Gen Ana-Oral Ana-Physio Flashcards by Gwendolyn Fegarido

What cranial nerve passes through anterior cranial
fossa?

A. Cranial Nerve III
B. Cranial Nerve II
C. Cranial Nerve I
D. Accessory Nerve

C. Cranial Nerve I

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Plane that divides the body into upper and lower half

A. Transverse
B. Sagittal
C. Coronal
D. Frontal

A. Transverse

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Movement where in limb is moved away from the midline’s body.

A. Adduction
B. Flexion
C. Supination
D. Abduction

D. Abduction

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Movement where in forearm is rotated so that the palm is facing downward.

A. Supination
B. Pronation
C. Flexion
D. Dorsiflexion

B. Pronation

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Which of the following neurocranium bone are paired?

A. Ethmoid bone
B. Sphenoid bone
C. Vomer
D. Temporal bone

D. Temporal bone

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Which of the following are not viscerocranium bones?

A. Zygomatic Bones
B. Parietal Bone
C. Palatine Bones
D. Lacrimal Bone

B. Parietal Bone

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Suture between two frontal bones along midline.

A. Metopic
B. Intermaxillary
C. Interfrontal
D. A and C

D. A and C

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Matrix of connective tissue that provides a firm joint.

A. Sharpey’s Fibers
B. Syndesmosis
C. Sutures
D. Capsule

A. Sharpey’s Fibers

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Which of the following is a true rib?

A. 1 - 6
B. 1 - 7
C. 7 - 10
D. 10 – 12

B. 1 - 7

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Which of the following vertebrae has kidney shaped
body?

A. Cervical
B. Lumbar
C. Thoracic
D. Sacral

B. Lumbar

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Which of the following characteristics is shared by
simple and facilitated diffusion of glucose?

A. Occurs down an electrochemical gradient
B. Is saturable
C. Requires metabolic energy
D. Is inhibited by the presence of galactose
E. Requires a Na+ gradient

A. Occurs down an electrochemical gradient

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Which characteristic or component is shared by skeletal muscle and smooth muscle?

A. Thick and thin filaments arranged in sarcomeres
B. Troponin
C. Elevation of intracellular [Ca2+] for excitation–contraction coupling
D. Spontaneous depolarization of the membrane potential
E. High degree of electrical coupling between cells

C. Elevation of intracellular [Ca2+] for excitation–contraction coupling

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An inhibitory postsynaptic potential

A. depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane by opening Na+ channels
B. depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane by opening K+ channels
C. hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic membrane by opening Ca2+ channels
D. hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic membrane by opening Cl− channels

D. hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic membrane by opening Cl− channels

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Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system (CNS)?

A. Norepinephrine
B. Glutamate
C. γ-Aminobutyric acid (GABA)
D. Serotonin
E. Histamine

C. γ-Aminobutyric acid (GABA)

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Which of the following causes rigor in skeletal muscle?

A. Lack of action potentials in motoneurons
B. An increase in intracellular Ca2+ level
C. A decrease in intracellular Ca2+ level
D. An increase in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) level
E. A decrease in ATP level

E. A decrease in ATP level

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Which of the following responses is mediated by parasympathetic muscarinic receptors?

A. Dilation of bronchiolar smooth muscle
B. Miosis
C. Ejaculation
D. Constriction of gastrointestinal (GI) sphincters
E. Increased cardiac contractility

B. Miosis

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Which of the following is a property of C fibers?

A. Have the slowest conduction velocity of any
nerve fiber type
B. Have the largest diameter of any nerve fiber
type
C. Are afferent nerves from muscle spindles
D. Are afferent nerves from Golgi tendon
organs
E. Are preganglionic autonomic fibers

A. Have the slowest conduction velocity of any
nerve fiber type

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Which of the following is a feature of the sympathetic, but not the parasympathetic nervous system?

A. Ganglia located in the effector organs
B. Long preganglionic neurons
C. Preganglionic neurons release norepinephrine
D. Preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine (ACh)
E. Preganglionic neurons originate in the thoracolumbar spinal cord

E. Preganglionic neurons originate in the thoracolumbar spinal cord

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Which autonomic receptor mediates an increase in
heart rate?

