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1. UP- PREBOARDS > Gen Ana-Oral Ana-Physio > Flashcards

Gen Ana-Oral Ana-Physio Flashcards

1
Q

What cranial nerve passes through anterior cranial
fossa?

A. Cranial Nerve III
B. Cranial Nerve II
C. Cranial Nerve I
D. Accessory Nerve

A

C. Cranial Nerve I

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2
Q

Plane that divides the body into upper and lower half

A. Transverse
B. Sagittal
C. Coronal
D. Frontal

A

A. Transverse

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3
Q

Movement where in limb is moved away from the
midline’s body.

A. Adduction
B. Flexion
C. Supination
D. Abduction

A

D. Abduction

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4
Q

Movement where in forearm is rotated so that the
palm is facing downward.

A. Supination
B. Pronation
C. Flexion
D. Dorsiflexion

A

B. Pronation

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5
Q

Which of the following neurocranium bone are
paired?

A. Ethmoid bone
B. Sphenoid bone
C. Vomer
D. Temporal bone

A

D. Temporal bone

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6
Q

Which of the following are not viscerocranium bones?

A. Zygomatic Bones
B. Parietal Bone
C. Palatine Bones
D. Lacrimal Bone

A

B. Parietal Bone

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7
Q

Suture between two frontal bones along midline.

A. Metopic
B. Intermaxillary
C. Interfrontal
D. A and C

A

D. A and C

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8
Q

Matrix of connective tissue that provides a firm joint.

A. Sharpey’s Fibers
B. Syndesmosis
C. Sutures
D. Capsule

A

A. Sharpey’s Fibers

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9
Q

Which of the following is a true rib?

A. 1 - 6
B. 1 - 7
C. 7 - 10
D. 10 – 12

A

B. 1 - 7

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10
Q

Which of the following vertebrae has kidney shaped
body?

A. Cervical
B. Lumbar
C. Thoracic
D. Sacral

A

B. Lumbar

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11
Q

Which of the following characteristics is shared by
simple and facilitated diffusion of glucose?

A. Occurs down an electrochemical gradient
B. Is saturable
C. Requires metabolic energy
D. Is inhibited by the presence of galactose
E. Requires a Na+ gradient

A

A. Occurs down an electrochemical gradient

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12
Q

Which characteristic or component is shared by
skeletal muscle and smooth muscle?

A. Thick and thin filaments arranged in
sarcomeres
B. Troponin
C. Elevation of intracellular [Ca2+] for
excitation–contraction coupling
D. Spontaneous depolarization of the
membrane potential
E. High degree of electrical coupling between
cells

A

C. Elevation of intracellular [Ca2+] for
excitation–contraction coupling

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13
Q

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential

A. depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane by
opening Na+ channels
B. depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane by
opening K+ channels
C. hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic membrane
by opening Ca2+ channels
D. hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic membrane
by opening Cl− channels

A

D. hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic membrane
by opening Cl− channels

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14
Q

Which of the following is an inhibitory
neurotransmitter in the central nervous system
(CNS)?

A. Norepinephrine
B. Glutamate
C. γ-Aminobutyric acid (GABA)
D. Serotonin
E. Histamine

A

C. γ-Aminobutyric acid (GABA)

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15
Q

Which of the following causes rigor in skeletal
muscle?

A. Lack of action potentials in motoneurons
B. An increase in intracellular Ca2+ level
C. A decrease in intracellular Ca2+ level
D. An increase in adenosine triphosphate
(ATP) level
E. A decrease in ATP level

A

E. A decrease in ATP level

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16
Q

Which of the following responses is mediated by
parasympathetic muscarinic receptors?

A. Dilation of bronchiolar smooth muscle
B. Miosis
C. Ejaculation
D. Constriction of gastrointestinal (GI)
sphincters
E. Increased cardiac contractility

A

B. Miosis

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17
Q

Which of the following is a property of C fibers?

A. Have the slowest conduction velocity of any
nerve fiber type
B. Have the largest diameter of any nerve fiber
type
C. Are afferent nerves from muscle spindles
D. Are afferent nerves from Golgi tendon
organs
E. Are preganglionic autonomic fibers

A

A. Have the slowest conduction velocity of any
nerve fiber type

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18
Q

Which of the following is a feature of the sympathetic,
but not the parasympathetic nervous system?

