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1. UP- PREBOARDS > Anes-Pharma > Flashcards

Anes-Pharma Flashcards

1
Q

A 50-year-old man complains of heartburn. Which one of the following medications will help prevent acid secretion in the
stomach?

A. Cimetidine
B. Omeprazole
C. Famotidine
D. Ketoconazole

A

B. Omeprazole

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2
Q

A branch of facial nerve with secretory function to the tongue and is associated with the lingual nerve:

A. Glossopharyngeal
B. Chorda tympani
C. Buccal nerve
D. Both A and C

A

B. Chorda tympani

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3
Q

A pediatric patient is scheduled to have multiple restorative procedures carried out in the operating room under anesthesia.
The drug chosen for anesthesia is fentanyl. Should this patient show signs of respiratory depression, what would be the
appropriate reversal agent?

A. Epinephrine
B. Flumazenil
C. Naloxone
D. Clonidine

A

C. Naloxone

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4
Q

A syndrome due to the accumulation of this antibiotic in the premature newborn which causes aplastic anemia, pallor, severe
hypotension and cyanosis

A. Streptomycin
B. Erythromycin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Clindamycin

A

C. Chloramphenicol

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5
Q

Accidental ingestion of warfarin can lead to elevated PT and PTT. Which one of the following is the most appropriate
treatment?

A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

A

A. Vitamin K

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6
Q

All of the following are antihistamine H1 blocker EXCEPT

A. Cimetidine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Loratidine
D. Chlorpheniramine

A

A. Cimetidine

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7
Q

All of the following drugs are alpha blockers EXCEPT

A. Doxazosin
B. Phenoxybenzamine
C. Propranolol
D. Tolazoline

A

C. Propranolol

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8
Q

All of the following drugs are used in the treatment of Parkinson’s EXCEPT

A. Haloperidol
B. Levodopa
C. Pergolide
D. Amantadine

A

A. Haloperidol

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9
Q

All of the following statements are correct regarding penicillin, except:

A. Not all penicillins are effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Amoxicillin can cover both Escherichia coli and Haemophilus influenzae
C. Combined with clavulanic acid or tazobactam, penicillins possess anti-beta lactamase activity
D. Penicillin is a bacteriostatic antibiotic that works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis

A

D. Penicillin is a bacteriostatic antibiotic that works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis

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10
Q

All of the following statements are true regarding bioavailability, except:

A. Route of administration is important in determining bioavailability
B. High hepatic first pass effect decreases bioavailability
C. Degradation of drug prior to absorption increases bioavailability
D. Hydrophilic drugs are less able to cross lipid-rich cell membranes than hydrophobic drugs

A

C. Degradation of drug prior to absorption increases bioavailability

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11
Q

Aspirin is contraindicated with which of the following drugs?

A. Coumarin (Coumadin®)
B. Triazolam (Halcion®)
C. Barbiturates (Phenobarbital®)
D. Methylprednisolone (medrol®)

A

A. Coumarin (Coumadin®)

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12
Q

Aspirin is contraindicated with which of the following drugs?

A. Coumarin (Coumadin®)
B. Triazolam (Halcion®)
C. Barbiturates (Phenobarbital®)
D. Methylprednisolone (medrol®)

A

A. Coumarin (Coumadin®)

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13
Q

Benzodiazepines have all the following effects except:

A. Anxiolytics
B. Amnestics
C. Analgesic
D. Anticonvulsant

A

C. Analgesic

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14
Q

Celecoxib is a member of which category of drugs

A. Salicylates
B. COX-2 selective inhibitors
C. Opiates
D. Non-selective COX inhibitors

A

B. COX-2 selective inhibitors

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15
Q

Cholinergic neurons secrete which neurotransmitter?

A. Dopamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Epinephrine
D. Norepinephrine

A

B. Acetylcholine

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16
Q

Clavulanic acid offers an advantage therapeutically because it has which action?

