Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

1. UP- PREBOARDS > Ortho-Pedo > Flashcards

Ortho-Pedo Flashcards

1
Q

A 15 years old female has lived in a non-fluoridated area all of her life. Which of the following is most likely to occur in this
young lady when she moves to a community where the drinking water naturally contains 6 ppm of fluoride?

A. 50% reduction in dental caries
B. An increase in the amount of fluoride stored in her bones
C. Moderate dental fluorosis
D. Gastrointestinal problems

A

B. An increase in the amount of fluoride stored in her bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A 15 years old female has lived in a non-fluoridated area all of her life. Which of the following is most likely to occur in this
young lady when she moves to a community where the drinking water naturally contains 6 ppm of fluoride?

A. 50% reduction in dental caries
B. An increase in the amount of fluoride stored in her bones
C. Moderate dental fluorosis
D. Gastrointestinal problems

A

B. An increase in the amount of fluoride stored in her bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A 20-month-old female presents with her mother to your office for her first check-up. Her mother is concerned because her
daughter only has a few erupted teeth. Upon examining the patient, which teeth should you expect to find?

A. Primary centrals, laterals, canines
B. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars, second molars
C. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars
D. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars, canines

A

D. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars, canines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A 5-year-old girl has her molar occlusion in flush terminal plane. What is most likely to be her occlusion at age 10 with proper
adequate space management?

A. Class I
B. Class II division 1
C. Class II division 2

D. Class III

A

A. Class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A branch of orthodontics which eliminates factors that may lead to malocclusion in normally developing dentition

A. Preventive
B. Interceptive
C. Corrective
D. Different

A

A. Preventive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A child’s behavior can be handled by familiarization if the basis of the problem is

A. Pain
B. Fear
C. Anxiety
D. Attitude of the parents

A

B. Fear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A distal step means

A. Edge-to-edge position of cusps of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars, leading to Angle class II malocclusion
B. Distal of maxillary first molars is mesial to the distal of mandibular molars, leading to Angle class II malocclusion
C. Distal of maxillary first molars is distal to the distal of mandibular molars, leading to Angle class II malocclusion
D. Incisal edge of maxillary incisors is distal to the incisal edge of mandibular incisors.

A

B. Distal of maxillary first molars is mesial to the distal of mandibular molars, leading to Angle class II malocclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A large SNB value in cephalometric analysis is indicative of a

A. Class II skeletal proportion
B. Class III skeletal proportion
C. Normal skeletal proportion
D. Concave profile

A

B. Class III skeletal proportion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A method of predicting the size of succedaneous teeth and space available in the arch

A. Mixed dentition analysis
B. Bolton’s analysis
C. Peck and peck’s index
D. Howe’s analysis

A

A. Mixed dentition analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A mother brings her son to your office for his 1-year-old dental appointment. You notice that there is a problem with the shape
of his teeth. The problem probably occurred in what stage of development?

A. Initiation
B. Differentiation
C. Proliferation
D. Apposition

A

C. Proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A removable appliance used as distal extension as in a loss of 6 or loss of E before eruption of 6 and is used if lingual holding
arch can’t be used

A. Transpalatal bar
B. Space saddle appliance
C. Split saddle appliance
D. Hawley appliance

A

B. Space saddle appliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

After eruption of PERMANENT tooth, the time required for apical closure is approximately ____

A. ½ - 1 year
B. 2 ½ - 3 years
C. 4 ½ - 5 years
D. 6 ½ - 7 years

A

B. 2 ½ - 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

All of the following are correct with regards to treatment of a diastema except:

A. Diastema of 2 mm or less usually closes spontaneously if lateral incisors are in good position.
B. Spaces will always close as permanent canines erupt.
C. Teeth should be aligned first if the diastema is caused by an abnormal frenum.
D. In such cases, a frenectomy should be performed after canines have erupted.

A

B. Spaces will always close as permanent canines erupt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

All of the following are indications for removable appliances except:

A. Limited tipping movement
B. Close extraction spaces fully
C. Retention after comprehensive treatment
D. Growth modification during mixed dentition

A

B. Close extraction spaces fully

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

All of the following are true in regards to growth of the mandible except:

A. The main growth thrust of the condyle is upward and forward to fill in the resultant space to maintain contact with
the base of the skull
B. Resorption of bone occurs along the anterior surface of the ramus.
C. Apposition of bone occurs along the posterior surface of the ramus.
D. Growth at the mandibular condyle during puberty usually results in increased posterior facial height.