A. Ganglia located in the effector organs
B. Long preganglionic neurons
C. Preganglionic neurons release
norepinephrine
D. Preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine
(ACh)
E. Preganglionic neurons originate in the
thoracolumbar spinal cord

A

E. Preganglionic neurons originate in the
thoracolumbar spinal cord

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19
Q

Which autonomic receptor mediates an increase in
heart rate?

A. Adrenergic α1 receptors
B. Adrenergic β1 receptors
C. Adrenergic β2 receptors
D. Cholinergic muscarinic receptors
E. Cholinergic nicotinic receptors

A

B. Adrenergic β1 receptors

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20
Q

Which autonomic receptor mediates secretion of
epinephrine by the adrenal medulla?

A. Adrenergic α1 receptors
B. Adrenergic β1 receptors
C. Adrenergic β2 receptors
D. Cholinergic muscarinic receptors
E. Cholinergic nicotinic receptors

A

E. Cholinergic nicotinic receptors

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21
Q

Sensory receptor potentials

A. are action potentials
B. always bring the membrane potential of a
receptor cell toward threshold
C. always bring the membrane potential of a
receptor cell away from threshold
D. are graded in size, depending on stimulus
intensity
E. are all or none

A

D. are graded in size, depending on stimulus
intensity

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22
Q

If the ejection fraction increases, there will be a
decrease in

A. cardiac output
B. end-systolic volume
C. heart rate
D. pulse pressure
E. stroke volume

A

B. end-systolic volume

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23
Q

The ventricles are completely depolarized during
which isoelectric portion of the electrocardiogram
(ECG)?

A. PR interval
B. QRS complex
C. QT interval
D. ST segment
E. T wave

A

D. ST segment

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24
Q

In which of the following situations is pulmonary
blood flow greater than aortic blood flow?

A. Normal adult
B. Fetus
C. Left-to-right ventricular shunt
D. Right-to-left ventricular shunt
E. Right ventricular failure

A

C. Left-to-right ventricular shunt

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25
Q

In which of the following situations is pulmonary
blood flow greater than aortic blood flow?

A. Normal adult
B. Fetus
C. Left-to-right ventricular shunt
D. Right-to-left ventricular shunt
E. Right ventricular failure

A

C. Left-to-right ventricular shunt

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26
Q

The tendency for edema to occur will be increased by

A. arteriolar constriction
B. increased venous pressure
C. increased plasma protein concentration
D. muscular activity

A

B. increased venous pressure

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27
Q

An acute decrease in arterial blood pressure elicits
which of the following compensatory changes?

A. Decreased firing rate of the carotid sinus
nerve
B. Increased parasympathetic outflow to the
heart
C. Decreased heart rate
D. Decreased contractility
E. Decreased mean systemic filling pressure

A

A. Decreased firing rate of the carotid sinus
nerve

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28
Q

Inspiration “splits” the second heart sound because

A. the aortic valve closes before the pulmonic
valve
B. the pulmonic valve closes before the aortic
valve
C. the mitral valve closes before the tricuspid
valve
D. the tricuspid valve closes before the mitral
valve
E. filling of the ventricles has fast and slow
components

A

A. the aortic valve closes before the pulmonic
valve

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29
Q

Which of the following is the result of an inward Na+
current?

A. Upstroke of the action potential in Purkinje
fibers
B. Plateau of the action potential in ventricular
muscle
C. Repolarization of the action potential in
ventricular muscle
D. Repolarization of the action potential in the
SA node

A

A. Upstroke of the action potential in Purkinje
fibers

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30
Q

Pulse pressure is

A. the highest pressure measured in the
arteries
B. the lowest pressure measured in the
arteries
C. measured only during diastole
D. determined by stroke volume

A

D. determined by stroke volume

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31
Q

In the sinoatrial (SA) node, phase 4 depolarization
(pacemaker potential) is attributable to

A. an increase in K+ conductance
B. an increase in Na+ conductance
C. a decrease in Cl− conductance
D. a decrease in Ca2+ conductance
E. simultaneous increases in K+ and Cl−
conductances

A

B. an increase in Na+ conductance

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32
Q

A healthy 35-year-old man is running a marathon.
During the run, there is an increase in his splanchnic
vascular resistance. Which receptor is responsible for
the increased resistance?