A. Adrenergic α1 receptors
B. Adrenergic β1 receptors
C. Adrenergic β2 receptors
D. Cholinergic muscarinic receptors
E. Cholinergic nicotinic receptors

B. Adrenergic β1 receptors

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Which autonomic receptor mediates secretion of
epinephrine by the adrenal medulla?

A. Adrenergic α1 receptors
B. Adrenergic β1 receptors
C. Adrenergic β2 receptors
D. Cholinergic muscarinic receptors
E. Cholinergic nicotinic receptors

E. Cholinergic nicotinic receptors

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Sensory receptor potentials

A. are action potentials
B. always bring the membrane potential of a receptor cell toward threshold
C. always bring the membrane potential of a receptor cell away from threshold
D. are graded in size, depending on stimulus intensity
E. are all or none

D. are graded in size, depending on stimulus intensity

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If the ejection fraction increases, there will be a
decrease in

A. cardiac output
B. end-systolic volume
C. heart rate
D. pulse pressure
E. stroke volume

B. end-systolic volume

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The ventricles are completely depolarized during
which isoelectric portion of the electrocardiogram
(ECG)?

A. PR interval
B. QRS complex
C. QT interval
D. ST segment
E. T wave

D. ST segment

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In which of the following situations is pulmonary
blood flow greater than aortic blood flow?

A. Normal adult
B. Fetus
C. Left-to-right ventricular shunt
D. Right-to-left ventricular shunt
E. Right ventricular failure

C. Left-to-right ventricular shunt

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In which of the following situations is pulmonary blood flow greater than aortic blood flow? A. Normal adult B. Fetus C. Left-to-right ventricular shunt D. Right-to-left ventricular shunt E. Right ventricular failure

C. Left-to-right ventricular shunt

The tendency for edema to occur will be increased by A. arteriolar constriction B. increased venous pressure C. increased plasma protein concentration D. muscular activity

B. increased venous pressure

An acute decrease in arterial blood pressure elicits which of the following compensatory changes? A. Decreased firing rate of the carotid sinus nerve B. Increased parasympathetic outflow to the heart C. Decreased heart rate D. Decreased contractility E. Decreased mean systemic filling pressure

A. Decreased firing rate of the carotid sinus nerve

Inspiration “splits” the second heart sound because A. the aortic valve closes before the pulmonic valve B. the pulmonic valve closes before the aortic valve C. the mitral valve closes before the tricuspid valve D. the tricuspid valve closes before the mitral valve E. filling of the ventricles has fast and slow components

A. the aortic valve closes before the pulmonic valve

Which of the following is the result of an inward Na+ current? A. Upstroke of the action potential in Purkinje fibers B. Plateau of the action potential in ventricular muscle C. Repolarization of the action potential in ventricular muscle D. Repolarization of the action potential in the SA node

A. Upstroke of the action potential in Purkinje fibers

Pulse pressure is A. the highest pressure measured in the arteries B. the lowest pressure measured in the arteries C. measured only during diastole D. determined by stroke volume

D. determined by stroke volume

In the sinoatrial (SA) node, phase 4 depolarization (pacemaker potential) is attributable to A. an increase in K+ conductance B. an increase in Na+ conductance C. a decrease in Cl− conductance D. a decrease in Ca2+ conductance E. simultaneous increases in K+ and Cl− conductances

B. an increase in Na+ conductance

A healthy 35-year-old man is running a marathon. During the run, there is an increase in his splanchnic vascular resistance. Which receptor is responsible for the increased resistance? A. α1 Receptors B. β1 Receptors C. β2 Receptors D. Muscarinic receptors

A. α1 Receptors

During which phase of the cardiac cycle is aortic pressure highest? A. Isovolumetric ventricular contraction B. Rapid ventricular ejection C. Reduced ventricular ejection D. Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation E. Rapid ventricular filling

C. Reduced ventricular ejection

Myocardial contractility is best correlated with the intracellular concentration of A. Na+ B. K+ C. Ca2+ D. Cl− E. Mg2+

C. Ca2+

The physiologic function of the relatively slow conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node is to allow sufficient time for A. runoff of blood from the aorta to the arteries B. venous return to the atria C. filling of the ventricles D. contraction of the ventricles E. repolarization of the ventricles

C. filling of the ventricles

A 72-year-old woman, who is being treated with propranolol, finds that she cannot maintain her previous exercise routine. Her physician explains that the drug has reduced her cardiac output. Blockade of which receptor is responsible for the decrease in cardiac output? A. α1 Receptors B. β1 Receptors C. β2 Receptors D. Muscarinic receptors E. Nicotinic receptors

