Juries-Ethics-Prac Man Flashcards

1
Q

“the end justifies the means” you are thinking as an

A. Theorist
B. Deontologist
C. Legalist
D. Utilitarian

A

D. Utilitarian

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2
Q

A contract does not mean the following

A. A meeting of two minds
B. Maybe implied or expressed
C. Outside the commerce of men
D. Creates obligations

A

C. Outside the commerce of men

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3
Q

A dentist can attain a successful practice even in an area with stiff competition if he takes the following approaches and
attitudes, except:

A. Excellent patient-dentist relations
B. Unreasonable fees
C. Commendable dental service
D. Patience and durability

A

B. Unreasonable fees

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4
Q

A dentist fails to deliver an immediate denture to a patient, causing him social humiliation and mental anguish. The dentist may be charged with:

A. Actual damage
B. Nominal damage
C. Moral damage
D. Temperate damage

A

C. Moral damage

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5
Q

A dentist lent his friend a jeepney knowing that the friend intends to commit a crime. The dentist is

A. A principal
B. An accessory
C. An accomplice
D. Civilly liable

A

C. An accomplice

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6
Q

A dentist practicing general dentistry referred a patient to a periodontist for specific treatment. However, the said specialist
restored amalgam fillings. What should have been done?

A. Call up the general dentist to inform what was done
B. Refer back the patient for restorations
C. Ask the consent of the patient before doing it
D. None of the above

A

B. Refer back the patient for restorations

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7
Q

A dentist should pay his occupation tax to:

A. The national government
B. The province where he practices his profession
C. The municipality/city where he practices his profession
D. PRC

A

B. The province where he practices his profession

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8
Q

A dentist who commits malpractice on a charity patient is

A. Legally liable
B. Not legally liable
C. Magnanimous
D. Under no obligation

A

A. Legally liable

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9
Q

A dentist who is issuing bouncing check is guilty of

A. Estafa
B. Respondent superior
C. Negligence
D. Financial assault

A

A. Estafa

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10
Q

A fact information obtained by a dentist from a patient related to dental practice could not be a subject testimony, nor
revealed during a trial of a civil case with the patient’s consent. This known
as

A. Privileged communication
B. Privileges-fact
C. Civil communication
D. Unlawful information

A

A. Privileged communication

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11
Q

A form of dental practice artificial being created by operation of law, having the right of succession and the powers, attributes
and properties expressly authorized by law.

A. Solo practice
B. Group practice
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

A

D. Corporation

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12
Q

A kind of obligation where the acquisition of rights as well as extinguishment or loss of those already acquired depends upon
the happening of an event

A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
C. Alternative obligation
D. Conditional obligation

A

D. Conditional obligation

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13
Q

A legal doctrine which means that an event which cannot be foreseen, or which through foreseen, is inevitable?

A. Res ipsa loquitur
B. Respondeat superior
C. Stare decisis
D. Force majeure

A

D. Force majeure

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14
Q

A nature or effect of obligations which is the failure to do will results in the execution of the act obliged, at his expense

A. Obligation to do
B. Obligation to give
C. Obligation to act
D. Obligation not to do

A

A. Obligation to do

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15
Q

A person who is criminally liable or had knowledge of the crime and takes part subsequent thereto is liable

A. Principals
B. Accessories
C. Accomplices
D. Constitution

A

B. Accessories

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16
Q

A professional fee measured by the space and time and not the quantity or quality of dental services rendered

A. Simple contractual fee
B. Contingent fee
C. Retainer fee
D. Commission

A

C. Retainer fee

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17
Q

A type of commission of felonies where all the elements necessary for execution and accomplishment are present

A. Dolo
B. Consummated
C. Frustrated
D. Attempted

A

B. Consummated

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18
Q

A type of defective contract when for example it is entered into in name of person who did not give authority or legal
representation

A. Rescissible contract
B. Voidable contract
C. Unenforceable contract
D. Void or inexistent contract

A

C. Unenforceable contract

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19
Q

An affidavit of complaint and rejoinders in the city is filed first with the office of

A. Supreme court
B. Court of appeals
C. Prosecutor
D. Regional trial court

A

C. Prosecutor

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20
Q

An offer to settle out of court been considered by the court as

A. No admission of guilt in imprudence cases
B. Criteria of default
C. Expressed contract
D. An admission of guilt

A

A. No admission of guilt in imprudence cases

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21
Q

Announcements in print, websites and other electronic forms of media should be posted within ___ days from the date of
opening.