A. α1 Receptors
B. β1 Receptors
C. β2 Receptors
D. Muscarinic receptors

A

A. α1 Receptors

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33
Q

During which phase of the cardiac cycle is aortic
pressure highest?

A. Isovolumetric ventricular contraction
B. Rapid ventricular ejection
C. Reduced ventricular ejection
D. Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
E. Rapid ventricular filling

A

C. Reduced ventricular ejection

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34
Q

Myocardial contractility is best correlated with the
intracellular concentration of

A. Na+
B. K+
C. Ca2+
D. Cl−
E. Mg2+

A

C. Ca2+

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35
Q

The physiologic function of the relatively slow
conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node is
to allow sufficient time for

A. runoff of blood from the aorta to the
arteries
B. venous return to the atria
C. filling of the ventricles
D. contraction of the ventricles
E. repolarization of the ventricles

A

C. filling of the ventricles

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36
Q

A 72-year-old woman, who is being treated with
propranolol, finds that she cannot maintain her
previous exercise routine. Her physician explains that
the drug has reduced her cardiac output. Blockade of
which receptor is responsible for the decrease in
cardiac output?

A. α1 Receptors
B. β1 Receptors
C. β2 Receptors
D. Muscarinic receptors
E. Nicotinic receptors

A

B. β1 Receptors

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37
Q

Which of the following changes will cause an increase
in myocardial O2 consumption?

A. Decreased aortic pressure
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Decreased contractility
D. Increased size of the heart
E. Increased influx of Na+ during the upstroke
of the action potential

A

D. Increased size of the heart

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38
Q

During which phase of the ventricular action potential
is the membrane potential closest to the K+
equilibrium potential?

A. Phase 0
B. Phase 1
C. Phase 2
D. Phase 3
E. Phase 4

A

E. Phase 4

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39
Q

During which phase of the ventricular action potential
is the conductance to Ca2+ highest?

A. Phase 0
B. Phase 1
C. Phase 2
D. Phase 3
E. Phase 4

A

C. Phase 2

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40
Q

Which of the following agents or changes has a
negative inotropic effect on the heart?

A. Aldosterone
B. Angiotensin I
C. Angiotensinogen
D. ADH
E. Atrial natriuretic peptide

A

A. Aldosterone

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41
Q

Which agent is released or secreted after a
hemorrhage and causes an increase in renal Na+
reabsorption?

A. Aldosterone
B. Angiotensin I
C. Angiotensinogen
D. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
E. Atrial natriuretic peptide

A

A. Aldosterone

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42
Q

A deficiency in which of the following results in pernicious anemia?

A. Cobalt
B. Iodine
C. Magnesium

D. Manganese

A

A. Cobalt

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43
Q

A deficiency in which of the following results in pernicious anemia?

A. Cobalt
B. Iodine
C. Magnesium
D. Manganese

A

A. Cobalt

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44
Q

A deficiency in which of the following results in pernicious anemia?

A. Cobalt
B. Iodine
C. Magnesium
D. Manganese

A

A. Cobalt

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45
Q

A narrow-slit like opening on a bone is

A. Foramen
B. Fissure
C. Fossa
D. Meatus

A

B. Fissure

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46
Q

A pouch of skin that holds the testicle

A. Fats
B. Urethra
C. Scrotum
D. Seminal vesicle

A

C. Scrotum

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47
Q

A section that divides the body on the longitudinal plane into the right and left parts

A. Sagittal
B. Transverse
C. Oblique
D. Coronal

A

A. Sagittal

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48
Q

All are true of smooth muscle cells EXCEPT

A. They have only one nucleus.
B. They are typically very long.
C. Their myofibrils are not striated.
D. They have an extensive SR.

