Endo-Perio Flashcards

1
Q

A 44-year-old patient presents a third of the dentition with 5 mm of clinical attachment loss, bleeding upon probing, none of the teeth being mobile, and probing depths ranging between 4 and 6 mm. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Localized chronic moderate periodontitis
B. Generalized chronic severe periodontitis
C. Localized chronic severe periodontitis
D. Generalized chronic moderate periodontitis

A

B. Generalized chronic severe periodontitis

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2
Q

A 7-year-old patient presents to your office for an emergency visit with a traumatic exposure of tooth #11. The treatment of choice for this patient is:

A. Root-end closure procedure/apexification
B. Traditional root canal therapy
C. Vital pulp therapy/apexogenesis
D. Partial pulpectomy

A

C. Vital pulp therapy/apexogenesis

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3
Q

A 9-year-old patient has avulsed tooth #21 in a playground accident. His mother has recovered the tooth and has called to ask how it should be stored while she gets her son to your office. The best way to store an avulsed tooth for the best prognosis is

A. Tap water
B. Saline
C. Saliva
D. Milk

A

D. Milk

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4
Q

A mandibular 1st molar has 4 canals. How should the access opening be?

A. Round
B. Oval
C. Triangular
D. Trapezoidal

A

D. Trapezoidal

NOTES:
MAX➖MAND
CI: Δ ➖ ⬭
LI: Δ /⬭➖ ⬭
C: ⬭➖ ⬭
PM: ⬭➖ ⬭
M: Δ / Rhomboid➖Trapezoid

The pulp chamber shape will dictate the shape of the access preparation.

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5
Q

A maxillary first molar to be endodontically treated has 4 canals. Where is the 4th canal orifice located?

A. Palatal to the orifice of the mesiobuccal canal
B. Close to the orifice of the palatal canal
C. Close to the orifice of the distobuccal canal
D. Under the mesiobuccal cusp

A

A. Palatal to the orifice of the mesiobuccal canal

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6
Q

A patient complains of limited pain on the upper right quadrant caused by sweets and cold. Examination reveals carious lesions on the 2nd premolar. Vitality test and radiographs are normal. The diagnosis is most probably

A. Necrosis
B. Reversible pulpitis
C. Irreversible pulpitis
D. Necrosis

A

B. Reversible pulpitis

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7
Q

A patient presents to your office for an initial maintenance visit and you prescribe a full series of radiographs. During interpretation, you note as an incidental finding a periapical radiolucency on the mesial root of tooth #19. The tooth is restored with an intact amalgam MO restoration with intact margins and no signs of leakage or recurrent caries. The tooth is asymptomatic and responds normally to all vitality testing. Your patient has indicated a history of cancer in his medical history. The proper course of action in this case is

A. Pulpotomy
B. Root canal therapy
C. Extraction
D. Biopsy the lesion

A

D. Biopsy the lesion

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8
Q

A patient presents to your office for initial examination. A root canal procedure had been completed on tooth #16 a year prior. Upon clinical examination, you observe a narrow periodontal pocket measuring the full length of your probe in the area of the mesial root. Upon radiographic examination, you detect a J-shaped radiolucency surrounding the mesial root. Your initial diagnosis is

A. Ledging of the mesial root
B. Underobturation of the mesial root
C. Periodontal abscess
D. Vertical fracture of the mesial root

A

D. Vertical fracture of the mesial root

NOTES:
Vertical root fracture: teardrop- shaped, J-shaped, or halolike radiolucency.

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9
Q

A patient presents to your office with a fractured tooth #21. The fracture involves enamel, dentin, and pulp. This fracture can be classified as

A. Complicated crown fracture
B. Root fracture
C. Crown-root fracture
D. Uncomplicated crown fracture

A

A. Complicated crown fracture

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10
Q

A patient received a large MOD composite restoration 1 week ago. She is now experiencing intense, spontaneous pain, with exacerbation of symptoms occurring when she applies heat or cold or when she eats sweets. The pulpal diagnosis is

A. Acute periapical periodontitis
B. Reversible pulpitis
C. Traumatic occlusion
D. Irreversible pulpitis

A

D. Irreversible Pulpitis

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11
Q

A periapical film of tooth #21 was obtained in preparation for a root canal and an initial measurement for length of the canal was performed. After initial debridement of the canal was performed, another x-ray was captured with the initial root length measured and it appears that the file is approximately 4 mm from the apex. How could we have obtained a more accurate initial length measurement?