B. β1 Receptors

Which of the following changes will cause an increase in myocardial O2 consumption? A. Decreased aortic pressure B. Decreased heart rate C. Decreased contractility D. Increased size of the heart E. Increased influx of Na+ during the upstroke of the action potential

D. Increased size of the heart

During which phase of the ventricular action potential is the membrane potential closest to the K+ equilibrium potential? A. Phase 0 B. Phase 1 C. Phase 2 D. Phase 3 E. Phase 4

E. Phase 4

During which phase of the ventricular action potential is the conductance to Ca2+ highest? A. Phase 0 B. Phase 1 C. Phase 2 D. Phase 3 E. Phase 4

C. Phase 2

Which of the following agents or changes has a negative inotropic effect on the heart? A. Aldosterone B. Angiotensin I C. Angiotensinogen D. ADH E. Atrial natriuretic peptide

A. Aldosterone

Which agent is released or secreted after a hemorrhage and causes an increase in renal Na+ reabsorption? A. Aldosterone B. Angiotensin I C. Angiotensinogen D. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) E. Atrial natriuretic peptide

A. Aldosterone

A deficiency in which of the following results in pernicious anemia? A. Cobalt B. Iodine C. Magnesium D. Manganese

A. Cobalt

A deficiency in which of the following results in pernicious anemia? A. Cobalt B. Iodine C. Magnesium D. Manganese

A. Cobalt

A deficiency in which of the following results in pernicious anemia? A. Cobalt B. Iodine C. Magnesium D. Manganese

A. Cobalt

A narrow-slit like opening on a bone is A. Foramen B. Fissure C. Fossa D. Meatus

B. Fissure

A pouch of skin that holds the testicle A. Fats B. Urethra C. Scrotum D. Seminal vesicle

C. Scrotum

A section that divides the body on the longitudinal plane into the right and left parts A. Sagittal B. Transverse C. Oblique D. Coronal

A. Sagittal

All are true of smooth muscle cells EXCEPT A. They have only one nucleus. B. They are typically very long. C. Their myofibrils are not striated. D. They have an extensive SR.

D. They have an extensive SR

All of the following are caused by an overactive thyroid EXCEPT A. Grave disease. B. Plummer disease. C. Hashimoto thyroiditis. D. Cretinism

D. Cretinism

All of the following are effects of parathyroid hormone (PTH) EXCEPT A. Increases blood calcium levels B. Stimulates bone resorption C. Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption D. Decreases intestinal calcium absorption

D. Decreases intestinal calcium absorption

All of the following are true of the genetic code EXCEPT A. Overlapping B. Universal C. Degenerate D. Unambiguous

A. Overlapping

All of the following structures lie superficial to the hyoglossus muscle, EXCEPT the A. Lingual nerve B. Lingual artery C. Hypoglossal nerve D. Submandibular duct

B. Lingual artery

All of the following would likely result in an individual with severe anemia EXCEPT A. Fatigue. B. Cyanosis. C. Hypoxia. D. Increased cardiac output

B. Cyanosis

At the ankle joint the tibia and fibula articulate with the A. Calcaneus B. Talus C. Navicular D. Cuboid

B. Talus

Cavernous sinus is connected to the pterygoid plexus via A. Angular vein B. Emissary vein C. Ophthalmic vein D. Maxillary vein

B. Emissary vein

Central diabetes insipidus is most commonly caused by a defect in the activity of which structure? A. Adrenal cortex B. Adrenal medulla C. Anterior pituitary D. Posterior pituitary

D. Posterior pituitary

DNA synthesis occurs in which cell cycle phase? A. Metaphase B. Anaphase C. Telophase D. Interphase

D. Interphase

Each of the following bones are part of the orbit EXCEPT A. Zygoma B. Ethmoid C. Lacrimal D. Temporal

D. Temporal

Each of the following statements concerning the foramen magnum are true EXCEPT A. It is located in the occipital bone. B. It allows passage of the medulla oblongata/spinal cord. C. It allows passage of the spinal accessory nerve. D. It is located in the parietal bone

D. It is located in the parietal bone

From the incisal view, a greater MD measurement than faciolingual can be seen in which of the following permanent anterior crowns? A. Maxillary canine B. Max. central incisors C. Mandibular canine D. Md. Central incisor

B. Max. central incisors

How many cranial nerves have only motor innervations A. 3 B. 5 C. 4 D. 6

B. 5

How many spinal nerves exit at the cervical vertebrae? A. 1 B. 5 B. 8 D. 12

B. 8

Hyperventilation results in all of the following EXCEPT A. Increased PO2. B. Hypocapnia. C. Decreased cerebral blood flow. D. Increased PCO2.