A

D. They have an extensive SR

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49
Q

All of the following are caused by an overactive thyroid EXCEPT

A. Grave disease.
B. Plummer disease.
C. Hashimoto thyroiditis.
D. Cretinism

A

D. Cretinism

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50
Q

All of the following are effects of parathyroid hormone (PTH) EXCEPT

A. Increases blood calcium levels
B. Stimulates bone resorption
C. Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
D. Decreases intestinal calcium absorption

A

D. Decreases intestinal calcium absorption

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51
Q

All of the following are true of the genetic code EXCEPT

A. Overlapping
B. Universal
C. Degenerate
D. Unambiguous

A

A. Overlapping

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52
Q

All of the following structures lie superficial to the hyoglossus muscle, EXCEPT the

A. Lingual nerve
B. Lingual artery
C. Hypoglossal nerve
D. Submandibular duct

A

B. Lingual artery

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53
Q

All of the following would likely result in an individual with severe anemia EXCEPT

A. Fatigue.
B. Cyanosis.
C. Hypoxia.
D. Increased cardiac output

A

B. Cyanosis

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54
Q

At the ankle joint the tibia and fibula articulate with the

A. Calcaneus
B. Talus
C. Navicular
D. Cuboid

A

B. Talus

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55
Q

Cavernous sinus is connected to the pterygoid plexus via

A. Angular vein
B. Emissary vein
C. Ophthalmic vein
D. Maxillary vein

A

B. Emissary vein

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56
Q

Central diabetes insipidus is most commonly caused by a defect in the activity of which structure?

A. Adrenal cortex
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary

A

D. Posterior pituitary

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57
Q

DNA synthesis occurs in which cell cycle phase?

A. Metaphase
B. Anaphase
C. Telophase
D. Interphase

A

D. Interphase

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58
Q

Each of the following bones are part of the orbit EXCEPT

A. Zygoma
B. Ethmoid
C. Lacrimal
D. Temporal

A

D. Temporal

59
Q

Each of the following statements concerning the foramen magnum are true EXCEPT

A. It is located in the occipital bone.
B. It allows passage of the medulla oblongata/spinal cord.
C. It allows passage of the spinal accessory nerve.
D. It is located in the parietal bone

A

D. It is located in the parietal bone

60
Q

From the incisal view, a greater MD measurement than faciolingual can be seen in which of the following permanent anterior
crowns?

A. Maxillary canine
B. Max. central incisors
C. Mandibular canine
D. Md. Central incisor

A

B. Max. central incisors

61
Q

From the incisal view, a greater MD measurement than faciolingual can be seen in which of the following permanent anterior
crowns?

A. Maxillary canine
B. Max. central incisors
C. Mandibular canine
D. Md. Central incisor

A

B. Max. central incisors

62
Q

How many cranial nerves have only motor innervations

A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6

A

B. 5

63
Q

How many spinal nerves exit at the cervical vertebrae?

A. 1
B. 5
B. 8
D. 12

A

B. 8

64
Q

Hyperventilation results in all of the following EXCEPT

A. Increased PO2.
B. Hypocapnia.
C. Decreased cerebral blood flow.
D. Increased PCO2.

A

D. Increased PCO2

65
Q

If the lingual frenulum is too short, a person may be affected by

A. An inability to taste food
B. Difficulty with speech
C. Pain when chewing
D. Crooked teeth

A

B. Difficulty with speech

66
Q

If you were to eat four sugar glaze doughnuts and a large Pepsi, which hormone would you expect to be secreted at higher
levels:

A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Epinephrine
D. Cortisol

A

A. Insulin

67
Q

In the neck the esophagus is ___________ to the trachea

A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Lateral
D. Medial

A

B. Posterior

68
Q

In what organ is taenia coli found?

A. Esophagus
B. Stomach
C. Small intestine
D. Large intestine

A

D. Large intestine

69
Q

Jaundice is caused by an increased blood level of

A. Bilirubin
B. Bile
C. Hemoglobin
D. Cholesterol

A

A. Bilirubin

70
Q

Local anesthetics function by

A. Activating Na+ channels.
B. Blocking Na+ channels
C. Activating K+ channels.
D. Blocking K+ channels

A

B. Blocking Na+ channels

71
Q

Mitral valve is located between

A. Right and left ventricles
B. Left atrium and left ventricle
C. Right atrium and right ventricle
D. Right and left atria

A

B. Left atrium and left ventricle

72
Q

Muscles of mastication include the following EXCEPT

A. Masseter
B. Tongue
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Lateral pterygoid

A

B. Tongue

73
Q

Opening of the parotid gland to the mouth is near the

A. 1st molar
B. 1st premolar
C. 2nd molar
D. 2nd premolar

A

C. 2nd molar

74
Q

Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by neuronal death in

A. Corpus callosum
B. Cerebral cortex of the frontal lobe
C. Aqueduct of Sylvius
D. Substantia nigra

A

D. Substantia nigra

75
Q

Primarily and secondary ossification centers appears as early as ___________, respectively