A. Increasing the vertical angulation of the cone in relation to the film
B. Decreasing the horizontal angulation of the cone in relation to the film
C. Decreasing the vertical angulation of the cone in relation to the film
D. Increasing the horizontal angulation of the cone in relation to the film

A

C. Decreasing the vertical angulation of the cone in relation to the film

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12
Q

A radicular cyst is always associated with

A. Deep cavity
B. Vital tooth
C. Pericoronal infection
D. Non-vital tooth

A

D. Non-vital tooth

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13
Q

A stainless steel endodontic file #50 is in color

A. White
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Yellow

A

D. Yellow

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14
Q

A/An __________ of the saliva causes precipitation of calcium phosphate salts by lowering the precipitation constants.

A. Increase in the pH
B. Decrease in the pH
C. Decrease in the viscosity
D. Increase in the viscosity

A

A. Increase in the pH

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15
Q

According to Miller’s index, a tooth has class II mobility when

A. Movement of greater than 1 mm in any direction
B. Movement of greater than 1 mm in any direction and it can be depressed vertically
C. Movement of less than 0.5 mm in any direction
D. Movement of less than 1 mm in any direction

A

A. Movement of greater than 1 mm in any direction

NOTES:
MILLER’S INDEX
Grade I – horizontal mobility <1mm.
Grade II – horizontal mobility >1mm.
Grade III – horizontal mobility >2mm and/or vertical mobility

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16
Q

Air is used to deflect the free gingival margin to detect:

A. The CEJ
B. Smooth root surfaces
C. Subgingival calculus
D. Inflammation

A

C. Subgingival calculus

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17
Q

An Asian patient presents to your office with pain bilaterally in her lower second premolars. Both teeth are sensitive to percussion and show periapical radiolucencies on radiographic examination. The teeth do not respond to either cold or electric pulp tests. There is an irregular bulge on the occlusal surfaces of each tooth. The most likely diagnosis is

A. Irreversible pulpitis
B. Dens invaginatus
C. Dens evaginatus
D. Pulp stones

A

C. Dens evaginatus (Leong’s premolar)

NOTES:
DEN EVAGINATUS
Talon’s cusp- extra cusp usually on the lingual surface of the anterior teeth
Leong’s Premolar- more common, anomalous tubercle or cusp located in the center of the occlusal surface of PMs.

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18
Q

An injury to the tooth supporting structures resulting in increased mobility, but without displacement of the tooth

A. Concussion
B. Subluxation
C. Extrusion
D. Intrusion

A

B. Subluxation

NOTES:
Subluxation: The tooth is LOOSENED but not displaced.
Extrusion: The tooth is PARTIALLY extruded from its socket.
Avulsion: The tooth is COMPLETELY extruded from its socket.
Concussion: NO DISPLACEMENT, normal mobility, sensitive to percussion.

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19
Q

An obturation technique used in most clinical situation because it provides good length control but may not fill canal irregularities

A. Cold lateral compaction technique
B. Softened cone technique
C. Warm lateral compaction technique
D. Warm vertical compaction technique

A

A. Cold lateral compaction technique

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20
Q

Angular defects are classified on the basis of

A. The number of osseous walls that were destroyed by periodontal disease
B. The number of osseous walls left surrounding the tooth
C. The number of osseous walls that will remain after surgery
D. Periodontal probe readings

A

B. The number of osseous walls left surrounding the tooth

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21
Q

Calculus should be removed because:

A. A retention site for bacterial plaque
B. It abrades the soft tissue of the gingival
C. Interferes with the attachment of junctional epithelium
D. Maybe located inside the connective tissue causing inflammation

A

A. A retention site for bacterial plaque

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22
Q

Clockwise quarter rotation pulled followed by a pull motion of the instrument

A. Reaming motion
B. Watch winding
C. Filing motion
D. Balanced force

A

A. Reaming motion

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23
Q

Dental plaque is composed primarily of

A. Microorganisms
B. Water
C. Minerals
D. Tissue cells

A

A. Microorganisms

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24
Q

During instrumentation of tooth #36, you realize that you are unable to negotiate your file to the complete working length. The procedural error that has occurred is most likely