D. Increased PCO2

If the lingual frenulum is too short, a person may be affected by A. An inability to taste food B. Difficulty with speech C. Pain when chewing D. Crooked teeth

B. Difficulty with speech

If you were to eat four sugar glaze doughnuts and a large Pepsi, which hormone would you expect to be secreted at higher levels: A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Epinephrine D. Cortisol

A. Insulin

In the neck the esophagus is ___________ to the trachea A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Lateral D. Medial

B. Posterior

In what organ is taenia coli found? A. Esophagus B. Stomach C. Small intestine D. Large intestine

D. Large intestine

Jaundice is caused by an increased blood level of A. Bilirubin B. Bile C. Hemoglobin D. Cholesterol

A. Bilirubin

Local anesthetics function by A. Activating Na+ channels. B. Blocking Na+ channels C. Activating K+ channels. D. Blocking K+ channels

B. Blocking Na+ channels

Mitral valve is located between A. Right and left ventricles B. Left atrium and left ventricle C. Right atrium and right ventricle D. Right and left atria

B. Left atrium and left ventricle

Muscles of mastication include the following EXCEPT A. Masseter B. Tongue C. Medial pterygoid D. Lateral pterygoid

B. Tongue

Opening of the parotid gland to the mouth is near the A. 1st molar B. 1st premolar C. 2nd molar D. 2nd premolar

C. 2nd molar

Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by neuronal death in A. Corpus callosum B. Cerebral cortex of the frontal lobe C. Aqueduct of Sylvius D. Substantia nigra

D. Substantia nigra

Primarily and secondary ossification centers appears as early as ___________, respectively A. 6 weeks and 9 months intrauterine B. 12 weeks and 9 months intrauterine C. Birth and 2 years of age D. 9 months intrauterine and 12 years of age

A. 6 weeks and 9 months intrauterine

Sperm is stored in the A. Epididymis. B. Urethra. C. Testis. D. Seminiferous tubules

A. Epididymis

Subcutaneous bleeding >1cm in size A. Ecchymosis B. Hematoma C. Purpura D. Petechiae

A. Ecchymosis

Testes is the homologue of the ____ in the female A. Clitoris B. Ovary C. Penis D. Fallopian tube

B. Ovary

The buccinators muscle is innervated by A. Maxillary nerve B. Mandibular nerve C. Facial nerve D. Vagus nerve

C. Facial nerve

The coelomic sacs pleural or peritoneal are formed of a continuous membrane whose outer layer is named A. Parietal B. Visceral C. Arterial D. By its manner of innervation

A. Parietal

The common hepatic artery is a branch of which of the following artery? A. Celiac B. Splenic C. Gastric D. Superior mesenteric

A. Celiac

The dental lamina arises from what? A. Somites B. Neural crest cells C. First branchial arch D. Buccopharyngeal membrane

B. Neural crest cells

The first permanent tooth to erupt in general A. Md central molars B. Mx central molars C. Md central incisors D. Mx central incisors

A. Md central molars

The following are parasympathetic except: A. Salivation B. Tachycardia C. Urination D. Diarrhea

B. Tachycardia

The functional unit of skeletal muscle is the A. Fascicle B. Fibril C. Muscle belly D. Motor unit

D. Motor unit

The largest portion of the brain A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Diencephalon D. Brain stem

A. Cerebrum

The major function of the lymphatic channels is to A. Fight infection B. Return tissue fluid and plasma proteins to the veins C. Absorbs substances from the digestive tract D. Carry substances to the spleen

B. Return tissue fluid and plasma proteins to the veins

The mandible contains only cortical bone. The maxilla contains only cancellous bone. A. Both statements are false. B. Both statements are true. C. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. D. The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

A. Both statements are false.

The most common adverse effect of the penicillins A. Allergic reaction B. Fever C. Nausea D. Vomiting

A. Allergic reaction

The most common type of nosocomial infection is: A. Urinary tract infection B. Meningitis C. Cellulitis D. Gastroenteritis

