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1. UP- PREBOARDS > OS-OD-Roent > Flashcards

OS-OD-Roent Flashcards

1
Q

A 24-year-old male with history of 1-ppd smoking and occasional alcohol use presents to your office 4 days after a routine extraction of #30 with complaints of severe throbbing pain and a foul taste, but on examination, there is no drainage or erythema of the area. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Inferior alveolar nerve injury
B. Alveolar osteitis
C. Infection
D. Osteomyelitis

A

B. Alveolar osteitis

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2
Q

A 25-year-old female presents with past history of biting her lower lip for several weeks and now presents with a lesion that increases and decreases in size (Photo 30). PMH: asthma, Meds: Albuterol, All: NKDA. On the basis of the symptoms and clinical presentation, what is the treatment of choice?

A. NS rinses four times daily
B. Pen VK 500 mg every 6 hours for 7 days
C. Excisional biopsy
D. Incisional biopsy

A

C. Excisional biopsy

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3
Q

A dentist removes a maxillary premolar and notices that she has created an oroantral communication, which is 4 mm in diameter. Which of the following is an appropriate treatment?

A. Figure-of-eight sutures to maintain integrity of the blood clot within the socket
B. Requires a buccal fat pad flap advancement
C. Tongue flap advancement
D. No surgical treatment

A

A. Figure-of-eight sutures to maintain integrity of the blood clot within the socket

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4
Q

A first-year dental student helping out in the clinic for the first time repeatedly obtains x-rays of tooth #16 with a
zigzagged pattern. What could have prevented the zigzagged pattern on the radiographic image?

A. Telling the patient not to move during the exposure
B. Placing the film incorrectly with the lead portion facing the cone
C. Bending the film less when placing in position
D. Using the film only once instead of exposing it multiple times

A

B. Placing the film incorrectly with the lead portion facing the cone

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5
Q

A medical history reveals that the patient has the following signs and symptoms: polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. What is the possible diagnosis?

A. Addison’s disease
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Polynephritis
D. Hyperthyroidism

A

B. Diabetes mellitus

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6
Q

A method of obtaining a digital image where the sensor captures the image and immediately transfers it to a
computer is termed

A. Indirect digital imaging
B. Direct digital imaging
C. Storage phosphor imaging
D. None of the above

A

B. Direct digital imaging

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7
Q

A patient presents to your clinic with a diagnosis of an abscess. Which characteristics support your diagnosis?

I. History of pain and swelling for 3 days
II. History of pain and swelling for 1 week
III. Predominance of anaerobic bacteria with a well-circumscribed border
IV. Predominance of aerobic bacteria with a diffuse border

A. II and IV
B. I, II, and III
C. IV only
D. All the above

A

B. I, II, and III

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8
Q

A patient presents with tooth pain after being punched in the mouth. Upon examination, the tooth causing the pain is fractured at the coronal portion of the root. There is no mobility or displacement. What is the proper treatment for this patient?

A. Removal of coronal segment and pulpectomy
B. Rigid splint
C. Occlusal adjustment
D. Extraction

A

A. Removal of coronal segment and pulpectomy

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9
Q

A patient with large squamous cell carcinoma of the lateral border of the tongue is scheduled for a radical neck dissection. Prophylactic extractions of hopeless teeth must be done to prevent which of the following?

A. Rampant caries
B. Periodontal disease
C. Osteoradionecrosis
D. None of the above

A

C. Osteoradionecrosis

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10
Q

A right unilateral cleft lip is most likely to result from incomplete union between which of the following prominences?

A. The frontonasal prominence to the medial nasal prominence
B. The lateral nasal prominence to the maxillary prominence
C. The lateral nasal prominence to the medial nasal prominence
D. The medial nasal prominence to the maxillary nasal prominence

A

D. The medial nasal prominence to the maxillary nasal prominence

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11
Q

A surgical procedure used to recontour the supporting bone structures in preparation of a complete or partial
denture is called a/an:

A. Closed reduction
B. Operculectomy
C. Alveoloplasty
D. Gingivoplasty

A

C. Alveoloplasty

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12
Q

A type of lichen planus which has network of white lines called wickham striae

A. Erosive
B. Atrophic
C. Reticular
D. Plaque

A

C. Reticular

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13
Q

A white cauliflower-like growth on the cheek mucosa is most probably a

A. Fibroma
B. Lymphangioma
C. Lipoma
D. Papilloma

A

D. Papilloma

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14
Q

After your film has been processed, you notice it appears too light in color. The least likely cause is:

A. The temperature of the solutions was too cold
B. The solution was too weak
C. The solution was too old
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

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15
Q

All of the following are advantages of a panoramic radiograph except:

A. It shows areas that may not be visible on a bitewing or periapical
B. It shows both arches on the same film
C. It gives better detail and definition than PAs
D. It is more comfortable for the patient because it eliminates the gagging reflex

A

C. It gives better detail and definition than PAs❌

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16
Q

All of the following may have similar radiographic appearance except:

A. Ameloblastoma
B. Complex odontoma
C. Radicular cyst
D. Eosinophilic granuloma

A

B. Complex odontoma

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17
Q

An endocrine disorders which is characterized by upper body obesity, round face (moon face), and fat around the
neck

A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Addison’s disease

A

A. Cushing’s syndrome

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18
Q

An increased serum alkaline phosphatase is observed in which of the following conditions?

A. Paget’s disease
B. Cherubism
C. Garner’s disease
D. Periapical cemental dysplasia

A

A. Paget’s disease

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19
Q

Any bleeding in the area of the head and neck can be best controlled by:

A. Systemic medication
B. Infiltrate epinephrine
C. Pressure
D. Ice pack

A

C. Pressure

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20
Q

Bell’s palsy is caused by injury to what cranial nerve?

A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN XII
D. CN XI

A

B. CN VII

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21
Q

Black branching lines appear on a processed film. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. Fixer cut-off
B. Developer cut-off
C. Fingernail damage
D. Static electricity

A

D. Static electricity

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22
Q

Body temperature can be measured in several different ways, which one is the most accurate?

A. Orally
B. Axillary
C. Rectally
D. Aurally

A

C. Rectally

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23
Q

Cafe au lait spots on the skin are common findings in all of the following, except:

A. McCune-Albright’s syndrome
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Addison’s disease
D. Neurofibromatosis

A

B. Hyperthyroidism❌

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24
Q

Dental elevators are used for which of the following purposes?

A. To retract the gingival crest tissue
B. To reflect a full mucoperiosteal flap
C. To engage the tooth apical to the cemento-enamel junction
D. To engage the tooth coronal to the cemento-enamel junction

A

C. To engage the tooth apical to the cemento-enamel junction

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25
Q

Each of the following is a muscle of mastication except the:

A. Lateral pterygoid
B. Buccinators
C. Masseter
D. Medial pterygoid

A

B. Buccinators

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26
Q

Extraction wounds heal by which method?

A. Primary intention
B. Secondary intention
C. Tertiary intention
D. None of the above

A

B. Secondary intention

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27
Q

Fordyce’s granules appear microscopically to be

A. Sweat glands
B. Sebaceous glands
C. Actinomycotic lesions
D. Mucous salivary glands

A

B. Sebaceous glands

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28
Q

Hairy tongue is a condition characterized by hypertrophy of the:

A. Filiform papillae
B. Fungiform papillae
C. Circumvallate papillae
D. Foliate papillae

A

A. Filiform papillae

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29
Q

Hepatitis A can be transmitted by

A. Changing diapers on an infected baby
B. Having sex with someone who is infected
C. Eating cooked meat
D. Needle stick injuries from infected patients

A

A. Changing diapers on an infected baby

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30
Q

Identify which of the following is not a property of x-rays?

A. No weight
B. Cannot be deflected or scattered
C. Have no charge
D. Are invisible

A

B. Cannot be deflected or scattered

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31
Q

If the highest portion of the 3rd molar crown is between the occlusal table and cervical line of the 2nd molar, it is in

A. Position A
B. Position B
C. Position C
D. Position D

A

B. Position B

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32
Q

In adults, the normal range of vertical mandibular opening is from

A. 20 to 30 mm
B. 30 to 40 mm
C. 40 to 50 mm
D. 50 to 60 mm

A

C. 40 to 50 mm

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33
Q

In the dental xray tube, the number of electrons flowing per second is measured by

A. Milliamperage (mA)
B. Kilovoltage peak (kVp)
C. Time (in seconds)
D. All of the above

A

A. Milliamperage (mA)

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34
Q

In trying to reduce the amount of low-quality, long-wavelength x-rays from exiting the cone, what is commonly added to the cone for added filtration?

A. Tin disks
B. Aluminum disks
C. Thicker glass
D. Different color plastics

A

B. Aluminum disks

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35
Q

Incision for drainage (l&D) in an area of acute infection should only be performed after:

A. Localization of the infection
B. A culture for antibiotic sensitivity has been performed
C. A sinus tract is formed
D. The patients fever has cleared up

A

A. Localization of the infection

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36
Q

Infection causes tissue to be more resistant to the anesthetic effect of local anesthetics because:

A. This results in a decrease in the ionized form of the local anesthetic; in turn, the local anesthetic has
difficulty penetrating the cell membrane of the neuron
B. This results in an increase in the ionized form of the local anesthetic at the expense of the unionized form of the local anesthetic
C. Infected tissue has many bacteria that create buffers that hinder the diffusion of local anesthetic toward the nerve cell
D. This results in an increase of the non-ionized form of the local anesthetic; in turn, the local anesthetic effect is diminished because of an increased refractory period because of the abundance of local anesthetic in the neuron

A

B. This results in an increase in the ionized form of the local anesthetic at the expense of the unionized form of the local anesthetic

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37
Q

It is a small hook-like projection of bone, appears radiopaque, extends from the medial Pterygoid plate

A. Maxillary tuberosity
B. Vomer
C. Hamulus
D. Anterior nasal spine

A

C. Hamulus

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38
Q

It is a type of flap used in endodontic surgery for performing apicoectomy

A. Oshenbein-Luebke
B. Y-flap
C. Semilunar flap
D. Trapezoidal flap

A

C. Semilunar flap

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39
Q

It is the biologic effect compared to other types of radiation

A. Exposure measurement
B. Dose equivalent
C. Dose measurement
D. Maximum Dosage

A

B. Dose equivalent

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40
Q

List the following cells from most radio resistant to most radiosensitive

A. Muscle-thyroid gland-skin-small lymphocyte
B. Thyroid gland-small lymphocyte-skin-muscle
C. Muscle-small lymphocyte-skin-thyroid gland
D. Small lymphocyte-skin-thyroid gland-muscle

A

A. Muscle-thyroid gland-skin-small lymphocyte

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41
Q

On removal of #16, you have broken off a root tip. The tooth is missing a portion of its palatal root. Unable to
visualize the root tip, you take a radiograph and note its position to be:

A. In the infratemporal fossa
B. In the nerve canal
C. In the nasal floor
D. In the maxillary sinus

A

D. In the maxillary sinus

42
Q

Osteomyelitis usually begins in the medullary space involving the

A. Cancellous bone
B. Periosteum
C. Soft tissues
D. Cortical bone

A

A. Cancellous bone

43
Q

Purplish spots due to bleeding vessels near the surface of the skin

A. Purpura
B. Petechiae
C. Ecchymosis
D. Hematoma

A

A. Purpura

44
Q

Radiographic film emulsion is

A. Cellulose acetate
B. Hydroquinone
C. Sodium thiosulfate
D. Gelatin and silver bromide

A

D. Gelatin and silver bromide

45
Q

Regarding the mechanism of action for local anesthetics, the following are true, except:

A. An inactive nerve cell has a resting membrane potential of -50 to -70 mV
B. During depolarization, there is an influx of Ca2+
C. During the repolarization of the peripheral nerve, potassium ions pass out of the cell to restore the resting
cell to resting membrane potential
D. Non-ionized molecules enter through nerve cell membranes more readily than ionized molecules

A

B. During depolarization, there is an influx of Ca2+❌

46
Q

Soap bubble radiographic appearance is related to which of the following disease?

A. Cherubism
B. Garre’s osteitis
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Hypothyroidism

A

A. Cherubism

47
Q

Stensen’s duct can be found at which of the following anatomic sites?

A. Mandibular angle
B. Preauricular border
C. At the zygomatic arch
D. Within the buccal space

A

D. Within the buccal space

48
Q

Terminology for a lesion which deforms with a degree of resistance then returns to original form

A. Spongy
B. Doughy
C. Indurated
D. Compressible

A

B. Doughy

49
Q

The common wart or verruca vulgaris is caused by the:

A. Adenovirus
B. Human papillomavirus
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Human parvovirus

A

B. Human papillomavirus

50
Q

The difference in degrees of blackness between adjacent areas on a dental radiograph

A. Contrast
B. Density
C. Magnification
D. Fixation

A

A. Contrast

51
Q

The incomplete fractures with flexible bone, bending and flexing of bone with minimal mobility

A. Favorable fracture
B. Greenstick fracture
C. Unfavorable fracture
D. Comminuted fracture

A

B. Greenstick fracture

52
Q

The lamina dura appears radiographically as

A. Interrupted radiolucent lines
B. Continuous radiolucent line
C. Continuous radiopaque line
D. Interrupted radiopaque line

A

C. Continuous radiopaque line

53
Q

The levator veli palatini muscle is primarily innervated by the:

A. Vagus (X) nerve
B. V2 branch of the trigeminal (V) nerve
C. V3 branch of the trigeminal (V) nerve
D. Facial (VII) nerve

A

A. Vagus (X) nerve

54
Q

The mandibular left second molar of a 14-year-old boy is unerupted. Radiographs show a small dentigerous cyst
surrounding the crown. What is the treatment of choice?

A. Surgically extract the unerupted second molar
B. Prescribe an anti-inflammatory medication and schedule a follow-up appointment in 6 months
C. No treatment is necessary at this time
D. Uncover the crown and keep it exposed

A

D. Uncover the crown and keep it exposed

55
Q

The mental nerve exits the mental foramen at which of the following sites?

A. Below the canine halfway down the mandible
B. Below the first premolar halfway down the mandible
C. Below the first premolar, directed posteriorly
D. Below the second premolar halfway down the mandible

A

D. Below the second premolar halfway down the mandible

56
Q

The most difficult mandibular third molar impaction position is classified as:

A. Mesioangular
B. Soft tissue
C. Distoangular
D. Erupted

A

C. Distoangular

57
Q

The most widely used determinant of proximal caries:

A. Panoramic radiograph
B. Bitewing radiograph
C. Transillumination
D. Visual inspection

A

B. Bitewing radiograph

58
Q

The pattern of stored energy on an exposed film is termed the latent image; this image remains invisible until it undergoes processing.

The function of the developer solution is to chemically reduce the exposed, energized silver halide crystals to black metallic silver.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true

A

A. Both statements are true

59
Q

The proper treatment for an avulsed tooth that occurred less than 25 minutes ago would include which of the
following?

A. Minimize contact with root and replant primary teeth
B. Placement of a rigid splint for 4 to 6 weeks
C. Replant and splint for 7 to 10 days
D. Immediate pulpectomy and re-implantation

A

C. Replant and splint for 7 to 10 days

60
Q

The universal sign of laryngeal obstruction is:

A. Mydriasis
B. Stridor (crowing sounds)
C. Sweating
D. Tachycardia

A

B. Stridor (crowing sounds)

61
Q

This is written in patient’s own words and if 2 or more it is arrange accordingly

A. Personal data
B. Chief complaint
C. History of present illness
D. Past medical history

A

B. Chief complaint

62
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia presents with:

I. Generally presents bilaterally
II. Common complaints include stabbing, burning, shocking pain
III. It is uncommon for the pain to be triggered by benign events
IV. Carbamazepine is more effective than Amitriptyline

A. I, II, and III
B. II and IV
C. IV only
D. All the above

A

B. II and IV

63
Q

Tuberculosis of the lymph nodes is:

A. Lupus vulgaris
B. Scrofula
C. Pott’s disease
D. None of the above

A

B. Scrofula

64
Q

What are the components of a developing solution?

A. Developing agent, accelerator, restrainer
B. Clearing agent, antioxidant preservative, acidifier, hardener
C. Developing agent, acidifier, antioxidant preservative, hardener
D. Clearing agent restrainer, accelerator, acidifier

A

A. Developing agent, accelerator, restrainer

65
Q

What skull projections used determine condylar fracture?

A. Water’s view
B. Submentovertex
C. Transcranial
D. Reverse-Towne’s

A

D. Reverse-Towne’s

66
Q

What is the international unit used for dose equivalent?

A. Coulomb’s per kilogram (C/kg)
B. Gray (Gy)
C. Roentgen (R)
D. Sievert (Sv)

A

D. Sievert (Sv)

67
Q

What is the maximum permissible dose rate (MPD) for occupationally exposed pregnant women?

A. 2.0 rem/year
B. 0.5 rem/year
C. 3.5 rem/year
D. 5.0 rem/year

A

B. 0.5 rem/year

68
Q

What is the most frequent cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious person?

A. Chewing gum
B. Cigarette
C. Tongue
D. Hard candy

A

C. Tongue

69
Q

What is the name of the radiographic technique when the central ray of the cone is directly perpendicular to the
object?

A. Paralleling technique
B. Bisecting technique
C. Submentovertex technique
D. None of the above

A

A. Paralleling technique

70
Q

What is the traditional unit used for dose measurement?

A. Roentgen (R)
B. Roentgen equivalent man (rem)
C. Radiation observed (rad)
D. Gray (Gy)

A

C. Radiation observed (rad)

71
Q

What is the treatment for bony ankylosis of the TMJ?

A. Steroid injections into the joint
B. Occlusal equilibration
C. Surgical procedures
D. Rest, soft diet and hot compress

A

C. Surgical procedures

72
Q

What medication reverses the effects of benzodiazepines?

A. Narcan
B. Naloxone
C. Flumazenil
D. Neostigmine

A

C. Flumazenil

73
Q

When would you place a suture over a single extraction socket?

A. Never
B. Routinely
C. When the patient requests for it
D. When there is severe bleeding from the gingiva or if the gingival cuff is torn

A

D. When there is severe bleeding from the gingiva or if the gingival cuff is torn

74
Q

Which factor determines local anesthetic onset time?

A. Lipid solubility of the anesthetic
B. The percentage of protein binding
C. The presence of a vasoconstrictor
D. The degree of ionization

A

D. The degree of ionization

75
Q

Which is the most common cause of dry mouth?

A. Aging
B. Alcoholism
C. Medication
D. Diabetes

A

C. Medication

76
Q

Which of the following anomalies refers to the joining of two developing tooth germs in the dentinal layer resulting in a single large tooth?

A. Gemination
B. Concrescence
C. Fusion
D. Dilacerations

A

C. Fusion

77
Q

Which of the following are considered primary fascial spaces?

A. Buccal
B. Masticator
C. Canine
D. Submaxillary

A

B. Masticator

78
Q

Which of the following best describes a closed fracture?

A. Lack of bone displacement
B. Intact periosteum
C. Lack of communication between the fracture site and an external surface
D. Overlap of fractural bone edges

A

C. Lack of communication between the fracture site and an external surface

79
Q

Which of the following is a mandibular forceps?

A. 69
B. 240
C. 18L
D. 151

A

D. 151

80
Q

Which of the following is a non-odontogenic cyst which appears like an inverted pear in xray between the mx. Lateral and canine?

A. Traumatic bone cyst
B. Nasolabial cyst
C. Globulomaxillary cyst
D. Nasopalatine cyst

A

C. Globulomaxillary cyst

81
Q

Which of the following is considered the “gold standard” in bone grafting?

A. Autologous bone
B. Allograft
C. Xenograft
D. Alloplast

A

A. Autologous bone

82
Q

Which of the following is most related to congenital syphilis?

A. Hutchinson’s teeth
B. Turner’s tooth
C. Leong’s premolar
D. Taurodontia

A

A. Hutchinson’s teeth

83
Q

Which of the following is the most common error in blood pressure measurement?

A. Applying the blood pressure cuff too loosely
B. Overinflating the blood pressure cuff
C. Underinflating the blood pressure cuff
D. The use of too large or too small cuffs

A

D. The use of too large or too small cuffs

84
Q

Which of the following is the most common technique used for mandibular advancement?

A. Step osteotomy
B. Mandibular ramus split sagittal osteotomy
C. Vertical ramus osteotomy
D. Vertical body osteotomy

A

B. Mandibular ramus split sagittal osteotomy

85
Q

Which of the following occurs only at 70 kVp or higher and accounts for a very small parts of the x-rays produced in
the dental x-ray machine?

A. Characteristic radiation
B. Compton scatter
C. Coherent scatter
D. General radiation

A

A. Characteristic radiation

86
Q

Which of the following refers to bony, exophytic growths that present along the lingual aspect of the mandible
superior to the mylohyoid ridge?

A. Tori mandibularis
B. Torus palatinus
C. Exostoses
D. Epulis

A

A. Tori mandibularis

87
Q

Which of the following refers to hypothyroidism in children?

A. Myxedema
B. Grave’s disease
C. Cretinism
D. Acromegaly

A

C. Cretinism

88
Q

Which of the following relate to the esters group local anesthetics?

I. The esters local anesthetics include novocaine,
procaine, and bupivacaine
II. All are metabolized by the microsomal P450 enzymes of the liver
III. Esters are metabolized by the liver
IV. Esters are metabolized by pseudocholinesterase in the plasma

A. I, II, and III
B. II and IV
C. IV only
D. All the above

A

C. IV only

89
Q

Which of the following structures is a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve?

A. Infraorbital nerve
B. Lingual nerve
C. Nasopalatine nerve
D. Posterosuperior alveolar nerve

A

B. Lingual nerve

90
Q

Which of the following suture materials is classified as nonresorbable?

A. Nylon
B. Vicryl
C. Chromic gut
D. Plain gut

A

A. Nylon

91
Q

Which of the following terms refer to the incision of the lingual frenum?

A. Frenotomy
B. Frenectomy
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

A

A. Frenotomy

NOTES:
Frenectomy-surgical removal of the lingual frenum entirely
Frenotomy-incision of the lingual frenum

92
Q

Which peripheral nerve fibers are the thickest?

A. Motor fibers
B. Pain fibers
C. Autonomic fibers
D. Proprioception fibers

A

A. Motor fibers

93
Q

Which projection is best for examining zygomatic arch fractures?

A. Waters projection
B. Submentovertex projection
C. Reverse Towne projection
D. Lateral cephalometric projection

A

B. Submentovertex projection

94
Q

Which tooth cannot be removed by only rotation motion?

A. Maxillary central incisor
B. Maxillary lateral incisor
C. Maxillary canine
D. Maxillary first premolar

A

D. Maxillary first premolar

95
Q

Why is a conventional handpiece that expels forced air contraindicated when performing dentoalveolar surgery?

A. Too much bone will be removed
B. These handpieces are not high-powered enough to remove bone
C. These handpieces can cause tissue emphysema or an air embolus, which can be fatal
D. All of the above

A

C. These handpieces can cause tissue emphysema or an air embolus, which can be fatal

96
Q

X-linked which is characterized by partial and complete anodontia, cone shaped teeth, and absence of hair and sweat glands

A. Acromegaly
B. Cleidocranial dysplasia
C. Ectodermal dysplasia
D. Osteitis deformans

A

C. Ectodermal dysplasia

97
Q

You are a member of the craniofacial team at the local hospital. As the team dentist, you are approached by the mother of an 8-day-old baby girl. She is curious about the timing of cleft palate repair. What is the appropriate timing of treatment?

A. Rule of tens. When the patient is at least 10 lbs, has 10 mg /dL of hemoglobin, and is at least 10 weeks of
age
B. The palate repair is usually performed between 9 and 18 months of age
C. As soon as possible. Usually between the first week of life and 6 months
D. It only has to be repaired if the baby develops problems with speech

A

B. The palate repair is usually performed between 9 and 18 months of age

98
Q

You are about to provide supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula to a patient sitting in your dental chair with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Although the patient is not in any significant distress, the patient’s pulse oximeter reading is 80%, which is lower than her usual value. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Oxygen supplementation is never indicated in patients with COPD
B. One can provide whatever concentration of supplemental oxygen is required to maintain oxygen saturation above 90%, as measured by pulse oximeter
C. One should administer 100% oxygen by non-rebreather mask to all COPD patients exhibiting even the slightest signs of dyspnea.
D. A nasal cannula is not an appropriate method for administration of supplemental oxygen in this case

A

B. One can provide whatever concentration of supplemental oxygen is required to maintain oxygen saturation above 90%, as measured by pulse oximetrr

99
Q

You are performing full-mouth extractions for a patient when he starts to complain of tinnitus, circumoral numbness, and appear drowsy. What do you do next?

A. Discontinue the procedure; monitor the patient for local anesthetic toxicity
B. You continue with the procedure because the patient is likely anxious
C. Discontinue the procedure and send the patient home
D. The patient is probably feeling some pain and is anxious. The patient needs more local anesthetic

A

A. Discontinue the procedure; monitor the patient for local anesthetic toxicity

100
Q

Your assistant has processed 3 panoramic films today. She noticed the films are progressively getting lighter and
lighter. What should be done to correct the problem?

A. Decrease the temperature of the developer
B. Increase the temperature of the fixer
C. Replenish the developer
D. Process the films a second time

A

C. Replenish the developer

1. UP- PREBOARDS (9 decks)

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