A

A. The main growth thrust of the condyle is upward and forward to fill in the resultant space to maintain contact with
the base of the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

All of the following procedures have proved beneficial in treating a mentally retarded child EXCEPT

A. Schedule long appointments
B. Speak slowly and in very simple terms
C. Listen carefully to the patient
D. Ask the patient if there are any questions about anything you will be doing

A

A. Schedule long appointments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

All of the following statements regarding open bite are true except:

A. Maxillary constriction usually seen in open bite cases results from increased pressure on the mylohyoid muscles
from finger sucking.
B. The resultant maxillary constriction seen in open-bite cases tends to cause bilateral cross bites.
C. If the finger-sucking habit involves the hand resting on the chin, mandibular growth can get retarded producing a class II
retrognathic profile.
D. Compensatory tongue thrust habit is often observed in patients with open bite

A

A. Maxillary constriction usually seen in open bite cases results from increased pressure on the mylohyoid muscles
from finger sucking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

All of the following statements regarding types of space maintainers are true except:

A. Band and loop appliance prevents mesial migration of primary second molar after unilateral loss of primary first molar.
B. Distal shoe appliance prevents mesial migration of primary second molar after unilateral loss of primary first
molar.
C. A Nance appliance is used to prevent mesial rotation and mesial drift of permanent maxillary molars when primary maxillary
molars have been bilaterally lost.
D. Premature loss of a primary canine may be due to arch length deficiency, and it results in lingual collapse of mandibular
anterior.

A

B. Distal shoe appliance prevents mesial migration of primary second molar after unilateral loss of primary first
molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

An exchange of minerals between saliva and enamel is

A. Responsible for remineralization
B. Destructive in the enamel
C. Unimportant in tooth maintenance
D. None of the above

A

A. Responsible for remineralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

An orthodontist has moved the crown of tooth #21 in one direction, whereas the roots were displaced in the opposite
direction about an axis of rotation. This is the definition of:

A. Tipping
B. Bodily movement
C. Rotation
D. Extrusion

A

A. Tipping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ANB is a measurement gathered from a lateral cephalometric radiograph, used to determine the magnitude of the skeletal jaw
discrepancy. How is ANB determined?

A. SNA minus SNB
B. SNA plus SNB
C. ANS-Me minus SNB
D. SN-MP minus SNB

A

A. SNA minus SNB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

At what age can one expect eruption of a maxillary permanent canine in an individual with an ideal eruption sequence?

A. 8 to 9 years
B. 9 to 10 years
C. 10 to 11 years
D. 11 to 12 years

A

D. 11 to 12 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Avulsed teeth, primary-permanent should be treated as follows

A. Primary: reimplanted and splinted/Permanent: reimplanted and splinted
B. Primary: no reimplantation/Permanent: reimplanted and splinted rigidly
C. Primary: no reimplantation/Permanent: reimplanted and splinted flexibly for 14 days maximum
D. Primary: no reimplantation/Permanent: reimplanted and splinted flexibly

A

C. Primary: no reimplantation/Permanent: reimplanted and splinted flexibly for 14 days maximum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bimaxillary protrusion is a profile type that provides more space to accommodate teeth and alleviate crowding. The clinical
picture of bimaxillary protrusion is:

A. The mandibular teeth lean buccally
B. The maxillary teeth lean buccally
C. The teeth in both arches lean lingually
D. The teeth in both arches lean buccally

A

D. The teeth in both arches lean buccally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Bone grows by the addition of new layers on previously formed layers. What is this process called?

A. Endochondral growth
B. Appositional growth
C. Intramembranous growth
D. Interstitial growth

A

B. Appositional growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Bones grow by the addition of bone tissue on one side of a bony cortex and taking away from the other side. This process is
known as

A. Deposition
B. Translocation
C. Drift
D. Resorption

A

C. Drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cheek biting is corrected by

A. Bite block
B. Cross elastic
C. Oral screen
D. Tongue guard

A

C. Oral screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Class II division 1 subdivision right means:

A. The right molar is in a class II relationship, whereas the left molar is in a class I relationship.
B. The right molar is in a class I relationship, whereas the left molar is in a class II relationship.
C. Both molars are in class I relationship, whereas maxillary incisors are in linguoversion.
D. Both molars are in class II relationship, whereas maxillary incisors are in labioversion

A

A. The right molar is in a class II relationship, whereas the left molar is in a class I relationship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

During pulpotomy, what is the proper way of controlling hemorrhage from pulp stump

A. Apply pellet with moistened Formocresol
B. Put cotton pellet inside the chamber
C. Fill chamber with ZOE
D. Fill canals with calcium hydroxide

A

B. Put cotton pellet inside the chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

During what stage of development is peer group identity is STRONGEST?