A. Urinary tract infection

The most lateral of the distal carpal bones A. Hamate B. Trapezium C. Trapezoid D. Capitate

B. Trapezium

The mucous membrane of the stomach is thrown into folds terme A. Villi B. Chyme C. Rugae D. None of the above

C. Rugae

The muscular coat of the urinary bladder wall is called A. Detrusor muscle B. Dartos muscle C. Pelvic diaphragm D. None

A. Detrusor muscle

The nerve that increases gastrointestinal motility A. 10th CN B. 11th CN C. 9th CN D. 5th CN

A. 10th CN

The organelle which is responsible for lipid synthesis is A. Peroxisomes B. Mitochondria C. Lysosomes D. Smooth ER

D. Smooth ER

The permanent dentition has ____ teeth in total A. 28 B. 32 C. 36 D. 300+

B. 32

The pituitary gland is seated superiorly on which sinus? A. Maxillary B. Anterior ethmoid C. Posterior ethmoid D. Sphenoid

D. Sphenoid

The posterior 1/3 of the tongue drains directly into the A. Deep cervical nodes B. Submental nodes. C. Submandibular nodes. D. Rectopharyngeal nodes.

A. Deep cervical nodes

The sigmoid pattern of pH in dental plaque after sucrose rinse is the A. Curve of Spee B. Monson's curve C. Stephan's curve D. Bennet's curve

C. Stephan's curve

The sixth cusp of mandibular 1st molar located between the two lingual cusps: A. Tuberculum intermedium B. Cusp of carabelli C. Tuberculum sextum D. None of the choices

A. Tuberculum intermedium

The superior articular facet of the atlas articulates with: A. Mandibular condyle B. Glenoid fossa of the skull C. Occipital condyle of the skull D. Condylar notch

C. Occipital condyle of the skull

The three usual primary branches of the celiac artery are the A. Common hepatic, splenic, and left gastric B. Gastroduodenal, splenic, and left gastric C. Right gastroepiploic, splenic, and left gastric D. Common hepatic, right gastroepiploic, and left gastric

A. Common hepatic, splenic, and left gastric

Thiamin deficiency is also known as: A. Beri-beri B. Pellagra C. Scurvy D. Rickets

A. Beri-beri

This substance causes muscle fatigue A. Creatinine B. Troponin C. Acetylcholine D. Lactic acid

D. Lactic acid

Thyroxine is secreted from A. Follicular cells. B. Pars distalis. C. Pars intermedia. D. Parafollicular cells.

A. Follicular cells

Tocopherol is also known as: A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K

C. Vitamin E

Under anaerobic conditions, how many net ATPs are produced per glucose? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4

C. 2

Vitamin K is synthesized in the body by A. Heart B. Lungs C. Bone marrow D. Liver

D. Liver

What is the relationship of the nipple to the umbilicus? A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Inferior D. Superior

D. Superior

What organelles of attachment enable bacteria to adhere to surfaces? A. Cilia B. Glycoproteins C. Glycolipids D. Pili

D. Pili

What structure passes through the vertebral foramen? A. Artery B. Medulla oblongata C. Spinal cord D. Lymphatic vessel

C. Spinal cord

Which antibiotic inhibits bacterial protein synthesis? A. Amoxicillin B. Doxycycline C. Metronidazole D. Cephalexin

B. Doxycycline

Which lobe of the cerebrum is considered to be the visual processing center of the human brain? A. Parietal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Frontal lobe

C. Occipital lobe

Which muscle can perform all movements of the arm at the shoulder joint? A. Deltoid B. Supraspinatus C. Latissimus dorsi D. Pectoralis major

A. Deltoid

Which of the following amino acids is not synthesized from glucose? A. Valine B. Arginine C. Alanine D. Glutamate

A. Valine

Which of the following arteries supplies the maxillary canines and incisors? A. Pterygoid B. Sphenopalatine C. Descending palatine D. Infraorbital

D. Infraorbital

Which of the following clotting factors is also known as the Stuart-Prower factor? A. Factor X B. Factor XII C. Factor VII D. Factor IX

A. Factor X

Which of the following correlations is incorrect? A. Superior - cephalic B. Sagittal - median C. Transverse - horizontal D. Inferior - cephalic

D. Inferior - cephalic

Which of the following disorders is characterized by uncontrollable episodes of falling sleep during the day? A. Dyslexia B. Epilepsy C. Hydrocephalus D. Narcolepsy

D. Narcolepsy

Which of the following features are associated with the humerus? A. Olecranon process, coronoid fossa, and styloid fossa B. Greater tuberosity, olecranon fossa, coronoid fossa C. Acromion, coracoid, and glenoid fossa D. Tuberculum, capitulum, and angle

B. Greater tuberosity, olecranon fossa, coronoid fossa

Which of the following is a depression on the bone? A. Fossa B. Epicondyle C. Head D. Spine

A. Fossa

Which of the following is a granulocyte? A. T cell. B. Macrophage. C. Platelet. D. Neutrophil

D. Neutrophil

Which of the following is lined by keratinized stratified squamous epithelium? A. Floor of the mouth B. Hard palate C. Alveolar mucosa D. Soft palate

B. Hard palate

Which of the following is malignant? A. Meningioma B. Lipoma C. Melanoma D. Teratoma

C. Melanoma

Which of the following is not involved in the process of mineralization? A. Matrix vesicle B. Fluoride C. Amelogenins D. Phosphorus

B. Fluoride

Which of the following is not present in the 7th cervical vertebrae A. Spinous process B. Body C. Bifid spine D. Lamina

C. Bifid spine

Which of the following is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for actual purification and filtration of the blood? A. Glomerular capsule B. Renal pelvis C. Glomerulus D. Nephron

D. Nephron

Which of the following is the most abundant cell of a healthy periodontal ligament? A. Neutrophils B. Osteoblasts C. Cementoblasts D. Fibroblasts

D. Fibroblasts

Which of the following is the most important factor in determining the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? A. PO2 B. PCO2 C. pH D. Hb concentration

A. PO2

Which of the following muscles is named on the basis of its action only? A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Teres major C. Levator scapulae D. Biceps brachii

C. Levator scapulae

Which of the following muscles contains the food bolus in proximity of the teeth for optimal mastication? A. Medial pterygoid B. Masseter C. Buccinator D. Lateral pterygoid

C. Buccinator

Which of the following muscles is considered to be the prime extensor of the forearm? A. Biceps brachii B. Triceps brachii C. Brachioradialis D. Extensor digitorum

B. Triceps brachii

Which of the following muscles is not in contraction during a forced expiration? A. Rectus abdominis B. Diaphragm C. Transversus thoracis D. Transversus abdominis

B. Diaphragm

Which of the following muscles is not involved in swallowing? A. Salpingopharyngeus B. Levator veli palatini C. Palatopharyngeus D. Tensor veli palatini

A. Salpingopharyngeus

Which of the following refers to the compact bone which lines the tooth socket? A. Cancellous bone B. Lamina dura C. Medullary bone D. Periodontal membrane

B. Lamina dura

Which of the following ribs cannot be palpated? A. First B. Second C. Third D. A and B

A. First

Which of the following small, thin-walled vessels can rupture and, thus, are commonly involved in stroke? A. Left anterior cerebral B. Right posterior cerebral C. Lenticulostriate D. Left vertebral

C. Lenticulostriate

Which of the following structures of the adult heart is a remnant of the foramen ovale in the fetal heart? A. Crista terminalis B. Fossa ovalis C. Sulcus terminalis D. Right auricle

B. Fossa ovalis

Which of the following structures of the eye does not change in shape? A. Lens B. Retina C. Iris D. Cornea

D. Cornea

Which of the following terms refer to the production of red blood cells? A. Syneresis B. Homeostasis C. Hemostasis D. Erythropoiesis

D. Erythropoiesis

Which of the following tooth structure is composed of 70% organic matter and 30% inorganic matter and water? A. Enamel B. Dentin C. Cementum D. Bone

B. Dentin

Which organ of the male reproductive system encloses and protects the testes? A. Prostate gland B. Ductus deferens C. Scrotum D. Penis

C. Scrotum

While doing jumping jacks during an exercise, your arms and legs move away from the body midline of your body. This motion is called A. Extension B. Circumduction C. Adduction D. Abduction

D. Abduction

Zymogenic granules are found in A. Granular layer of epidermis B. Chief cells of stomach mucosa C. Goblet cells D. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

B. Chief cells of stomach mucosa

Gen Ana-Oral Ana-Physio Flashcards

(144 cards)