A. 6 weeks and 9 months intrauterine
B. 12 weeks and 9 months intrauterine
C. Birth and 2 years of age
D. 9 months intrauterine and 12 years of age

A

A. 6 weeks and 9 months intrauterine

76
Q

Sperm is stored in the

A. Epididymis.
B. Urethra.
C. Testis.
D. Seminiferous tubules

A

A. Epididymis

77
Q

Subcutaneous bleeding >1cm in size

A. Ecchymosis
B. Hematoma
C. Purpura
D. Petechiae

A

A. Ecchymosis

78
Q

Testes is the homologue of the ____ in the female

A. Clitoris
B. Ovary
C. Penis
D. Fallopian tube

A

B. Ovary

79
Q

The buccinators muscle is innervated by

A. Maxillary nerve
B. Mandibular nerve
C. Facial nerve
D. Vagus nerve

A

C. Facial nerve

80
Q

The coelomic sacs pleural or peritoneal are formed of a continuous membrane whose outer layer is named

A. Parietal
B. Visceral
C. Arterial
D. By its manner of innervation

A

A. Parietal

81
Q

The common hepatic artery is a branch of which of the following artery?

A. Celiac
B. Splenic
C. Gastric
D. Superior mesenteric

A

A. Celiac

82
Q

The dental lamina arises from what?

A. Somites
B. Neural crest cells
C. First branchial arch
D. Buccopharyngeal membrane

A

B. Neural crest cells

83
Q

The first permanent tooth to erupt in general

A. Md central molars
B. Mx central molars
C. Md central incisors
D. Mx central incisors

A

A. Md central molars

84
Q

The following are parasympathetic except:

A. Salivation
B. Tachycardia
C. Urination
D. Diarrhea

A

B. Tachycardia

85
Q

The functional unit of skeletal muscle is the

A. Fascicle
B. Fibril
C. Muscle belly
D. Motor unit

A

D. Motor unit

86
Q

The largest portion of the brain

A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Diencephalon
D. Brain stem

A

A. Cerebrum

87
Q

The major function of the lymphatic channels is to

A. Fight infection
B. Return tissue fluid and plasma proteins to the veins
C. Absorbs substances from the digestive tract
D. Carry substances to the spleen

A

B. Return tissue fluid and plasma proteins to the veins

88
Q

The mandible contains only cortical bone. The maxilla contains only cancellous bone.

A. Both statements are false.
B. Both statements are true.
C. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D. The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

A

A. Both statements are false.

89
Q

The most common adverse effect of the penicillins

A. Allergic reaction
B. Fever
C. Nausea
D. Vomiting

A

A. Allergic reaction

90
Q

The most common type of nosocomial infection is:

A. Urinary tract infection
B. Meningitis
C. Cellulitis
D. Gastroenteritis

A

A. Urinary tract infection

91
Q

The most lateral of the distal carpal bones

A. Hamate
B. Trapezium
C. Trapezoid
D. Capitate

A

B. Trapezium

92
Q

The mucous membrane of the stomach is thrown into folds terme

A. Villi
B. Chyme
C. Rugae
D. None of the above

A

C. Rugae

93
Q

The muscular coat of the urinary bladder wall is called

A. Detrusor muscle
B. Dartos muscle
C. Pelvic diaphragm
D. None

A

A. Detrusor muscle

94
Q

The nerve that increases gastrointestinal motility

A. 10th CN
B. 11th CN
C. 9th CN
D. 5th CN

A

A. 10th CN

95
Q

The organelle which is responsible for lipid synthesis is

A. Peroxisomes
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosomes
D. Smooth ER

A

D. Smooth ER

96
Q

The permanent dentition has ____ teeth in total

A. 28
B. 32
C. 36
D. 300+

A

B. 32

97
Q

The pituitary gland is seated superiorly on which sinus?

