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1. UP- PREBOARDS > Endo-Perio > Flashcards

Endo-Perio Flashcards

1
Q

A 44-year-old patient presents a third of the dentition with 5 mm of clinical attachment loss, bleeding upon probing, none of
the teeth being mobile, and probing depths ranging between 4 and 6 mm. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Localized chronic moderate periodontitis
B. Generalized chronic severe periodontitis
C. Localized chronic severe periodontitis
D. Generalized chronic moderate periodontitis

A

B. Generalized chronic severe periodontitis

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2
Q

A 7-year-old patient presents to your office for an emergency visit with a traumatic exposure of tooth #11. The treatment of
choice for this patient is:

A. Root-end closure procedure/apexification
B. Traditional root canal therapy
C. Vital pulp therapy/apexogenesis
D. Partial pulpectomy

A

C. Vital pulp therapy/apexogenesis

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3
Q

A 9-year-old patient has avulsed tooth #21 in a playground accident. His mother has recovered the tooth and has called to ask
how it should be stored while she gets her son to your office. The best way to store an avulsed tooth for the best prognosis is

A. Tap water
B. Saline
C. Saliva
D. Milk

A

D. Milk

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4
Q

A mandibular 1st molar has 4 canals. How should the access opening be?

A. Round
B. Oval
C. Triangular
D. Trapezoidal

A

D. Trapezoidal

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5
Q

A maxillary first molar to be endodontically treated has 4 canals. Where is the 4th canal orifice located?

A. Palatal to the orifice of the mesiobuccal canal
B. Close to the orifice of the palatal canal
C. Close to the orifice of the distobuccal canal
D. Under the mesiobuccal cusp

A

A. Palatal to the orifice of the mesiobuccal canal

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6
Q

A patient complains of limited pain on the upper right quadrant caused by sweets and cold. Examination reveals carious
lesions on the 2nd premolar. Vitality test and radiographs are normal. The diagnosis is most probably

A. Necrosis
B. Reversible pulpitis
C. Irreversible pulpitis
D. Necrosis

A

B. Reversible pulpitis

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7
Q

A patient presents to your office for an initial maintenance visit and you prescribe a full series of radiographs. During
interpretation, you note as an incidental finding a periapical radiolucency on the mesial root of tooth #19. The tooth is
restored with an intact amalgam MO restoration with intact margins and no signs of leakage or recurrent caries. The tooth is
asymptomatic and responds normally to all vitality testing. Your patient has indicated a history of cancer in his medical
history. The proper course of action in this case is

A. Pulpotomy
B. Root canal therapy
C. Extraction

D. Biopsy the lesion

A

D. Biopsy the lesion

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8
Q

A patient presents to your office for initial examination. A root canal procedure had been completed on tooth #16 a year prior.
Upon clinical examination, you observe a narrow periodontal pocket measuring the full length of your probe in the area of the
mesial root. Upon radiographic examination, you detect a J-shaped radiolucency surrounding the mesial root. Your initial
diagnosis is

A. Ledging of the mesial root

B. Underobturation of the mesial root
C. Periodontal abscess

D. Vertical fracture of the mesial root

A

D. Vertical fracture of the mesial root

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9
Q

A patient presents to your office with a fractured tooth #21. The fracture involves enamel, dentin, and pulp. This fracture can
be classified as

A. Complicated crown fracture
B. Root fracture

C. Crown-root fracture
D. Uncomplicated crown fracture

A

A. Complicated crown fracture

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10
Q

A patient received a large MOD composite restoration 1 week ago. She is now experiencing intense, spontaneous pain, with
exacerbation of symptoms occurring when she applies heat or cold or when she eats sweets. The pulpal diagnosis is

A. Acute periapical periodontitis
B. Reversible pulpitis
C. Traumatic occlusion
D. Irreversible pulpitis

A

D. Irreversible Pulpitis

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11
Q

A periapical film of tooth #21 was obtained in preparation for a root canal and an initial measurement for length of the canal
was performed. After initial debridement of the canal was performed, another x-ray was captured with the initial root length
measured and it appears that the file is approximately 4 mm from the apex. How could we have obtained a more accurate
initial length measurement?