A. Vertical root fracture
B. Inadequate straight line access
C. Ledging
D. Instrument separation

A

C. Ledging

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25
Endodontically treated teeth that have been restored with a cast post and core, and crown, are subjected to the high incidence of: A. Periodontal disease B. Dental caries C. Vertical root fracture D. The need for apicoectomy
C. Vertical root fracture
26
For an edentulous maxilla with an overdenture as final restoration, what is the minimum number of implants to be placed? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
B. 4
27
For patients affected with gingivitis, what is the recommended interval for maintenance appointments? A. 1 month B. 3 months C. 6 months D. 1 year
C. 6 months NOTES: GINGIVITIS- 6 months PERIODONTITIS- 3 months
28
Furcation involvement is measured by A. Naber's probe B. WHO probe C. Michigan O probe D. CPITN probe
A. Naber's probe
29
Furcation involvements (Goldman, H.M) have been classified as grades I, II, and III according to the amount of tissue destruction. Grade II is A. Incipient bone loss B. Partial bone loss (cul-de-sac) C. Total bone loss with through-and-through opening of the furcation D. Similar to the above, but with gingival recession exposing the furcation to view
B. Partial bone loss (cul-de-sac) NOTES: Grade I – Incipient bone loss. – Furcation probe can feel the depression of the furcation opening. Grade II (Cul-de-sac) – Partial bone loss. – Probe tip enters under the roof of furcation. Grade III – Total bone loss with through and through opening of the furcation. The furcation entrance is not visible clinically. Grade IV – Grade III furcation where the furcation entrance is visible clinically.
30
Gingival fibers consist of A. Type I collagen B. Type II collagen C. Type III collagen D. Type IV collagen
A. Type I collagen
31
Gutta percha tracing is usually done with which of the following cases? A. Symptomatic apical periodontitis B. Acute periapical abscess C. Chronic apical abscess D. None of the above
C. Chronic apical abscess
32
How are endodontic files sterilized? A. Dry heat sterilization for 1 ½ hours B. Autoclave for 20 minutes C. Immerse for 1 minute in full strength NaOCl D. Glass bead sterilization for 15 seconds
D. Glass bead sterilization for 15 seconds
33
How are gutta percha points sterilized? A. Dry heat sterilization for 1 ½ hours B. Immerse for 1 minute in full strength NaOCl C. Autoclave for 20 minutes D. Glass bead sterilization for 15 seconds
B. Immerse for 1 minute in full strength NaOCl
34
How should a periodontal probe be adapted in an interproximal area? A. It should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth at the point angle B. It should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth at the contact area C. It should be perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth in front of the contact area D. It should touch the contact area and the tip should angle slightly beneath and beyond the contact area
D. It should touch the contact area and the tip should angle slightly beneath and beyond the contact area
35
Ideally, flossing should be done: A. Several times a week B. Whenever food becomes impacted C. When periodontal disease is present D. Daily
D. Daily
36
In combined endodontic-periodontic lesions, it is generally wise to treat A. The periodontic component first B. The endodontic component first C. Both components at the same time D. Them any way you want to
B. The endodontic component first
37
In infrabony pockets A. The bone loss is horizontal in nature B. The bone loss is vertical in nature C. Transseptal fibers are horizontal D. Supracrestal fibers follow the normal bone contour
B. The bone loss is vertical in nature NOTES: PERIODONTAL POCKET/ TRUE POCKET - There is loss of attachment. PSEUDOPOCKET/ GINGIVAL POCKET - Gingiva migrates coronally but there is no clinical attachment loss. SUPRABONY POCKET/ SUPRACRESTAL/ SUPRA ALVEOLAR - The base of the pocket is more coronal than crest of alveolar bone (horizontal pattern of bone loss) INFRABONY POCKET/SUBCRESTAL/ INTRA ALVEOLAR (Vertical bone loss) - The base of pocket is more apical than base of alveolar bone.
38
In replanting avulsed tooth, the most critical factor in preventing root resorption is A. Cleanliness of root surface B. Time elapsed prior to replanting the tooth C. Filling the root canal prior to replantation D. Presence or absence of an open apical foramen
B. Time elapsed prior to replanting the tooth
39
In the treatment of a patient with periodontal disease, prognosis is poor when A. Malocclusion is present B. Patient is uncooperative C. Severe gingival inflammation is present D. Periodontal pockets 5mm in depth is present