A. Maxillary
B. Anterior ethmoid
C. Posterior ethmoid
D. Sphenoid

A

D. Sphenoid

98
Q

The posterior 1/3 of the tongue drains directly into the

A. Deep cervical nodes
B. Submental nodes.
C. Submandibular nodes.
D. Rectopharyngeal nodes.

A

A. Deep cervical nodes

99
Q

The sigmoid pattern of pH in dental plaque after sucrose rinse is the

A. Curve of Spee
B. Monson’s curve
C. Stephan’s curve
D. Bennet’s curve

A

C. Stephan’s curve

100
Q

The sixth cusp of mandibular 1st molar located between the two lingual cusps:

A. Tuberculum intermedium
B. Cusp of carabelli
C. Tuberculum sextum
D. None of the choices

A

A. Tuberculum intermedium

101
Q

The superior articular facet of the atlas articulates with:

A. Mandibular condyle
B. Glenoid fossa of the skull
C. Occipital condyle of the skull
D. Condylar notch

A

C. Occipital condyle of the skull

102
Q

The three usual primary branches of the celiac artery are the

A. Common hepatic, splenic, and left gastric
B. Gastroduodenal, splenic, and left gastric
C. Right gastroepiploic, splenic, and left gastric
D. Common hepatic, right gastroepiploic, and left gastric

A

A. Common hepatic, splenic, and left gastric

103
Q

Thiamin deficiency is also known as:

A. Beri-beri
B. Pellagra
C. Scurvy
D. Rickets

A

A. Beri-beri

104
Q

This substance causes muscle fatigue

A. Creatinine
B. Troponin
C. Acetylcholine
D. Lactic acid

A

D. Lactic acid

105
Q

Thyroxine is secreted from

A. Follicular cells.
B. Pars distalis.
C. Pars intermedia.
D. Parafollicular cells.

A

A. Follicular cells

106
Q

Tocopherol is also known as:

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K

A

C. Vitamin E

107
Q

Under anaerobic conditions, how many net ATPs are produced per glucose?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4

A

C. 2

108
Q

Vitamin K is synthesized in the body by

A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Bone marrow
D. Liver

A

D. Liver

109
Q

What is the relationship of the nipple to the umbilicus?

A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Inferior
D. Superior

A

D. Superior

110
Q

What organelles of attachment enable bacteria to adhere to surfaces?

A. Cilia
B. Glycoproteins
C. Glycolipids
D. Pili

A

D. Pili

111
Q

What structure passes through the vertebral foramen?

A. Artery
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Spinal cord
D. Lymphatic vessel

A

C. Spinal cord

112
Q

Which antibiotic inhibits bacterial protein synthesis?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Doxycycline
C. Metronidazole
D. Cephalexin

A

B. Doxycycline

113
Q

Which lobe of the cerebrum is considered to be the visual processing center of the human brain?

A. Parietal lobe
B. Temporal lobe
C. Occipital lobe
D. Frontal lobe

A

C. Occipital lobe

114
Q

Which muscle can perform all movements of the arm at the shoulder joint?

A. Deltoid
B. Supraspinatus
C. Latissimus dorsi
D. Pectoralis major

A

A. Deltoid

115
Q

Which of the following amino acids is not synthesized from glucose?

A. Valine
B. Arginine
C. Alanine
D. Glutamate

A

A. Valine

116
Q

Which of the following arteries supplies the maxillary canines and incisors?

A. Pterygoid
B. Sphenopalatine
C. Descending palatine
D. Infraorbital

A

D. Infraorbital

117
Q

Which of the following clotting factors is also known as the Stuart-Prower factor?

A. Factor X
B. Factor XII
C. Factor VII
D. Factor IX

A

A. Factor X

118
Q

Which of the following correlations is incorrect?

A. Superior - cephalic
B. Sagittal - median
C. Transverse - horizontal
D. Inferior - cephalic

A

D. Inferior - cephalic

119
Q

Which of the following disorders is characterized by uncontrollable episodes of falling sleep during the day?

A. Dyslexia
B. Epilepsy
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Narcolepsy

A

D. Narcolepsy

120
Q

Which of the following features are associated with the humerus?

A. Olecranon process, coronoid fossa, and styloid fossa
B. Greater tuberosity, olecranon fossa, coronoid fossa
C. Acromion, coracoid, and glenoid fossa
D. Tuberculum, capitulum, and angle

A

B. Greater tuberosity, olecranon fossa, coronoid fossa

121
Q

Which of the following is a depression on the bone?

A. Fossa
B. Epicondyle
C. Head
D. Spine

A

A. Fossa

122
Q

Which of the following is a granulocyte?