A. Increasing the vertical angulation of the cone in relation to the film
B. Decreasing the horizontal angulation of the cone in relation to the film
C. Decreasing the vertical angulation of the cone in relation to the film
D. Increasing the horizontal angulation of the cone in relation to the film

A

C. Decreasing the vertical angulation of the cone in relation to the film

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12
Q

A radicular cyst is always associated with

A. Deep cavity
B. Vital tooth
C. Pericoronal infection
D. Non-vital tooth

A

D. Non-vital tooth

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13
Q

A stainless steel endodontic file #50 is in color

A. White
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Yellow

A

D. Yellow

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14
Q

A/An __________ of the saliva causes precipitation of calcium phosphate salts by lowering the precipitation constants.

A. Increase in the pH
B. Decrease in the pH
C. Decrease in the viscosity
D. Increase in the viscosity

A

A. Increase in the pH

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15
Q

According to Miller’s index, a tooth has class II mobility when

A. Movement of greater than 1 mm in any direction
B. Movement of greater than 1 mm in any direction and it can be depressed vertically
C. Movement of less than 0.5 mm in any direction
D. Movement of less than 1 mm in any direction

A

A. Movement of greater than 1 mm in any direction

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16
Q

Air is used to deflect the free gingival margin to detect:

A. The CEJ
B. Smooth root surfaces
C. Subgingival calculus
D. Inflammation

A

C. Subgingival calculus

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17
Q

An Asian patient presents to your office with pain bilaterally in her lower second premolars. Both teeth are sensitive to
percussion and show periapical radiolucencies on radiographic examination. The teeth do not respond to either cold or
electric pulp tests. There is an irregular bulge on the occlusal surfaces of each tooth. The most likely diagnosis is

A. Irreversible pulpitis
B. Dens invaginatus
C. Dens evaginatus
D. Pulp stones

A

C. Dens evaginatus

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18
Q

An injury to the tooth supporting structures resulting in increased mobility, but without displacement of the tooth

A. Concussion
B. Subluxation
C. Extrusion
D. Intrusion

A

B. Subluxation

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19
Q

An obturation technique used in most clinical situation because it provides good length control but may not fill canal
irregularities

A. Cold lateral compaction technique
B. Softened cone technique
C. Warm lateral compaction technique
D. Warm vertical compaction technique

A

A. Cold lateral compaction technique

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20
Q

Angular defects are classified on the basis of

A. The number of osseous walls that were destroyed by periodontal disease
B. The number of osseous walls left surrounding the tooth
C. The number of osseous walls that will remain after surgery
D. Periodontal probe readings

A

B. The number of osseous walls left surrounding the tooth

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21
Q

Calculus should be removed because:

A. A retention site for bacterial plaque
B. It abrades the soft tissue of the gingival
C. Interferes with the attachment of junctional epithelium
D. Maybe located inside the connective tissue causing inflammation

A

A. A retention site for bacterial plaque

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22
Q

Clockwise quarter rotation pulled followed by a pull motion of the instrument

A. Reaming motion
B. Watch winding
C. Filing motion
D. Balanced force

A

A. Reaming motion

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23
Q

Dental plaque is composed primarily of

A. Microorganisms
B. Water
C. Minerals
D. Tissue cells

A

A. Microorganisms

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24
Q

During instrumentation of tooth #36, you realize that you are unable to negotiate your file to the complete working length. The
procedural error that has occurred is most likely

A. Vertical root fracture
B. Inadequate straight line access
C. Ledging
D. Instrument separation

A

C. Ledging

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25
Q

Endodontically treated teeth that have been restored with a cast post and core, and crown, are subjected to the high
incidence of:

A. Periodontal disease
B. Recurrent caries
C. Vertical root fracture
D. None of the above

A

C. Vertical root fracture

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26
Q

Endodontically treated teeth that have been restored with a cast post and core, and crown, are subjected to the high
incidence of:

A. Periodontal disease
B. Dental caries
C. Vertical root fracture
D. The need for apicoectomy

A

C. Vertical root fracture

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27
Q

Endodontically treated teeth that have been restored with a cast post and core, and crown, are subjected to the high
incidence of:

A. Periodontal disease
B. Dental caries
C. Vertical root fracture
D. The need for apicoectomy

A

C. Vertical root fracture

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28
Q

For an edentulous maxilla with an overdenture as final restoration, what is the minimum number of implants to be placed?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

A

B. 4

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29
Q

For patients affected with gingivitis, what is the recommended interval for maintenance appointments?