A. It inhibits Streptococci at low minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
B. It inhibits transpeptidase
C. It inhibits penicillinase
D. It inhibits anaerobes at low MIC

A

C. It inhibits penicillinase

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17
Q

Clavulanic acid offers an advantage therapeutically because it has which action?

A. It inhibits Streptococci at low minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
B. It inhibits transpeptidase
C. It inhibits penicillinase
D. It inhibits anaerobes at low MIC

A

C. It inhibits penicillinase

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18
Q

Drug toxicity is cause by

A. Excess dosage
B. Impaired secretion
C. Drugs given over a long period of time
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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19
Q

Each of the following muscles receives motor innervation from the facial nerve EXCEPT

A. Masseter
B. Risorius.
C. Orbicularis oris.
D. Mentalis

A

A. Masseter

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20
Q

How much anesthetic does 100 cc of 4% Articaine solution contain?

A. 36 mg
B. 72 mg
C. 54 mg
D. 9 mg

A

B. 72 mg

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21
Q

In which of the following ways can a patient be protected best from the toxic aspects of local anesthetic?

A. Have oxygen available
B. Take thorough medical history
C. Use an aspirating technique
D. Use of lowest possible concentration of LA

A

C. Use an aspirating technique

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22
Q

Indicate the non-narcotic analgesic which lacks an anti-inflammatory effect

A. Naloxone
B. Aspirin
C. Paracetamol
D. Metamizole

A

C. Paracetamol

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23
Q

Inhaled ammonia is the drug of choice for acting against

A. Anaphylaxis
B. Heart attack
C. Syncope
D. Urticarial

A

C. Syncope

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24
Q

Inhaled anesthetic EXCEPT

A. Desflurane
B. Ketamine
C. Halothane
D. Nitrous oxide

A

B. Ketamine

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25
Q

It is a general rule in using antibiotic combination therapy to NEVER combine ____ agents.

A. Two bactericidal
B. Two bacteriostatic
C. Bactericidal with a bacteriostatic
D. Two analgesic

A

C. Bactericidal with a bacteriostatic

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26
Q

It is a general rule in using antibiotic combination therapy to NEVER combine ____ agents.

A. Two bactericidal
B. Two bacteriostatic
C. Bactericidal with a bacteriostatic
D. Two analgesic

A

C. Bactericidal with a bacteriostatic

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27
Q

It is the smaller of the two terminals of the posterior division of the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve

A. Lingual nerve
B. Mental nerve
C. IAN
D. Long buccal nerve

A

A. Lingual nerve

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28
Q

Local anesthetics aid in reducing the flow of saliva during operative procedures by:

A. Blocking the cholinergic nerve ending
B. Blocking innervation to major salivary glands
C. Blocking efferent parasympathetic nerve pathways
D. Reducing sensitivity and anxiety during tooth preparation

A

D. Reducing sensitivity and anxiety during tooth preparation

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29
Q

Meperidine In prescription writing, b.i.d. Is the abbreviation for what?

A. Twice a day
B. Thrice a day
C. Four times a day
D. Every 4 hours

A

A. Twice a day

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30
Q

Minimum alveolar concentration is a measure of an anesthetic

A. Potency
B. Duration of action
C. Absorption
D. Analgesic effect

A

A. Potency

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31
Q

Minimum alveolar concentration is a measure of an anesthetic

A. Potency
B. Duration of action
C. Absorption
D. Analgesic effect

A

A. Potency

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32
Q

N-acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for overdose of which of the following medications?

A. Ibuprofen
B. Acetaminophen
C. Celecoxib
D. Indomethacin

A

B. Acetaminophen

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33
Q

Nerves anesthetized during Inferior alveolar nerve block are, EXCEPT

A. Inferior alveolar nerve
B. Long buccal nerve
C. Mental nerve
D. Incisive nerve

A

B. Long buccal nerve

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34
Q

Nifedipine is a drug of choice for

A. Diabetes
B. Cluster headache
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Angina pectoris

A

D. Angina pectoris

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35
Q

Of the following groups of nerves, which is purely motor?