A. T cell.
B. Macrophage.
C. Platelet.
D. Neutrophil

A

D. Neutrophil

123
Q

Which of the following is lined by keratinized stratified squamous epithelium?

A. Floor of the mouth
B. Hard palate
C. Alveolar mucosa
D. Soft palate

A

B. Hard palate

124
Q

Which of the following is malignant?

A. Meningioma
B. Lipoma
C. Melanoma
D. Teratoma

A

C. Melanoma

125
Q

Which of the following is not involved in the process of mineralization?

A. Matrix vesicle
B. Fluoride
C. Amelogenins
D. Phosphorus

A

B. Fluoride

126
Q

Which of the following is not present in the 7th cervical vertebrae

A. Spinous process
B. Body
C. Bifid spine
D. Lamina

A

C. Bifid spine

127
Q

Which of the following is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for actual purification and filtration of the blood?

A. Glomerular capsule
B. Renal pelvis
C. Glomerulus
D. Nephron

A

D. Nephron

128
Q

Which of the following is the most abundant cell of a healthy periodontal ligament?

A. Neutrophils
B. Osteoblasts
C. Cementoblasts
D. Fibroblasts

A

D. Fibroblasts

129
Q

Which of the following is the most important factor in determining the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen?

A. PO2
B. PCO2
C. pH
D. Hb concentration

A

A. PO2

130
Q

Which of the following muscles is named on the basis of its action only?

A. Sternocleidomastoid
B. Teres major
C. Levator scapulae
D. Biceps brachii

A

C. Levator scapulae

131
Q

Which of the following muscles contains the food bolus in proximity of the teeth for optimal mastication?

A. Medial pterygoid
B. Masseter
C. Buccinator
D. Lateral pterygoid

A

C. Buccinator

132
Q

Which of the following muscles is considered to be the prime extensor of the forearm?

A. Biceps brachii
B. Triceps brachii
C. Brachioradialis
D. Extensor digitorum

A

B. Triceps brachii

133
Q

Which of the following muscles is not in contraction during a forced expiration?

A. Rectus abdominis
B. Diaphragm
C. Transversus thoracis
D. Transversus abdominis

A

B. Diaphragm

134
Q

Which of the following muscles is not involved in swallowing?

A. Salpingopharyngeus
B. Levator veli palatini
C. Palatopharyngeus
D. Tensor veli palatini

A

A. Salpingopharyngeus

135
Q

Which of the following refers to the compact bone which lines the tooth socket?

A. Cancellous bone
B. Lamina dura
C. Medullary bone
D. Periodontal membrane

A

B. Lamina dura

136
Q

Which of the following ribs cannot be palpated?

A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. A and B

A

A. First

137
Q

Which of the following small, thin-walled vessels can rupture and, thus, are commonly involved in stroke?

A. Left anterior cerebral
B. Right posterior cerebral
C. Lenticulostriate
D. Left vertebral

A

C. Lenticulostriate

138
Q

Which of the following structures of the adult heart is a remnant of the foramen ovale in the fetal heart?

A. Crista terminalis
B. Fossa ovalis
C. Sulcus terminalis
D. Right auricle

A

B. Fossa ovalis

139
Q

Which of the following structures of the eye does not change in shape?

A. Lens
B. Retina
C. Iris
D. Cornea

A

D. Cornea

140
Q

Which of the following terms refer to the production of red blood cells?

A. Syneresis
B. Homeostasis
C. Hemostasis
D. Erythropoiesis

A

D. Erythropoiesis

141
Q

Which of the following tooth structure is composed of 70% organic matter and 30% inorganic matter and water?

A. Enamel
B. Dentin
C. Cementum
D. Bone

A

B. Dentin

142
Q

Which organ of the male reproductive system encloses and protects the testes?

A. Prostate gland
B. Ductus deferens
C. Scrotum
D. Penis

A

C. Scrotum

143
Q

While doing jumping jacks during an exercise, your arms and legs move away from the body midline of your body. This
motion is called

A. Extension
B. Circumduction
C. Adduction
D. Abduction

A

D. Abduction

144
Q

Zymogenic granules are found in

A. Granular layer of epidermis
B. Chief cells of stomach mucosa
C. Goblet cells
D. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

B. Chief cells of stomach mucosa

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