A. Adult
B. Teenager
C. Latency
D. Pre-puberty

A

B. Teenager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

During what stage of development is peer group identity strongest?

A. Teenager
B. Latency
C. Pre-puberty
D. Adulthood

A

A. Teenager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Each of the following is a contraindication to molar uprighting except

A. Low mandibular plane
B. Severe lingual inclination of the tooth in addition to mesial tipping
C. Occlusal plane discrepancy
D. Presence of periodontal disease

A

A. Low mandibular plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fluoride levels in excess of _______ begin to pose a risk for fluorosis

A. One part per million
B. Two parts per million
C. Three parts per million
D. Four parts per million

A

C. Three parts per million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Frankfort horizontal plane is a reference plane constructed by joining which of the following landmarks?

A. Nasion and sella
B. Porion and sella
C. Porion and orbitale
D. Porion and nasion

A

C. Porion and orbitale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How much fluoride, in ppm, is contained in commonly used toothpastes?

A. 1,000 ppm
B. 5,000 ppm
C. 9,000 ppm
D. 12,300 ppm

A

A. 1,000 ppm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If a 7-year-old patient presents with early loss of Tooth #51, maxillary right second primary molar, what is the appropriate
space maintainer that can be used?

A. Nance appliance
B. Distal shoe
C. Band-and-loop
D. Lower lingual arch

A

C. Band-and-loop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If a person has a severe skeletal class II malocclusion, one would typically expect to see this manifest clinically with a:

A. Severe underbite
B. Severe overjet
C. A protuberant chin
D. Excessive occlusal wear

A

B. Severe overjet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If enamel and dentin are not formed correctly within the defect, a direct communication from the oral cavity with pulp tissue
can occur

A. Leong’s premolar
B. Dens in dente
C. Talon’s cusp
D. Mulberry molar

A

B. Dens in dente

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

If enamel and dentin are not formed correctly within the defect, a direct communication from the oral cavity with pulp tissue
can occur

A. Leong’s premolar
B. Dens in dente
C. Talon’s cusp
D. Mulberry molar

A

B. Dens in dente

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In a baby bottle decay or early childhood caries, the teeth typically are decayed in specific orders. The correct order from first
to last is

A. Maxillary anterior teeth, maxillary posterior teeth, mandibular posterior teeth, mandibular anterior teeth
B. Mandibular anterior teeth, mandibular posterior teeth, maxillary anterior teeth, maxillary posterior teeth
C. Mandibular posterior teeth, maxillary anterior teeth, maxillary posterior teeth, mandibular anterior teeth
D. Maxillary posterior teeth, mandibular posterior teeth, mandibular anterior teeth, maxillary anterior teeth

A

A. Maxillary anterior teeth, maxillary posterior teeth, mandibular posterior teeth, mandibular anterior teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In class II occlusion, in what relationship is the maxillary canine to the mandibular teeth?

A. Mesial to the embrasure between mandibular canine and mandibular first premolar
B. Between the mandibular canine and mandibular first premolar
C. Lingual to the mandibular canine
D. Distal to the embrasure between the mandibular canine and mandibular first premolar

A

D. Distal to the embrasure between the mandibular canine and mandibular first premolar

42
Q

In infant preventive care, tooth which are present at birth are known as

A. Natal teeth
B. Neonatal teeth
C. Supernumerary teeth
D. Ectopic eruption teeth

A

A. Natal teeth

43
Q

It is a defect in tooth enamel that results in less quantity of enamel than normal, can be a small pit or dent in the tooth or can
be widespread that the entire tooth is small or misshaped.

A. Erythroblastosis fetalis
B. Enamel hypoplasia
C. Nursing bottle caries
D. Dentinal dysplasia

A

B. Enamel hypoplasia

44
Q

It is the point on the symphysis halfway between the menton and pogonion

A. Gnathion
B. Gonion
C. Point A
D. Point B

A

A. Gnathion

45
Q

Radiographs of a preschool child with ____ will show obliteration of the pulp chambers with secondary dentin, a
characteristic finding.