A. Oculomotor, trigeminal, and trochlear
B. Trochlear, abducent, and accessory
C. Trochlear, accessory, and vagus
D. Facial, abducent, and hypoglossal

A

B. Trochlear, abducent, and accessory

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36
Q

Part of the carpule that is pierced by the needle during anesthesia is

A. Aluminum cap
B. Rubber diaphragm
C. Rubber stopper
D. Glass cartridge

A

B. Rubber diaphragm

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37
Q

Penicillin G’s route of administration is

A. PO
B. IV
C. Inhalation
D. IM

A

D. IM

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38
Q

Phenytoin is used in the treatment of _________ epilepsy

A. Petit mal
B. Myoclonic seizures
C. Grand mal
D. All of the above

A

C. Grand mal

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39
Q

Prilocaine

A. Has a short duration of action
B. May cause tachycardia
C. Degraded by plasma esterases
D. None of the above

A

A. Has a short duration of action

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40
Q

Proper use of nitrous oxide achieves which level of anesthesia?

A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV

A

A. Stage I

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41
Q

Protamine sulfate is a positively charged substance that when given IV will bind to heparin, a strongly negatively charged
anticoagulant drug is an example of

A. Pharmacologic antagonism
B. Chemical antagonism
C. Physiologic antagonism
D. Physical antagonism

A

B. Chemical antagonism

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42
Q

Protamine sulfate is a positively charged substance that when given IV will bind to heparin, a strongly negatively charged
anticoagulant drug is an example of

A. Pharmacologic antagonism
B. Chemical antagonism
C. Physiologic antagonism
D. Physical antagonism

A

B. Chemical antagonism

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43
Q

Robitussin (Guaifenesin) is used as medication in

A. Whooping cough
B. Dry cough
C. Productive cough
D. Croup cough

A

C. Productive cough

44
Q

Supplementation of this vitamin is used during Isoniazid therapy in some TB patients to prevent peripheral neuropathy

A. Vitamin B2
B. Vitamin B6
C. Vitamin B9
D. Vitamin B12

A

B. Vitamin B6

45
Q

Systemic toxicity of a local anesthetic is

A. Directly proportional to potency
B. Not related to potency
C. Indirectly proportional to potency
D. Irrelevant

A

A. Directly proportional to potency

46
Q

The antibiotic which is toxic for the vestibular portion of the eighth cranial nerve is

A. Neomycin
B. Bacitracin
C. Novobiocin
D. Streptomycin

A

D. Streptomycin

47
Q

The antidote for benzodiazepine overdose

A. Naloxone
B. Secobarbital
C. Zolpidem
D. Flumazenil

A

D. Flumazenil

48
Q

The drug affecting the renin angiotensin system by blocking activity of angiotensin II

A. Nifedipine
B. Captopril
C. Losartan
D. All of the above

A

C. Losartan

49
Q

The drug affecting the renin angiotensin system by blocking activity of angiotensin II

A. Nifedipine
B. Captopril
C. Losartan
D. All of the above

A

C. Losartan

50
Q

The drug of choice for patent ductus arteriosus?

A. Aspirin
B. Naproxen
C. Indomethacin
D. Etoricoxib

A

C. Indomethacin

51
Q

The following drugs act as an agonist on mu receptors in the central nervous system (CNS) for analgesia, except:

A. Fentanyl
B. Ibuprofen
C. Meperidine
D. Tramadol

A

B. Ibuprofen

52
Q

The half-life of a drug is the

A. Time it takes the drug to have a half effect
B. Time it takes the drug to decrease in half
C. Time it takes the drug to increase its effectivity by half
D. None of the above

A

B. Time it takes the drug to decrease in half

53
Q

The innervation of the hard palate is the

A. Anterior palatine nerve
B. Middle palatine nerve
C. Posterior palatine nerve
D. All of the above

A

A. Anterior palatine nerve

54
Q

The maximal recommended dose of Articaine is 500 mg. how many mL of 4% Articaine need to be given to reach this level?