B. Patient is uncooperative
40
It is used to check and ensure that the roof of the chamber has been completely removed A. Endodontic spoon excavator B. Endodontic explorer C. Regular explorer D. Flexible periodontal probe
C. Regular explorer
41
Microorganisms that colonize the periodontal abscess have been reported to be primarily A. Gram-positive aerobic cocci B. Gram-negative aerobic rods C. Gram-negative anaerobic rods D. Gram-positive anaerobic cocci
C. Gram-negative anaerobic rods
42
Of the choices listed below, which one describes the boundaries that define the attached gingiva? A. From the gingival margin to the interdental groove B. From the free gingival groove to the gingival margin C. From the mucogingival junction to the free gingival groove D. From the epithelial attachment to the cementoenamel junction
C. From the mucogingival junction to the free gingival groove NOTES: Alveolar Mucosa ➖➖➖➖➖➖ MGJ Attatched Gingiva ➖➖➖➖➖➖FGG Unattached Gingiva ➖➖➖➖➖➖GM
43
One of the most serious procedural errors that can occur during root canal therapy is instrument aspiration. What is the most important precaution an operator can take to prevent instrument aspiration? A. Only use rotary files B. Use adequate lubrication during instrumentation C. Recapitulate between each file D. Proper rubber dam isolation
D. Proper rubber dam isolation
44
Overextended gutta percha should be removed: A. By pulling it out or surgical removal B. With ultrasonic C. With rotary instruments D. With solvents
A. By pulling it out or surgical removal
45
Periodontitis can be associated with all of the following except: A. Bleeding upon probing B. Increased gingival exudate C. Elevated sulcular temperature D. Attachment and bone loss that is not progressing
D. Attachment and bone loss that is NOT progressing❌
46
Periodontitis that does not resolve with treatment is termed as: A. Aggressive periodontitis B. Chronic periodontitis C. Refractory periodontitis D. Juvenile periodontitis
C. Refractory periodontitis
47
Removal of the coronal portion of a vital pulp from a tooth A. Root canal treatment B. Apicoectomy C. Pulpotomy D. Pulpectomy
C. Pulpotomy
48
Root canal therapy is completed on a mandibular first molar and closed temporarily with a cotton pellet and a temporary sealing material, with plans for a definitive restoration to be placed as soon as possible. What is the most important factor in ensuring the success of the procedure? A. Type of definitive restoration B. Type of temporary sealing material C. Marginal integrity of definitive restoration D. Placement of a pots
C. Marginal integrity of definitive restoration
49
Some degree of curettage is done unintentionally when scaling and root planing are performed; this is called inadvertent curettage. Curettage accomplishes the removal of the chronically inflamed granulation tissue that forms in the lateral wall of the periodontal pocket. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true
A. Both statements are true
50
Specific bacteria are implicated in periodontal disease and are commonly found at the site of infection. The Red complex bacteria consist of the following EXCEPT A. Porphyromonas gingivalis B. Tannerella forsythia C. Treponema denticola D. Eikenella corrodens
D. Eikenella corrodens❌
51
The best immediate treatment for a bruxism problem is: A. Psychiatric counselling B. Use of occlusal night guard C. Temporary splinting of teeth D. None of the above
B. Use of occlusal night guard
52
The calcified bodies sometimes found in the periodontal ligament are best described as which of the following? A. Cementicles B. Bone C. Denticles D. Enamel pearls
A. Cementicles
53
The diagnosis of early necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is BEST made on the basis of A. Biopsy B. Low grade fever C. Ulceration of the interdental papilla D. Ulceration in the alveolar mucosa
C. Ulceration of the interdental papilla NOTES: Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis (NUG) - " punched out grayish pseudomembranous of interdental papilla" - Characterized by interproximal necrosis and pseudomembrane formation on marginal tissues.
54
The main advantage of zinc oxide-eugenol based sealer type is A. Non-staining property B. Insolubility C. Long history of successful usage D. Adhesion
C. Long history of successful usage
55
The main benefit of primary incisor replantation is A. To relieve parental guilt B. Maintenance of normal anterior dentition C. To maintain child's esteem D. To maintain child's social acceptance
B. Maintenance of normal anterior dentition
56
The major role of initial cause-related therapy is: A. Elimination or control of all etiologic factors B. Removal of calculus C. Alleviation of all emergency problems D. None of the above