A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
C Fluorosis
D. Enamel hypoplasia

A

B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

46
Q

Radiographs of a preschool child with ____ will show obliteration of the pulp chambers with secondary dentin, a
characteristic finding.

A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
C Fluorosis
D. Enamel hypoplasia

A

B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

47
Q

Serial extraction refers to the orderly removal of selected primary and permanent teeth in patients with severe arch length
discrepancy. Which teeth are extracted, and in what order?

A. Primary canines, primary first molars, primary second molars
B. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars
C. Primary first molars, primary second molars, permanent first premolars
D. Primary first molars, permanent first premolars

A

B. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars

48
Q

The “V” principle of growth is best illustrated by which of the following?

A. Nasal septum
B. Alveolar bone
C. Mandibular ramus
D. Mandibular symphysis

A

C. Mandibular ramus

49
Q

The crowns of all primary teeth begin to calcify between

A. 1.5 to 2 months in utero
B. 3.5 to 6 months in utero
C. 7.5 to 9 months in utero
D. 10 to 12 months in utero

A

B. 3.5 to 6 months in utero

50
Q

The definition of primate space is

A. The space mesial to the mandibular primary canines and distal to the maxillary primary canines
B. The space distal to the mandibular primary canines and distal to the maxillary primary canines
C. The space mesial to the maxillary primary canines and distal to the mandibular primary canines
D. The space mesial to the maxillary primary canines only

A

C. The space mesial to the maxillary primary canines and distal to the mandibular primary canines

51
Q

The father of modern orthodontics is

A. George Frankl
B. Joseph Lister
C. John Lister
D. Edward Angle

A

D. Edward Angle

52
Q

The most common congenitally missing tooth

A. Primary mandibular canine
B. Primary maxillary canine
C. Primary maxillary lateral incisor
D. Primary mandibular first molar

A

C. Primary maxillary lateral incisor

53
Q

The most common of the craniofacial malformation is

A. Bifid tongue
B. Cleft palate and cleft lip
C. Macroglossia
D. Anodontia

A

B. Cleft palate and cleft lip

54
Q

The permanent mandibular second premolar typically erupts when a child is about

A. 5-6 years old
B. 6-7 years old
C. 11-12 years old
D. 13-14 years old

A

C. 11-12 years old

55
Q

The phenomenon of “strawberry tongue” is associated with

A. Herpangina
B. Scarlet fever
C. Diphtheria
D. Mumps

A

B. Scarlet fever

56
Q

The process of shaping a patient’s behavior through appropriately timed feedback

A. Tell-show-do
B. Voice control
C. Positive reinforcement
D. Distraction

A

C. Positive reinforcement

57
Q

The space maintainer of choice for a unilateral loss of the mandibular 1st molar is the

A. Band and loop
B. Nance holding arch
C. Distal shoe
D. Lingual holding arch

A

A. Band and loop

58
Q

The stage in tooth development soon after lamina formation, dental lamina shows specific sites of mitotic activity

A. Cap stage
B. Bell stage
C. Bud stage
D. Germ stage

A

C. Bud stage

59
Q

The sum of the MD widths of the primary molar in any one quadrant is

A. 5-10 mm greater than the permanent teeth that succeed them - premolars
B. 2-5 mm greater than the permanent teeth than succeed them - premolars
C. 2-5 mm less than the permanent teeth than succeed them - premolars
D. 5-10 mm less than the permanent teeth that succeed them - premolars

A

B. 2-5 mm greater than the permanent teeth than succeed them - premolars

60
Q

The tooth enamel organ, dental papilla and dental follicle are collectively called

A. Tooth germ
B. Tooth bud
C. Dental lamina
D. Epithelial thickenings

A

A. Tooth germ

61
Q

The type of clasp used in most removable orthodontic appliances engages the MB and DB undercuts of posterior teeth and
gives excellent properties

A. Adams
B. Arrowhead
C. Ball
D. Circumferential

A

A. Adams

62
Q

The union of two teeth by the cementum of the roots is called:

A. Fusion
B. Germination
C. Concrescence
D. Ankylosis

A

C. Concrescence

63
Q

The wrist-hand radiograph is used by orthodontists to predict the time of the pubertal growth spurt and thus jaw growth.
What is examined in the wrist-hand radiograph?