A. 8.3
B. 5.6
C. 6.9
D. 8.5

A

C. 6.9

55
Q

The mechanism of action of fluoroquinolone drugs is

A. Anti-DNA kinase
B. Anti-DNA gyrase
C. Anti-DNA helicase
D. Anti-DNA polymerase

A

B. Anti-DNA gyrase

56
Q

The platysma is innervated by which of the following nerves?

A. Trigeminal
B. Facial
C. Glossopharyngeal
D. Spinal accessory

A

B. Facial

57
Q

The principal route of drug excretion is via the

A. Urine
B. Sweat
C. Bile
D. Feces

A

A. Urine

58
Q

The resting membrane potential electrochemical gradient of a neuron is _________

A. 90 to 120 mv
B. -90 to -120 mv
C. 70 to 90 mv
D. -70 to -90 mv

A

D. -70 to -90 mv

59
Q

The site of absorption during oral route administration is in the

A. Duodenum
B. Stomach
C. Ileum
D. Jejunum

A

A. Duodenum

60
Q

The term bioavailability of a drug refers to

A. The measurement of amount therapeutically used that reaches the systemic circulation
B. The movement of a drug into the body tissues over time
C. The dissolution of drug in the GI tract
D. The relationship between the physical and chemical properties of drug and the systemic absorption of a drug

A

A. The measurement of amount therapeutically used that reaches the systemic circulation

61
Q

These are slow routes of drug absorption EXCEPT

A. Oral
B. Intranasal
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intramuscular

A

D. Intramuscular

62
Q

Tic douloureux is characterized by

A. Partial paralysis of the area
B. Total paralysis of the affected areas
C. Dull pain when pressure is applied to the area
D. Sharp excruciating pain when light is applied to the area

A

D. Sharp excruciating pain when light is applied to the area

63
Q

Trismus, secondary to an inferior alveolar injection, most likely results from

A. Accidental injection of the solution near a branch of the facial nerve
B. Allowing the needle tip to rest beneath the periosteum during injection
C. Passing the needle through the medial pterygoid muscle
D. Accidental injection of the solution near a major motor branch of the trigeminal nerve.

A

C. Passing the needle through the medial pterygoid muscle

64
Q

What is the pKa of Lidocaine?

A. 7.6
B. 7.7
C. 7.9
D. 8.1

A

C. 7.9

65
Q

What is the primary medication used in dissociative anesthesia?

A. Demerol
B. Pentobarbital
C. Ketamine
D. Promethazine hydrochloride

A

C. Ketamine

66
Q

What is the role of cholinergic drugs in dentistry?

A. Produce a dry field for impression taking
B. Calm an anxious patient
C. Induce salivation for patients with dry mouth
D. Reduce nausea

A

C. Induce salivation for patients with dry mouth

67
Q

What is the standard antibiotic prophylaxis for patients with penicillin allergy?

A. Clindamycin, 1 hr before the procedure Adults:2g, Child: 50 mg./kg
B. Clindamycin, 1 hr before the procedure Adults:1g, Child: 20 mg./kg
C. Clindamycin, 1 hr before the procedure Adults:600mg, Child: 50 mg./kg
D. Clindamycin, 1 hr before the procedure Adults:600mg, Child: 20 mg./kg

A

D. Clindamycin, 1 hr before the procedure Adults:600mg, Child: 20 mg./kg

68
Q

What type of needle is recommended for proper greater palatine nerve block?

A. Gauge 27 long
B. Gauge 27 short
C. Gauge 30 long
D. Gauge 30 short

A

B. Gauge 27 short

69
Q

Which among the following drugs reduce LDL levels?

A. Simvastatin
B. Heparin
C. Warfarin
D. Nystatin

A

A. Simvastatin

70
Q

Which among the following is the most potent diuretic?

A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Spironolactone
C. Furosemide
D. Amiloride

A

C. Furosemide

71
Q

Which anti-TB drug is responsible for the red-orange discoloration of body fluids?

A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
C. Ethambutol
D. Streptomycin

A

A. Rifampicin

72
Q

Which antibacterial is not a cell wall synthesis inhibitor?

A. Penicillin G
B. Doxycycline
C. Cefazolin
D. Vancomycin

A

B. Doxycycline

73
Q

Which antibiotic should be used cautiously due to its side effect of causing severe gastrointestinal upset?

A. Penicillin VK
B. Cephalexin
C. Azithromycin
D. Clindamycin

A

D. Clindamycin

74
Q

Which of the following agents is the precursor of dopamine?

A. Bromocriptine
B. Levodopa
C. Selegilline
D. Amantadine

A

B. Levodopa

75
Q

Which drug can be used in pregnant patient?

A. Tetracycline
B. Minocycline
C. Doxycycline
D. Penicillin VK

A

D. Penicillin VK

76
Q

Which of the following allows for the exit of the spinal accessory nerve from the cranial cavity

A. Foramen rotundum
B. Foramen magnum
C. Foramen ovale
D. Jugular foramen

A

D. Jugular foramen

77
Q

Which of the following antibiotics causes a hypersensitivity reaction also known as Red Man syndrome?

A. Fosfomycin
B. Vancomycin
C. Daptomycin
D. Captomycin

A

B. Vancomycin

78
Q

Which of the following antibiotics may cause discoloration of the teeth of the newborn if administered to the mother in the
third trimester of pregnancy?

A. Penicillin
B. Streptomycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Clindamycin

A

C. Tetracycline

79
Q

Which of the following drugs is most commonly employed in an attack of angina pectoris?

A. Sodium nitrate
B. Theophylline
C. Epinephrine
D. Nitroglycerine

A

D. Nitroglycerine

80
Q

Which of the following drugs is often combined with sulfamethoxazole for the treatment of respiratory tract and urinary tract
infections?

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Clindamycin
C. Metronidazole
D. Trimethoprim

A

D. Trimethoprim

81
Q

Which of the following fibers is the first to be blocked?

A. Type A alpha fibers
B. B and C fibers
C. Type A beta fibers
D. Type A gamma fibers

A

B. B and C fibers

82
Q

Which of the following indirect cholinergic agonist is used to treat Myasthenia gravis?

A. Physostigmine
B. Pyridostigmine
C. Edrophonium
D. Organophosphate

A

B. Pyridostigmine

83
Q

Which of the following is a 3rd generation anti-pseudomonas cephalosporin?

A. Cefuroxime
B. Maxipime
C. Cefprozil
D. Tazicef

A

D. Tazicef

84
Q

Which of the following is a 3rd generation anti-pseudomonas cephalosporin?

A. Cefuroxime
B. Maxipime
C. Cefprozil
D. Tazicef

A

D. Tazicef

85
Q

Which of the following is a frequent side effect of antihistamine therapy

A. Anemia
B. Anuria
C. Diuresis
D. Drowsiness

A

D. Drowsiness

86
Q

Which of the following is a local anesthetic subject to inactivation by plasma esterases?

A. Procaine
B. Prilocaine
C. Bupivacaine

D. Lidocaine

A

A. Procaine

87
Q

Which of the following is a major reason for adding vasoconstrictors to local anesthetic injections?

A. To decrease bleeding
B. To reduce systemic toxicity
C. To enhance the onset of action
D. To prolong the duration of anesthesia

A

D. To prolong the duration of anesthesia

88
Q

Which of the following is a predictable result of alpha-adrenergic blockade?

A. Mydriasis
B. Xerostomia
C. Lowered blood pressure
D. Bronchoconstriction

A

C. Lowered blood pressure

89
Q

Which of the following is an ester type of local anesthetic?

A. Piperocaine
B. Articaine
C. Etidocaine
D. Lidocaine

A

A. Piperocaine

90
Q

Which of the following is bactericidal?

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Clindamycin
D. Macrolides

A

A. Aminoglycosides

91
Q

Which of the following is not an ACE inhibitor?

A. Captopril
B. Hydralazine
C. Fosinopril
D. Lisinopril

A

B. Hydralazine

92
Q

Which of the following is not true about aspirin?

A. It is the prototype of traditional NSAIDs
B. It reversibly acetylates cyclooxygenase
C. It has analgesic and antipyretic action
D. It is associated with incidence of Reye’s syndrome

A

B. It reversibly acetylates cyclooxygenase

93
Q

Which of the following is often co-administered with antibiotics to delay the renal clearance of the antibiotic?

A. Probenecid
B. Imipenem
C. Aztreonam
D. Ceftazidime

A

A. Probenecid

94
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate analgesic for children?

A. Naproxen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Etodolac
D. Piroxicam

A

B. Ibuprofen

95
Q

Which of the following local anesthetic can be used without vasoconstrictor?

A. Mepivacaine and Prilocaine
B. Lidocaine and mepivacaine
C. Prilocaine and Articaine
D. Articaine and lidocaine

A

A. Mepivacaine and Prilocaine

96
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics is most likely to cause an allergic reaction?

A. Lidocaine
B. Propoxycaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Mepivicaine

A

B. Propoxycaine

97
Q

Which of the following macrolides has a half-life of 19 hrs?

A. Erythromycin
B. Azithromycin
C. Clarithromycin
D. Streptomycin

A

B. Azithromycin

98
Q

Which of the following muscles are inserted at the neck of the condyle?

A. Temporalis
B. Masseter
C. Internal pterygoid
D. External pterygoid

A

D. External pterygoid

99
Q

Which of the following raises the hyoid and aids in the depression of the mandible?

A. Omohyoid
B. Sternohyoid
C. Mylohyoid
D. Thyrohyoid

A

C. Mylohyoid

100
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the oculomotor nerve is correct?

A. It exits the skull via the stylomastoid foramen
B. It carries sensory impulses from the retina to the brain
C. It is motor to the lateral rectus
D. If it is damaged, the eyeball would point inferiorly and laterally

A

D. If it is damaged, the eyeball would point inferiorly and laterally

101
Q

Which one of the following is an ester local anesthetic?

A. Tetracaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Mepivacaine

A

A. Tetracaine

102
Q

Which one of the following is not an antifungal?

A. Nystatin
B. Amphotericin B
C. Ketoconazole
D. Esomeprazole

A

D. Esomeprazole

103
Q

Which one of the following is true about opioids?

A. Naloxone is an example of an opioid
B. They can cause respiratory depression
C. They can cause diarrhea
D. All can cause mydriasis

A

B. They can cause respiratory depression

104
Q

Which one of the following is true regarding tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?

A. They include phenelzine, isocarboxazid, and tranylcypromine
B. They are only used in depression
C. They inhibit reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin into presynaptic nerve terminals
D. Arrhythmias are a concern with TCA overdose

A

C. They inhibit reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin into presynaptic nerve terminals

105
Q

Which pair of anesthetics is most likely to show cross-allergy?

A. Lidocaine- mepivacaine
B. Prilocaine- tetracaine
C. Procaine- lidocaine
D. Procaine- mepivacaine

A

A. Lidocaine- mepivacaine

106
Q

Which route will give the most rapid onset of pharmacological effect?

A. Oral administration
B. Subcutaneous injection
C. Intravenous injection
D. Intramuscular injection

A

C. Intravenous injection

1. UP- PREBOARDS (9 decks)

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