A. Elimination or control of all etiologic factors
57
The most acceptable method to achieve adequate root canal debridement is A. To obtain clean shavings of the canal B. To achieve glassy smooth walls of the canal C. To attain a clean irrigating solution D. None of the above
B. To achieve glassy smooth walls of the canal
58
The most effective means to eliminate root canal infection is A. Systemic antibiotic coverage B. Complete debridement of the root canal C. Warm saline rinses D. Root canal medication with a nonspecific drug
B. Complete debridement of the root canal
59
The probability of the test being positive when the disease is present A. Sensitivity B. Specificity C. Positive predictive value D. Negative predictive value
A. Sensitivity NOTES: Sensitivity (Sensi+ivi+y): positive, with disease Specificity: negative, without disease
60
This brushing technique is recommended in patients with progressing recession and exposed root A. Modified Stillman's method B. Modified Bass method C. Charter's method D. Roll method
A. Modified Stillman's method NOTES: BASS - 45 degrees angle to the teeth apically. - Place the brush with filament tips directed into the gingival sulcus STILLMAN - 45 degrees angle to the teeth apically. - Filaments are placed half in sulcus and half on the gingiva. - Modified Stillman Technique: patients with progressing recession and exposed root Roll - Rolling method CHARTER - 45 degree angle pointing towards the occlusal surface. - placing the filaments on the gingival margin
61
Tooth number #11 requires root-end surgery. Which flap design is generally NOT indicated? A. A submarginal scalloped flap (Ochsenbein- Luebke) B. A submarginal curved flap (Semilunar) C. A full mucoperiosteal flap D. None of the above
B. A submarginal curved flap (Semilunar)
62
Toothbrush trauma (abrasion) usually occurs on: A. Centrals and laterals B. Canines and premolars C. Second and third molars D. First and second molars
B. Canines and premolars
63
Trauma from occlusion can produce radiographically detectable changes in all of the following EXCEPT one A. Lamina dura B. Periodontal pockets C. Width of the PDL space D. Morphology of the alveolar crest
B. Periodontal pockets❌
64
What is the best method for preventing canal obstruction during instrumentation? A. Use chelating agents B. Use instruments in sequence with frequent irrigation C. Alternate use of files and reamers with frequent irrigation D. Obtain a straight line access
B. Use instruments in sequence with frequent irrigation
65
What is the generally accepted primary cause of inflammatory periodontal disease? A. Open contacts B. Calcular deposits C. Food debris D. Dental plaque
D. Dental plaque
66
What is the key feature that differentiates periodontitis from gingivitis? A. Periodontal pockets greater than 3mm B. Gingival recession C. Bleeding on probing D. Loss of clinical attachment
D. Loss of clinical attachment
67
What is the primary function of a root canal sealer? A. To fill the discrepancies between the core-filling material and dentin wall B. To act as a lubricant C. To form a bond between the filling material and the dentin walls D. To exert antibacterial activity
A. To fill the discrepancies between the core-filling material and dentin wall
68
What is the radiographic sign of a successful pulpotomy in a permanent tooth? A. Open apex B. Loss of Periapical radiolucency C. No internal resorption D. That the apex has formed
D. That the apex has formed
69
When making a diagnosis, the primary goal of your diagnostic tests is to reproduce the chief complaint. You test the suspected tooth for percussion sensitivity and palpation sensitivity. Your positive percussion findings can be interpreted as follows A. There is inflammation in the PDL. B. The tooth is non-vital and should be treated with root canal therapy. C. There is inflammation in the PDL and the surrounding periodontium. D. There is a root fracture present.
A. There is inflammation in the PDL.
70
When performing an endodontic retreat procedure, gutta percha may be plasticized using each of the following except A. Xylol B. Eucalyptol C. Sodium Hypochlorite D. Chloroform
C. Sodium Hypochlorite❌
71
Which cells do not characterize the cellular response at the onset of chronic pulpal inflammation? A. Plasma cells B. Macrophages C. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes D. Lymphocytes
C. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes❌ (for acute inflammation)
72
Which class of bony defect responds BEST to regenerative therapy? A. Shallow crater B. One-walled C. Two-walled D. Three-walled
D. Three-walled NOTES: Higher number of walls, Higher success rate after procedure. One Wall – “hemiseptal” Two Wall – “Osseous Crater” Three Wall – Through Four Wall – Circumferential (Exception because example is: EXTRACTION SITE)
73
Which medicament can be used during pulpotomy procedure? A. Calcium hydroxide B. Mineral trioxide aggregate C. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) D. Flowable composite
B. Mineral trioxide aggregate
74
Which of the following are used primarily to enlarge the root canal orifices and remove the cervical/lingual bulge usually seen on anterior teeth? A. High speed burs B. Endodontic excavator C. Gates Glidden drills D. Endodontic explorer
C. Gates Glidden drills
75
Which of the following best illustrates the reason why calcium hydroxide is not used endodontic procedures involving the primary dentition? A. Can cause external resorption B. Promotes the formation of reparative dentin C. Has an alkaline pH which can cause internal resorption D. Produces no anti-microbial effect
C. Has an alkaline pH which can cause internal resorption
76
Which of the following is described as a soft tissue graft which is rotated or otherwise repositioned to correct an adjacent defect? A. Free gingival graft B. Pedicle graft C. Connective tissue graft D. Frenectomy
B. Pedicle graft
77
Which of the following is not a diagnostic tool commonly used in endodontic? A. Endo Ice B. Radiograph C. Hot gutta percha D. Study model
D. Study model
78
Which of the following is NOT a key feature of replacement resorption? A. Lack of mobility B. Lack of PDL on x-ray C. Pink appearance D. Infraocclusion
C. Pink appearance NOTES: “pink” tooth is considered to be pathognomonic of INTERNAL resorption
79
Which of the following is the instrument of choice for removing deep subgingival calculus, for root planing altered cementum, and, for removing the soft tissue lining the periodontal pocket? A. Curette B. Sickle scaler C. Hoe D. File
A. Curette NOTES: Sickle Scaler - Used to remove supragingival deposits and deposits in shallow pockets Chisel - Remove gross deposits on the surfaces of anterior and premolars Hoe - Supragingival only, can cause scratches on root surfaces - if used subgingivally - for planning and smoothening - are used for scaling of ledges or rings of calculus Curettes - smoothening of root surfaces - removal of subgingival deposit
80
Which of the following is the most common error when performing periodontal probing? A. Using the wrong type of probe B. Incorrectly reading the periodontal probe C. Excessively angling the probe when inserting it interproximally beyond the long axis of the tooth D. Forgetting to also probe the lingual of every tooth
C. Excessively angling the probe when inserting it interproximally beyond the long axis of the tooth
81
Which of the following is true of cementum EXCEPT? A. The main function is to compensate for tooth wear B. It is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament C. The deposition of new cementum continues periodically throughout life whereby root fractures may be repaired D. The cementum is indistinguishable on radiographs
D. The cementum is indistinguishable on radiographs❌ The cementum is DISTINGUISHABLE on radiographs
82
Which of the following is true regarding post-core preparation? A. Positive horizontal stop to minimize wedging B. 4-5 mm gutta percha should remain to provide resistance to microleakage C. Minimum amount of sound tooth structure to prevent failure is 1.5-2mm D. Horizontal wall to prevent rotation similar to a box
D. Horizontal wall to prevent rotation similar to a box
83
Which of the following is/are NOT found in pulp? A. Reticulin fibers B. Proprioceptor nerve fibers C. Collagen fibers D. Myelinated nerve fibers
B. Proprioceptor nerve fibers
84
Which of the following might you possibly use when retreating a previously root canal treated tooth EXCEPT A. Rotary files B. Glass bead sterilizer C. Chloroform D. Heated instruments
B. Glass bead sterilizer❌
85
Which of the following needs to be evident in to make a diagnosis of periodontitis? A. Bleeding B. Pocket depths of 5 mm or more C. A change in tissue color and tone D. Radiographic evidence of bone loss
D. Radiographic evidence of bone loss
86
Which of the following periodontal is the aimed at pocket elimination indicated for suprabony pockets and if there is inadequate zone of keratinized tissue A. Modified Widman Flap B. Replaced Flap procedure C. Apically repositioned flap D. Gingivectomy
C. Apically repositioned flap
87
Which of the following statements regarding the assessment of tooth mobility is false? A. Teeth normally have a very slight physiologic mobility B. Mobility can result from multiple causes C. Mobility is unacceptable and should always be treated D. Periodontal disease can result in tooth mobility
C. Mobility is unacceptable and should always be treated❌