A. Carpal bones of the wrist
B. Metacarpal bones of the hand
C. Phalanges of the fingers
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

64
Q

What are the properties of an ideal archwire?

A. High strength
B. Low stiffness
C. High range
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

65
Q

What are the properties of the alveolar ridge?

A. It exists to support teeth.
B. It does not form if a tooth fails to erupt.
C. It resorbs after a tooth is extracted.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

66
Q

What is the calcification pattern of the primary dentition?

A. A-B-C-D-E
B. A-D-B-C-E
C. A-B-D-C-E
D. A-C-B-D-E

A

B. A-D-B-C-E

67
Q

What is the direction of growth of the cranial base?

A. Upward and forward
B. Downward and forward
C. Upward and backward
D. Downward and backward

A

A. Upward and forward

68
Q

What is the most common cause of an anterior crossbite of maxillary teeth in young children?

A. Oral habits
B. Jaw size discrepancies
C. Prolonged retention of primary teeth
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

69
Q

What is the most common eruption sequence of teeth in the maxilla?

A. 61245378
B. 61234578
C. 61324678
D. 61234857

A

A. 61245378

70
Q

What is the single most important indicator of joint function?

A. Right and left excursions
B. Protrusion
C. The amount of maximum opening
D. Absence of pain

A

C. The amount of maximum opening

71
Q

What single morphological characteristic of the permanent first molar necessitates early restorative procedures in most
children?

A. Mesial proximal contact
B. Large pulp chamber
C. Deep grooves and fissures
D. Presence of auxiliary cusp

A

C. Deep grooves and fissures

72
Q

What site is responsible for mandibular vertical growth and how will this site affect the facial height during puberty?

A. Coronoid process, increase in posterior facial height
B. Body of mandible, no change in posterior facial height
C. Condylar cartilage, increase in posterior facial height
D. Ramus of the mandible, increase in posterior facial height

A

C. Condylar cartilage, increase in posterior facial height

73
Q

What stage in Nolla’s stage of initial calcification happens?

A. Stage 2
B. Stage 6
C. Stage 8
D. Stage 10

A

A. Stage 2

74
Q

What will be detected in the dark zones with application of heavy continuous force for 4 hours?

A. Increase in cAMP levels
B. Cell differentiation
C. Cell death
D. Release of prostaglandins and cytokines

A

C. Cell Death

75
Q

When is a Nance appliance indicated?

A. Bilateral loss of primary maxillary molars
B. Bilateral loss of primary mandibular molars
C. Loss of one primary molar
D. To control thumb-sucking behavior

A

A. Bilateral loss of primary maxillary molars

76
Q

When is it preferable to use bands instead of brackets in orthodontic treatment?

A. To resist breakage in areas of heavy mastication or occlusal interference
B. When both labial and lingual attachment are needed
C. For tooth surfaces that are incompatible with bonding
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

77
Q

Where is nasion found on the lateral cephalometric radiograph?

A. The point of intersection between the shadow of the zygomatic arch and the posterior border of the ramus
B. Anterior point of the intersection between the nasal and frontal bones
C. Intersection between the occipital and basisphenoid bones
D. Between the menton and pogonion

A

B. Anterior point of the intersection between the nasal and frontal bones

78
Q

Which appliance is not used to correct class II malocclusion?

A. Reverse-pull headgear
B. Herbst appliance
C. Twin block appliance
D. Cervical-pull headgear

A

A. Reverse-pull headgear

79
Q

Which cells are pivotal for the process of tooth movement through bone?

A. Red blood cells and white blood cells
B. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts
C. Neutrophils
D. Oligodendroglia

A

B. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts

80
Q

Which is considered to be the most important dental arch dimension?

A. Arch length
B. Arch perimeter
C. Intercanine dimension
D. Bi-molar width

A

B. Arch perimeter

81
Q

Which is the most favorable sequence of eruption of the primary teeth?

A. ABCDE
B. ADBCE
C. ABDCE
D. ACBDE

A

C. ABDCE

82
Q

Which of the following antimicrobial therapies can be utilized for high-caries-exposed patients?

A. ART restorative techniques
B. Stannous fluoride
C. Fluoride varnish therapy at high-frequency intervals
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

83
Q

Which is the normal relationship between primary molars?