A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 60

A

B. 30

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22
Q

Color coding of containers assigned to radioactive waste

A. Yellow bag
B. Puncture proof bag
C. Red bag
D. Orange bag

A

D. Orange bag

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23
Q

Common law is based on all of the following EXCEPT

A. Effort
B. Statutory
C. Customs
D. Previous court decision

A

A. Effort

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24
Q

Consent is obtained by taking improper advantage of his power over the will of another, depriving him of reasonable freedom
of choice

A. Undue influence
B. Mistake
C. Violence
D. Intimidation

A

A. Undue influence

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25
Defined as a person criminally liable for taking a direct part in executing criminal act A. Accomplice B. Accessory C. Principal D. Arresto mayor
C. Principal
26
Defines as an order than a court or a legislature which affects the rights or private parties through adjudication or rule making Jurisdiction A. Jurisdiction B. Government commission C. Administrative agency D. Office attached to the president
C. Administrative agency
27
Dental prosthetic laboratories have been required to register and be licensed since A. The republic B. The commonwealth C. The restored democracy D. The martial law regime
D. The martial law regime
28
Dental radiographs are the legal property of the A. Patient B. State C. Dentist D. None of the above
C. Dentist
29
Dentist licensure examination are given A. Once a year B. Twice a year C. Thrice a year D. Depends on PRC
B. Twice a year
30
Dentist prefer urban practice for the ff reasons except: A. Trained employees are easier to find B. Availability of specialists C. It is easier to specialize D. Living expenses are higher
D. Living expenses are higher
31
For his prescribing of Ativan to a patient, as assistant hygienist may be sued for A. Negligence B. Illegal practice C. Malpractice D. Incorrigibility
B. Illegal practice
32
From the following, select the ethical principles found in the code of ethics. A. Tolerance B. Compassion C. Beneficence D. Integrity
C. Beneficence
33
If a dentist finds evidence of previously faulty treatment done by another dentist, he should A. Refuse to have anything to do with the patient B. Refer the patient back to the previous dentist C. Tell the patient about the faulty treatment D. Institute the correct treatment
D. Institute the correct treatment
34
If a dentist includes his name in the directory of his office building, the lettering he uses must be: A. 8cm x 8cm B. The size of the lettering regularly used by other residents in the district C. The size of lettering regularly used by other tenants in the building D. 16cm x 16cm
C. The size of lettering regularly used by other tenants in the building
35
If the patient failed to pay his fee for dental treatment, this is a: A. Common law fact B. Contributory negligence C. Tort D. Breach of contract
D. Breach of contract
36
In a health center, a dentist was sued by the patient, fortunately the patient's father withdrew the case. Administratively, the dentist was given a warning for A. Mandamus B. Accountability C. Management D. Leadership
B. Accountability
37
In case the treatment of the dentist for a specific case fails, he can still be paid if the degree of failure is A. Accepted by the patient B. Not shared with the patient C. Shared with the patient D. Not accepted by the patient
A. Accepted by the patient
38
In cased another dentist mismanaged a patient, the attending dentist shall A. Return patient to first dentist without doing anything B. Do corrective treatment without unnecessary criticism C. Issue not of importance D. Do corrective treatment with unnecessary criticism
B. Do corrective treatment without unnecessary criticism
39
In order to be admitted to the licensure examination for dental hygienists, an applicant must at the time of filling his application establish to the satisfaction of the Board the following, except: A. He/she is a citizen of the Philippines B. He/she possess good moral character C. He/she had finished the two years certificate in dental hygiene conferred by a recognized and legally constituted college or school of dentistry registered with the CHED D. He/she completed the refresher course required after failing three consecutive licensure examinations
C. He/she had finished the two years certificate in dental hygiene conferred by a recognized and legally constituted college or school of dentistry registered with the CHED
40
In proportion to the facade of the dental clinic, the signage should have a width of A. 1/2 B. 1/4 C. 1/8 D. 1/3
D. 1/3
41
Known as the "Philippine Dental Hygienist Law" which regulates practice of dental hygienists A. R.A. No. 723 B. R.A. No. 746 C. R.A. No. 793 D. R.A. No. 768
D. R.A. No. 768
42
Known as the Philippine Dental Act of 1965 A. 1082 B. 4419 C. 1891 D. 768
B. 4419
43
Labor code states that the regular working hours for dental employees per week A. 50 hrs B. 36 hrs C. 48 hrs D. 40 hrs
D. 40 hrs
44
Obligations may be extinguished by the following methods EXCEPT A. Novation B. Compensation C. Absence of mutual asset D. Condonation of debt
C. Absence of mutual asset
45
Process directed to a person requiring him to attend and to testify at the hearing or the trial of an action or any investigation conducted by the competent authority or for the taking or deposition A. Certiorari B. Subpoena C. Preliminary injunction D. Mandamus
B. Subpoena
46
RA No. 480 provided that dentists who join the AFP shall have a rank of A. First lieutenant B. Second lieutenant C. Sergeant D. Lieutenant colonel
A. First lieutenant
47
RA 6675 is also known as the A. First dental law B. Dangerous drug act C. Generic act of 1988 D. Third dental law
C. Generic act of 1988
48
Republic Act 9165 is also knows as which act/law? A. First Dental Law B. Generic Act of 1988 C. Third Dental Law D. Dangerous Drug Act
D. Dangerous Drug Act
49
The act of setting goals and targets A. Management B. Planning C. Controlling D. Organizing
B. Planning
50
The best advantage of solo practice is A. Lees overhead expenses B. No sharing of staff C. One policy decision D. Own privacy and independent decision making
D. Own privacy and independent decision making
51
The best and honorable means by which a dentist may make known and advance his reputation for skill in the practice of dentistry is through: A. By advertising in the newspaper B. By his/her satisfied patient C. By employing agent D. By his/her well equipped dental clinic.
B. By his/her satisfied patient
52
The best form of dental records are A. Pictures B. Computer data C. Written data D. Tape recorders
C. Written data
53
The chairman of the council on dental education is the A. Dean of the college of dentistry B. Secretary of education, culture and sports C. Secretary of science and technology D. Chairman of board of dentistry
B. Secretary of education, culture and sports
54
The council for advancement of dental research has its chairman A. The president of the PDA B. The chairman of the board of dentistry C. The secretary of science and technology D. The secretary of education
C. The secretary of science and technology
55
The entire concept of ethics can be summed up in the main thought of this principle A. Stoicism B. Darwinism C. Morgan's rule D. Golden rule
D. Golden rule
56
The financial compensation received by the members of the Board of Dentistry is A. Commission B. Salary C. Reward D. Honorarium
D. Honorarium
57
The following are elements of an obligation EXCEPT A. Vinculum B. Oblige C. Obligor D. Presentiment
D. Presentiment
58
The following are qualifications for membership for the Board of Dentistry EXCEPT A. Duly registered dentist of the Philippines B. Not a faculty member of the school C. Philippine dental association membership for 10 years D. Natural born citizen and resident of the Philippines
C. Philippine dental association membership for 10 years
59
The law which comprises all the legal rules and principles affecting the practice of dentistry A. PRC law B. Public health law C. Commissioner law D. Dental jurisprudence
D. Dental jurisprudence
60
The loss of a patient of a good left upper central incisor is a A. Simple imprudence B. Serious physical injury C. Reckless imprudence D. Light felony
B. Serious physical injury
61
The Philippine Bureau of Health Services was established under the Ministry of Health in 1963. This Bureau was abolished in A. February 8, 1982 B. January 30, 1987 C. April 7, 1948 D. October 15, 2000
B. January 30, 1987
62
The prescriber of prohibited and regulated drugs as approved by the Dangerous Drug Board (DDB) must have A. S-2 license B. S-2 and H-2 license C. H-2 license D. None of the above
A. S-2 license
63
The professional identification card (given that payments and requirements are submitted), shall be renewed ____: A. Every year B. Every 2 years C. Every 3 years D. Every 4 years
C. Every 3 years
64
The Professional Regulation Commission was created under: A. Republic Act 4419 B. Presidential Decree 123 C. Presidential Decree 223 D. None of the above
C. Presidential Decree 223
65
The right of the dentist to demand payment for his professional fees from his patient is called: A. Commercial right B. Right in Personam C. Administrative Right D. Civil Right
B. Right in Personam
66
The scope of examination given to licensure applicants for dentists includes the following, except: A. General anatomy, oral anatomy, general and microscopic anatomy and embryology, general and oral physiology, general and oral pathology, pharmacology, microbiology, nutrition B. Dental materials, restorative dentistry, prosthodontics, orthodontics, pedodontics, pediatric dentistry, oral physiology, anesthesiology C. Biochemistry, principles of medicine, forensic dentistry, geriatric dentistry D. Oral diagnosis and treatment planning, endodontics, periodontics, roentgenology, oral surgery
C. Biochemistry, principles of medicine, forensic dentistry, geriatric dentistry
67
The simple breaking of needle is A. Evidence of negligence B. An approved practice C. Malpractice act D. Generally, not negligence
D. Generally, not negligence
68
The stage of contract where the meeting of the minds between two persons whereby one binds himself, with respect to the other, to give something or to render service A. Perfection B. Negotiation C. Absolute D. Acceptance
A. Perfection
69
The study of all factors that relate to the quality and quantity of dental care delivered in comparison to the amount generated in the process is called A. Ergonomics B. Total dental care C. Quality control D. Fatigue control
C. Quality control
70
This branch of law defines the rights of the state and regulate its relations with its citizens A. Law of public officers B. Criminal law C. Political law D. Public law
D. Public law
71
This is an advantage of solo practice A. Responsibility for entire overhead B. Lower initial income C. Limited opportunity to consult and share experience D. Greater production motivation
D. Greater production motivation
72
This serve as the nerve center of the dental practice serving as a hub of all activities A. Business office B. Treatment area C. Laboratory D. Reception area
B. Treatment area
73
This term refers to an occupation which provides highly specialized, intellectual services which possess three principal features A. License B. Profession C. Business D. Livelihood
B. Profession
74
Under normal conditions, late examinees may be admitted if tardiness does not exceed A. 10 minutes and no examinees has finished taking the examination B. 20 minutes regardless whether an examinee has left or not C. 30 minutes provided that no examined has submitted his paper D. None of the above
C. 30 minutes provided that no examined has submitted his paper
75
Under the doctrine of respondent superior a dentist is liable of the acts of his A. Employee B. Assistant C. Junior partner D. All of the above
D. All of the above
76
Violation of the provisions of the Dental Act of 1965 relative the practice of dentistry in the Philippines shall be guilty of: A. Malpractice B. Illegal practice C. Misdemeanor D. Moral turpitude
C. Misdemeanor
77
What is another name for oral defamation? A. Libel B. Gossip C. Slander D. Any of the terms above
C. Slander
78
What is the penalty for violation of Republic Act No. 9484? A. Fine of P100,000-P200,000 and/or imprisonment for 6 months and one day to 5 years B. Fine of P100,000-P200,000 and/or imprisonment for 12 months and one day to 5 years C. Fine of P200,000-P500,000 and/or imprisonment for 12 months and one day to 5 years D. Fine of P200,000-P500,000 and/or imprisonment for 24 months and one day to 5 years
D. Fine of P200,000-P500,000 and/or imprisonment for 24 months and one day to 5 years
79
When resources are scarce and treatment is allocated only to those who have earned it, this is an example of distributive justice based on A. Effort B. Contributing C. Merit D. Equity
C. Merit
80
Whether a dentist should take x-rays before initiating a series of treatment is a matter of: A. Professional judgment B. Ethics C. Jurisprudence D. Personal judgment
A. Professional judgment
81
Which branch of law prescribes the means to be used to enforce a right of a person or to redress a wrong or injury inflicted on a person? A. Constitutional law B. Civil law C. Administrative law D. Remedial law
D. Remedial law
82
Which legal doctrine states "let the master or superior answer"? A. Respondeat superior B. Force majeure C. Res ipsa loquitur D. Stare decisis
A. Respondeat superior
83
Which of the following factors should be considered last when a dentist is planning to standardize his/her fees? A. Availability of another experts in the area B. His own level of skill C. Nature of case and materials used D. Capacity of the patient to pay
A. Availability of another experts in the area
84
Which of the following is a business tax imposed and collected from the seller in the course of trade or business on every sale of property, lease of goods, or vendors of services and can be passed on to the buyer? A. Income tax B. Withholding tax on compensation C. Value added tax D. Percentage tax
C. Value added tax
85
Which of the following is a type of contract complied with both satisfaction of both parties? A. Consummated B. Compulsory C. Perfection D. Preparatory
A. Consummated
86
Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of being an associate/employee? A. Reduced potential savings B. Compliance with policies set by owners C. Little control over practice affairs D. Full responsibility in terms of expenses on supplies, equipment and personnel
D. Full responsibility in terms of expenses on supplies, equipment and personnel
87
Which of the following is NOT a requisite of contracts? A. Cause of the obligation which is established B. Consent of the contracting parties C. Changing their object or principal conditions D. Object certain which is the subject matter of the contract
C. Changing their object or principal conditions
88
Which of the following is NOT a source of law? A. Superstitious beliefs B. Constitution C. Administrative orders D. Custom
A. Superstitious beliefs
89
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of having a solo clinical practice? A. Maximum privacy of one's own conduct B. Freedom to work too much or little without mental reservations C. Sharing of financial risks and initial capital investment D. Income potential is greater after becoming established in practice
C. Sharing of financial risks and initial capital investment
90
Which of the following is the act prohibiting the demand of deposits or advance payment of 1997? A. R.A. No. 8344 B. R.A. No. 169 C. R.A. No. 6615 D. R.A. No. 5921
A. R.A. No. 8344
91
Which of the following is the best and most honorable way by which a dentist may make his practice known and advance his reputation? A. Through an agent B. Through newspaper advertisement C. By satisfying his/her patients D. Through social media posts
C. By satisfying his/her patients
92
Which of the following is the first dental law in the Philippines? A. RA 593 B. RA 487 C. RA 539 D. RA 4419
A. RA 593
93
Which of the following refers to the cost/expenses of operating a business, such as a dental clinic? A. Expense B. Overhead C. Net profit D. Fixed cost
B. Overhead
94
Which of the following refers to the power to extract a fee on a product, income, activity, for public purposes? A. Eminent domain B. Taxation C. Police power D. Obligation
B. Taxation
95
Which of the following refers to wrongful act which results from imprudence, negligence, lack of foresight or skill? A. Dolo B. Delitos C. Culpa D. Certiorary
C. Culpa NOTES: Dolo: Decit (Ex: Murder, Rape), intentional Culpa: due to imprudence, negligence, lack of foresight or skill, unintentional
96
Which of the following states that a dentist has a duty to respect the patient's right to self-determination and confidentiality? A. Patient autonomy B. Justice C. Veracity D. Non-maleficence
A. Patient autonomy
97
Which of the following terms refer to an act performed with deliberate intent? A. Dolo B. Delitos C. Culpa D. Certiorar
A. Dolo
98
Which of the following terms refer to the characteristic of criminal law such that it applies to all persons that commit felonies in Philippine territory except for treaty stipulations, laws of preferential application and principles of public international law? A. General B. Territorial C. Prospective D. Consummated
A. General
99
Which of the following type of laws pertains to organization of family and regulation of property? A. Constitutional law B. Civil law C. Criminal law D. Labor law
B. Civil law
100
Who approves the issuance of certificate of registration as a dentist to an applicant? A. Commissioner of PRC B. President of the Philippines C. Secretary of DepEd and CHED D. President of the Philippines and Commissioner of PRC
D. President of the Philippines and Commissioner of PRC