88
Which of the following treatment modalities will NOT assist in pocket reduction? A. Gingivectomy B. Apically positioned flap C. Guided tissue regeneration D. Connective tissue graft
D. Connective tissue graft
89
Which of the following types of oral mucosa is not keratinized under normal conditions? A. Buccal mucosa B. Vermillion border of the lips C. Hard palate D. Gingiva
A. Buccal mucosa
90
Which pulpal nerve is stimulated when performing the electric pulp test during diagnosis? A. All sensory nerves B. All autonomic nerves C. A delta fibers D. C fibers
C. A delta fibers
91
Which tooth is improperly matched with the reason for difficulty of its access preparation? A. Maxillary molar-proximity of canals to DB line angle B. Maxillary first premolar-mesial concavity C. Mandibular molar-mesio lingual tilt of tooth D. Mandibular incisor-narrow mesio distal dimension
A. Maxillary molar-proximity of canals to DB line angle❌
92
Why use a palatal approach for osseous periodontal surgery? A. Palatal embrasures are wider, allowing for better access to osseous surgery B. Less sensitivity for the patient C. More subgingival calculus on the palatal surfaces D. Less bleeding
A. Palatal embrasures are wider, allowing for better access to osseous surgery
93
You are halfway through the root canal treatment on tooth #36. To prevent bacterial growth in the canal between appointments, you decide to use an intra-canal medication. The inter-appointment medicament of choice is A. Sodium hypochlorite B. Ethylenediaminetetraacetate C. Chlorhexidine D. Calcium hydroxide
D. Calcium hydroxide
94
You are performing a 5-year follow up on a 43-year old patient with an implant. When comparing radiographs, you estimate that there has been almost 0.1mm loss of bone height around the implant since it was placed. Which of the following is indicated? A. The implant is doing well; this amount of bone loss is considered acceptable B. Removal of the implant and replacement with a larger size implant C. Removal of the implant to allow healing before another one can be placed 4 months later D. Remaking the prosthetic crown because of tangential forces on the implant
A. The implant is doing well; this amount of bone loss is considered acceptable
95
You are playing a soft ball game in Central Park. Your good friend is the catcher. He is not wearing a mask. A foul tip hits him in the mouth and the left central incisor is avulsed and lands in the dirt behind the home plate. Your office is 10 minutes away. The best treatment for the tooth is A. Scrape off all the debris and remove the contaminated periodontal ligament; then replant immediately B. Gently clean the tooth of debris with saline; carefully remove several millimetres of the apex so as not to disturb the remaining periodontal ligament C. Gently clean the tooth and carefully remove the periodontal ligament and initiate endodontic therapy D. Gently clean the tooth of debris and replant
D. Gently clean the tooth of debris and replant
96
You have been treating a patient in your practice for 20 years. As your patient has aged, numerous changes have occurred in his pulp tissues. All of the following can be associated with age-related changes to the dental pulp except A. Decreased cellular elements B. Pulp stone formation C. Radiographic obliteration of the pulp space D. Increased response to electric pulp testing
D. Increased response to electric pulp testing❌
97
You have placed files in all three canals located in tooth #19 during a root canal procedure to obtain measurement. Upon taking the first radiograph, the two files in the distal canal are superimposed. For your second radiograph, you move the cone to the mesial. The resulting image shows both files in the distal canal. The file that has moved to the mesial is positioned A. Mesially B. Distally C. Buccally D. Lingually
D. Lingually
98
________ is a light, "feeling" stroke that is used with probes and explorers to evaluate the dimensions of the pocket and to detect calculus and irregularities of the tooth surface. A. Exploratory stroke B. Scaling stroke C. Root planing stroke D. None of the above
A. Exploratory stroke
99
_________ are the most common cells in the periodontal ligament and appear as ovoid or elongated cells oriented along the principal fibers, exhibiting pseudo-podialike processes. A. Fibroblasts B. Cementoblasts C. Osteoblasts D. Macrophages
A. Fibroblasts
100
Which of the following is NOT a secondary feature seen in both forms of aggressive periodontitis? a. Dental plaque inconsistent with severity of destruction b. Hyperresponsive macrophage phenotype c. Phagocyte abnormalities d. Rapid periodontal attachment loss
d. Rapid periodontal attachment loss❌