A. Mesial step
B. Distal step
C. Flush terminal plane
D. None of the above

A

C. Flush terminal plane

84
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with multiple supernumerary teeth?

A. Diabetes
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Gardner syndrome
D. Rickets

A

C. Gardner syndrome

85
Q

Which of the following is a method of inducing root end closure on an incompletely formed non-vital permanent tooth?

A. Apexification
B. Apexogenesis
C. Pulpotomy
D. Pulpectomy

A

A. Apexification

86
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding ectopic eruption?

A. Most likely to occur in the eruption of maxillary first molars and mandibular incisors.
B. Treatment of ectopically erupting molar entails placing a brass wire between primary second molar and permanent first
molar to tip it distally.
C. Ectopic eruption of mandibular lateral incisors may lead to transposition of lateral incisor and canine.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

87
Q

Which of the following is having relatively broad, short skull

A. Mesocephalic
B. Brachycephalic
C. Mesocephalic
D. Normocephalic

A

B. Brachycephalic

88
Q

Which of the following is measured from the midline of the two central incisors down to a line that runs tangent to the distal
surfaces of the E’s or the 5’s?

A. Arch length
B. Arch perimeter
C. Intercanine dimension
D. Bi-molar width

A

A. Arch length

89
Q

Which of the following is not a factor in a caries-risk assessment tool?

A. Eruption sequence
B. Previous caries experience
C. Socioeconomic status of caregiver
D. Exposure to fluoride

A

A. Eruption sequence

90
Q

Which of the following is not a possible negative sequella associated with orthodontic treatment?

A. Root resorption with fast tooth movement or prolonged treatment
B. Xerostomia
C. Development of gingivitis
D. Decalcification of enamel around brackets/bands

A

B. Xerostomia

91
Q

Which of the following is not considered a method of closing a diastema?

A. Posterior bite plate
B. Lingual arch with finger spring
C. Hawley appliance with finger spring
D. Cemented orthodontic bands with intertooth traction

A

A. Posterior bite plate

92
Q

Which of the following is the most common local cause of malocclusion?

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Early loss of primary teeth
C. Presence of supernumerary teeth
D. Congenital absence of third molars

A

B. Early loss of primary teeth

93
Q

Which of the following malocclusions is the easiest to maintain after orthodontic treatment?

A. Expansion
B. Rotation
C. Anterior crossbite
D. Generalized spacing

A

C. Anterior crossbite

94
Q

Which of the following oral habits causes the maxillary incisors to be pushed labially, mandibular incisors lingually, while
buccal muscles exert pressure lingually against the teeth and can cause open bite?

A. Lip biting
B. Bruxism
C. Hyperactive mentalis muscle
D. Thumb sucking

A

D. Thumb sucking

95
Q

Which of the following vertical variations refers to the localized absence of occlusion while remaining teeth are in occlusion?

A. Overbite
B. Closed bite
C. Open bite
D. Deep overbite

A

C. Open bite

96
Q

Which one of the following are causes of a diastema:

A. Tooth size discrepancy
B. Mesiodens
C. Abnormal frenum attachment
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

97
Q

Which one of the following is a systemic cause of failure or delayed tooth eruption?

A. Hereditary gingival fibromatosis
B. Supernumerary teeth
C. Dilacerated roots
D. Congenital absence

A

A. Hereditary gingival fibromatosis

98
Q

Which permanent teeth are usually guided into occlusion by the distal of E’s?

A. First premolars
B. Second premolars
C. Second molars
D. First molars

A

D. First molars

99
Q

Which primary molar crown most resembles the crown of a permanent premolar?

A. Maxillary first
B. Maxillary second
C. Mandibular first
D. Mandibular second

A

A. Maxillary first

100
Q

Which type of leukemia is referred to as the “leukemia of childhood”?

A. Acute myeloid leukemia

B. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
C. Chronic myeloid leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

B. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

101
Q

With the eruption of which teeth do maxillary anterior diastemas normally close?

A. Third molars
B. First molars
C. Canines
D. Premolars

A

C. Canines

102
Q

__________ alone or in combination with other drugs, is the most common sedative agent used in pediatric dentistry.

A. Chloral hydrate
B. Pentobarbital
C. Secobarbital
D. Paraldehyde

A

A. Chloral hydrate

1. UP- PREBOARDS (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions