. Streptococcus pyogenes

65
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the physiology of edema?

A. There is a decrease in capillary permeability.
B. There is a decrease in plasma colloid osmotic pressure.
C. There is an increase in interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure.
D. There is a decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure.

A

C. There is an increase in interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure.

66
Q

Each of the following regarding wound repair is true EXCEPT

A. A large extraction socket heals by primary intention.
B. The inflammatory stage occurs immediately after tissue injury.
C. Healing by primary intention occurs at a faster rate than secondary intention.
D. Secondary intention wound healing occurs when a sizable gap exists between margins

A

A. A large extraction socket heals by primary intention.

67
Q

Each of the following is true regarding periodontal health EXCEPT

A. Materia alba is largely composed of desquamated cells and is easily washed away.
B. The epitactic concept states that calculus formation is independent of proteins.
C. Chlorhexidine gluconate is the most effective anti plaque mouth rinse.
D. Subgingival plaque is largely composed of gram-negative bacteria.

A

B. The epitactic concept states that calculus formation is independent of proteins.

68
Q

The hardest substance in the body

A. Dentin
B. Cementum
C. Enamel
D. Alveolar bone

A

C. Enamel

69
Q

The gingiva belongs to which type of hard palate and gingiva?

A. Lining mucosa
B. Specialized mucosa
C. Masticatory mucosa
D. Secretory mucosa

A

C. Masticatory mucosa

70
Q

Each of the following illnesses is a histiocytosis X disease EXCEPT

A. Letterer-Siwe disease.
B. Eosinophilic granuloma.
C. Haberman disease.
D. Hand-Schüller-Christian disease.

A

C. Haberman disease

71
Q

Which blood group has neither antigen A or B?

A. AB
B. O
C. A
D. B

A

B. O

72
Q

Von Recklinghausen’s disease is characterized by multiple ___________

A. Neurofibroma
B. Hemangioma
C. Osteoma
D. Myeloma

A

A. Neurofibroma

73
Q

The excess in growth hormone secretion that occurs before the closure of epiphysis is the

A. Acromegaly
B. Gigantism
C. Dwarfism
D. Infantilism

A

B. Gigantism

74
Q

Using cassettes to process and re-circulate instruments in clinical settings can:

A. Make instruments processing more efficient
B. Increase organization of dental instruments
C. Decrease handling of contaminated instruments during cleaning procedures
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

75
Q

For which type of hepatitis is there a commonly administered vaccine for healthcare workers?

A. Hepatitis B
B. Hepatitis D
C. Hepatitis A
D. Hepatitis C

A

A. Hepatitis B

76
Q

The antibody which can cross the placenta is

A. IgD.
B. IgG.
C. IgE.
D. IgA.

A

B. IgG

77
Q

Which of the following is most related to congenital syphilis?

A. Taurodontia
B. Turner’s tooth
C. Hutchinson’s teeth
D. Leong’s premolar

A

C. Hutchinson’s teeth

78
Q

Each of the following diseases is caused by infection of Picornavirus EXCEPT

A. Hepatitis B.
B. Polio.
C. Aseptic meningitis.
D. Herpangina.

A

A. Hepatitis B

79
Q

Acute osteomyelitis may be caused by many microorganisms, but statistically the one most frequently encountered is

A. Actinomyces
B. Bacteroides
C. Streptococcus
D. Staphylococcus

A

D. Staphylococcus

80
Q

Water-insoluble polysaccharide produced during carbohydrate metabolism of S. mutans

A. Dextran
B. Glucan
C. Sucran
D. Fructan

A

D. Fructan

81
Q

Cementum is the closest in composition to which of the following:

A. Dentin
B. Enamel
C. Pulp
D. Bone

A

D. Bone

82
Q

Death of a portion of tissue or an organ in the body is called

A. Necrosis
B. Hypertrophy
C. Ascites
D. Atrophy

A

A. Necrosis

83
Q

Which of the following is considered essential for the histologic diagnosis of Hodgkin’s disease?

A. Fibroblasts
B. Reed-Sternberg cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Eosinophils

A

B. Reed-Sternberg cells

84
Q

Approximately 1/3 of all principal fibers of the periodontal ligament are

A. Apical
B. Oblique
C. Alveolar crest
D. Horizontal

A

B. Oblique

85
Q

Contact dermatitis, typical to exposure to the plant poison ivy, is what type of hypersensitivity?

A. Type III (immune complex type)
B. Type I (immediate type)
C. Type IV (delayed type)
D. Type II (cytotoxic type)

A

C. Type IV (delayed type)

86
Q

A splitting of d-chromosome allowing its components-chromosome to separate each other occurs during

A. Anaphase
B. Metaphase
C. Prophase
D. Telophase

A

A. Anaphase

87
Q

Enamel composition is:

A. 30% inorganic and 70% organic
B. 4% inorganic and 96% organic
C. 96% inorganic and 4% organic
D. 70% inorganic and 30% organic

A

C. 96% inorganic and 4% organic

88
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about the bacterial growth curve?

A. The initial phase is signified by increased cell death.
B. There is increased metabolic activity during the lag phase.
C. There is an exponential increase in bacterial growth during the log phase.
D. Cell growth plateaus during the stationary phase.

A

C. There is an exponential increase in bacterial growth during the log phase.

89
Q

Most bacteria contain some sort of polysaccharide layer outside of the cell wall polymer. Generally, this layer is called a:

A. Plasma membrane
B. Capsule
C. Pellicle
D. Cytoplasmic membrane

A

B. Capsule

90
Q

Which of the following family of viruses is the causative agent of measles and mumps?

A. Adenovirus
B. Picornavirus
C. Paramyxovirus
D. Togavirus

A

C. Paramyxovirus

91
Q

The brush border cells are found in the

A. Small intestine
B. Lung
C. Kidney
D. Liver

A

A. Small intestine

92
Q

Rendu-Osler-Weber is a disease associated with

A. Histiocytosis
B. Hemangioma
C. Fibrous dysplasia
D. Neurofibromatosis

A

B. Hemangioma

93
Q

Which of the following is defined as a fluid-filled sac lined by true epithelium?

A. Cellulitis.
B. Cyst.
C. Granuloma.
D. Abscess

A

B. Cyst

94
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of subgingival plaque?

A. It is located coronal to the gingival margin.
B. It is not affected by diet and saliva.
C. The calculus it forms is due to saliva.
D. It is predominantly gram-positive facultative cocci.

A

B. It is not affected by diet and saliva.

95
Q

Each of the following classifications of fractures is correctly matched with its definition EXCEPT

A. Greenstick →bone cracks through one side only.
B. Complete →bone bends but does not break.
C. Open →bone pierces skin.
D. Comminuted →bone is crushed into many pieces.

A

B. Complete →bone bends but does not break.

96
Q

Which of the following cannot be prevented with a vaccine?

A. Hepatitis B
B. Primary varicella
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Smallpox

A

C. Infectious mononucleosis

97
Q

Epithelial cellular atypicalities such as pleomorphism, nuclear hyperchromatism, loss of architectural orientation, and the
return to normal with removal of the inciting stimulus are features of

A. Metaplasia
B. Dysplasia
C. Anaplasia
D. Neoplasia

A

B. Dysplasia

98
Q

Which of the following would be an adequate treatment for Addison disease?

A. Administer growth hormone
B. Administer androgens
C. Administer cortisol
D. Administer aldosterone

A

C. Administer cortisol

99
Q

Which of the following conditions is caused by backflow of acid and a weak lower esophageal sphincter?

A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
B. Intestinal lymphangiectasia
C. Hiatal hernia
D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome

A

A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

100
Q

A serious acute infection usually involving the neck and throat which sometimes occurs as a result of the spread of infection
from a periapical tissue abscess along the fascial planes of the neck is known as

A. Herpangina
B. Ludwig’s angina
C. Candidiasis
D. Impetigo

A

B. Ludwig’s angina

1. UP- PREBOARDS (9 decks)

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