A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 year

A

C. 6 months

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30
Q

Furcation involvement is measured by

A. Naber’s probe
B. WHO probe
C. Michigan O probe

D. CPITN probe

A

A. Naber’s probe

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31
Q

Furcation involvements (Goldman, H.M) have been classified as grades I, II, and III according to the amount of tissue
destruction. Grade II is

A. Incipient bone loss
B. Partial bone loss (cul-de-sac)
C. Total bone loss with through-and-through opening of the furcation
D. Similar to the above, but with gingival recession exposing the furcation to view

A

B. Partial bone loss (cul-de-sac)

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32
Q

Furcation involvements (Goldman, H.M) have been classified as grades I, II, and III according to the amount of tissue
destruction. Grade II is

A. Incipient bone loss
B. Partial bone loss (cul-de-sac)
C. Total bone loss with through-and-through opening of the furcation
D. Similar to the above, but with gingival recession exposing the furcation to view

A

B. Partial bone loss (cul-de-sac)

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33
Q

Gingival fibers consist of

A. Type I collagen
B. Type II collagen
C. Type III collagen
D. Type IV collagen

A

A. Type I collagen

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34
Q

Gingival fibers consist of

A. Type I collagen
B. Type II collagen
C. Type III collagen
D. Type IV collagen

A

A. Type I collagen

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35
Q

Gutta percha tracing is usually done with which of the following cases?

A. Symptomatic apical periodontitis
B. Acute periapical abscess
C. Chronic apical abscess
D. None of the above

A

C. Chronic apical abscess

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36
Q

How are endodontic files sterilized?

A. Dry heat sterilization for 1 ½ hours
B. Autoclave for 20 minutes
C. Immerse for 1 minute in full strength NaOCl
D. Glass bead sterilization for 15 seconds

A

D. Glass bead sterilization for 15 seconds

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37
Q

How are endodontic files sterilized?

A. Dry heat sterilization for 1 ½ hours
B. Autoclave for 20 minutes
C. Immerse for 1 minute in full strength NaOCl
D. Glass bead sterilization for 15 seconds

A

D. Glass bead sterilization for 15 seconds

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38
Q

How are gutta percha points sterilized?

A. Dry heat sterilization for 1 ½ hours
B. Immerse for 1 minute in full strength NaOCl
C. Autoclave for 20 minutes
D. Glass bead sterilization for 15 seconds

A

B. Immerse for 1 minute in full strength NaOCl

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39
Q

How are gutta percha points sterilized?

A. Dry heat sterilization for 1 ½ hours
B. Immerse for 1 minute in full strength NaOCl
C. Autoclave for 20 minutes
D. Glass bead sterilization for 15 seconds

A

B. Immerse for 1 minute in full strength NaOCl

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40
Q

How should a periodontal probe be adapted in an interproximal area?

A. It should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth at the point angle
B. It should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth at the contact area
C. It should be perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth in front of the contact area

D. It should touch the contact area and the tip should angle slightly beneath and beyond the contact area

A

D. It should touch the contact area and the tip should angle slightly beneath and beyond the contact area

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41
Q

How should a periodontal probe be adapted in an interproximal area?

A. It should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth at the point angle
B. It should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth at the contact area
C. It should be perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth in front of the contact area

D. It should touch the contact area and the tip should angle slightly beneath and beyond the contact area

A

D. It should touch the contact area and the tip should angle slightly beneath and beyond the contact area

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42
Q

Ideally, flossing should be done:

A. Several times a week
B. Whenever food becomes impacted
C. When periodontal disease is present
D. Daily

A

D. Daily

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43
Q

In combined endodontic-periodontic lesions, it is generally wise to treat

A. The periodontic component first
B. The endodontic component first
C. Both components at the same time
D. Them any way you want to

A

B. The endodontic component first

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44
Q

In combined endodontic-periodontic lesions, it is generally wise to treat

A. The periodontic component first
B. The endodontic component first
C. Both components at the same time
D. Them any way you want to

A

B. The endodontic component first

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45
Q

In infrabony pockets

A. The bone loss is horizontal in nature
B. The bone loss is vertical in nature
C. Transseptal fibers are horizontal
D. Supracrestal fibers follow the normal bone contour

A

B. The bone loss is vertical in nature

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46
Q

In infrabony pockets

A. The bone loss is horizontal in nature
B. The bone loss is vertical in nature
C. Transseptal fibers are horizontal
D. Supracrestal fibers follow the normal bone contour

A

B. The bone loss is vertical in nature

47
Q

In replanting avulsed tooth, the most critical factor in preventing root resorption is

A. Cleanliness of root surface
B. Time elapsed prior to replanting the tooth
C. Filling the root canal prior to replantation
D. Presence or absence of an open apical foramen

A

B. Time elapsed prior to replanting the tooth

48
Q

In the treatment of a patient with periodontal disease, prognosis is poor when

A. Malocclusion is present
B. Patient is uncooperative
C. Severe gingival inflammation is present
D. Periodontal pockets 5mm in depth is present

A

B. Patient is uncooperative

49
Q

It is used to check and ensure that the roof of the chamber has been completely removed

A. Endodontic spoon excavator
B. Endodontic explorer
C. Regular explorer
D. Flexible periodontal probe

A

C. Regular explorer

50
Q

Microorganisms that colonize the periodontal abscess have been reported to be primarily

A. Gram-positive aerobic cocci
B. Gram-negative aerobic rods
C. Gram-negative anaerobic rods
D. Gram-positive anaerobic cocci

A

B. Gram-negative aerobic rods

51
Q

Of the choices listed below, which one describes the boundaries that define the attached gingiva?

A. From the gingival margin to the interdental groove
B. From the free gingival groove to the gingival margin
C. From the mucogingival junction to the free gingival groove
D. From the epithelial attachment to the cementoenamel junction

A

C. From the mucogingival junction to the free gingival groove

52
Q

One of the most serious procedural errors that can occur during root canal therapy is instrument aspiration. What is the most
important precaution an operator can take to prevent instrument aspiration?

A. Only use rotary files
B. Use adequate lubrication during instrumentation
C. Recapitulate between each file
D. Proper rubber dam isolation

A

D. Proper rubber dam isolation

53
Q

Overextended gutta percha should be removed:

A. By pulling it out or surgical removal
B. With ultrasonic
C. With rotary instruments
D. With solvents

A

A. By pulling it out or surgical removal

54
Q

Periodontitis can be associated with all of the following except:

A. Bleeding upon probing
B. Increased gingival exudate
C. Elevated sulcular temperature
D. Attachment and bone loss that is not progressing

A

D. Attachment and bone loss that is not progressing

55
Q

Periodontitis that does not resolve with treatment is termed as:

A. Aggressive periodontitis
B. Chronic periodontitis
C. Refractory periodontitis
D. Juvenile periodontitis

A

C. Refractory periodontitis

56
Q

Removal of the coronal portion of a vital pulp from a tooth

A. Root canal treatment
B. Apicoectomy
C. Pulpotomy
D. Pulpectomy

A

C. Pulpotomy

57
Q

Root canal therapy is completed on a mandibular first molar and closed temporarily with a cotton pellet and a temporary
sealing material, with plans for a definitive restoration to be placed as soon as possible. What is the most important factor in
ensuring the success of the procedure?

A. Type of definitive restoration
B. Type of temporary sealing material
C. Marginal integrity of definitive restoration
D. Placement of a pos

A

C. Marginal integrity of definitive restoration

58
Q

Some degree of curettage is done unintentionally when scaling and root planing are performed; this is called inadvertent curettage. Curettage accomplishes the removal of the chronically inflamed granulation tissue that forms in the lateral wall of
the periodontal pocket.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true

A

A. Both statements are true

59
Q

Specific bacteria are implicated in periodontal disease and are commonly found at the site of infection. The Red complex
bacteria consist of the following EXCEPT

A. Porphyromonas gingivalis
B. Tannerella forsythia
C. Treponema denticola
D. Eikenella corrodens

A

D. Eikenella corrodens

60
Q

The best immediate treatment for a bruxism problem is:

A. Psychiatric counselling
B. Use of occlusal night guard
C. Temporary splinting of teeth
D. None of the above

A

B. Use of occlusal night guard

61
Q

The calcified bodies sometimes found in the periodontal ligament are best described as which of the following?

A. Cementicles
B. Bone
C. Denticles
D. Enamel pearls

A

A. Cementicles

62
Q

The diagnosis of early necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is BEST made on the basis of

A. Biopsy
B. Low grade fever
C. Ulceration of the interdental papilla
D. Ulceration in the alveolar mucosa

A

C. Ulceration of the interdental papilla

63
Q

The main advantage of zinc oxide-eugenol based sealer type is

A. Non-staining property
B. Insolubility
C. Long history of successful usage
D. Adhesion

A

C. Long history of successful usage

64
Q

The main benefit of primary incisor replantation is

A. To relieve parental guilt
B. Maintenance of normal anterior dentition
C. To maintain child’s esteem
D. To maintain child’s social acceptance

A

B. Maintenance of normal anterior dentition

65
Q

The major role of initial cause-related therapy is:

A. Elimination or control of all etiologic factors
B. Removal of calculus
C. Alleviation of all emergency problems
D. None of the above

A

A. Elimination or control of all etiologic factors

66
Q

The most acceptable method to achieve adequate root canal debridement is

A. To obtain clean shavings of the canal
B. To achieve glassy smooth walls of the canal
C. To attain a clean irrigating solution
D. None of the above

A

B. To achieve glassy smooth walls of the canal

67
Q

The most acceptable method to achieve adequate root canal debridement is

A. To obtain clean shavings of the canal
B. To achieve glassy smooth walls of the canal
C. To attain a clean irrigating solution
D. None of the above

A

B. To achieve glassy smooth walls of the canal

68
Q

The most effective means to eliminate root canal infection is

A. Systemic antibiotic coverage
B. Complete debridement of the root canal
C. Warm saline rinses
D. Root canal medication with a nonspecific drug

A

B. Complete debridement of the root canal

69
Q

The probability of the test being positive when the disease is present

A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Positive predictive value
D. Negative predictive value

A

A. Sensitivity

70
Q

This brushing technique is recommended in patients with progressing recession and exposed root

A. Modified Stillman’s method
B. Modified Bass method
C. Charter’s method
D. Roll method

A

A. Modified Stillman’s method

71
Q

Tooth number #11 requires root-end surgery. Which flap design is generally NOT indicated?

A. A submarginal scalloped flap (Ochsenbein- Luebke)
B. A submarginal curved flap (Semilunar)
C. A full mucoperiosteal flap
D. None of the above

A

B. A submarginal curved flap (Semilunar)

72
Q

Toothbrush trauma (abrasion) usually occurs on:

A. Centrals and laterals
B. Canines and premolars
C. Second and third molars
D. First and second molars

A

B. Canines and premolars

73
Q

Trauma from occlusion can produce radiographically detectable changes in all of the following EXCEPT one

A. Lamina dura
B. Periodontal pockets
C. Width of the PDL space
D. Morphology of the alveolar crest

A

B. Periodontal pockets

74
Q

What is the best method for preventing canal obstruction during instrumentation?

A. Use chelating agents
B. Use instruments in sequence with frequent irrigation
C. Alternate use of files and reamers with frequent irrigation
D. Obtain a straight line access

A

B. Use instruments in sequence with frequent irrigation

75
Q

What is the generally accepted primary cause of inflammatory periodontal disease?

A. Open contacts
B. Calcular deposits
C. Food debris
D. Dental plaque

A

D. Dental plaque

76
Q

What is the key feature that differentiates periodontitis from gingivitis?

A. Periodontal pockets greater than 3mm
B. Gingival recession
C. Bleeding on probing
D. Loss of clinical attachment

A

D. Loss of clinical attachment

77
Q

What is the primary function of a root canal sealer?

A. To fill the discrepancies between the core-filling material and dentin wall
B. To act as a lubricant
C. To form a bond between the filling material and the dentin walls
D. To exert antibacterial activity

A

A. To fill the discrepancies between the core-filling material and dentin wall

78
Q

What is the radiographic sign of a successful pulpotomy in a permanent tooth?

A. Open apex
B. Loss of Periapical radiolucency
C. No internal resorption
D. That the apex has formed

A

D. That the apex has formed

79
Q

What is the radiographic sign of a successful pulpotomy in a permanent tooth?

A. Open apex
B. Loss of Periapical radiolucency
C. No internal resorption
D. That the apex has formed

A

D. That the apex has formed

80
Q

When making a diagnosis, the primary goal of your diagnostic tests is to reproduce the chief complaint. You test the
suspected tooth for percussion sensitivity and palpation sensitivity. Your positive percussion findings can be interpreted as
follows

A. There is inflammation in the PDL.
B. The tooth is non-vital and should be treated with root canal therapy.
C. There is inflammation in the PDL and the surrounding periodontium.
D. There is a root fracture present.

A

A. There is inflammation in the PDL.

81
Q

When performing an endodontic re-treat procedure, gutta percha may be plasticized using each of the following except

A. Xylol
B. Eucalyptol
C. Sodium Hypochlorite
D. Chloroform

A

C. Sodium Hypochlorite

82
Q

Which cells do not characterize the cellular response at the onset of chronic pulpal inflammation?

A. Plasma cells
B. Macrophages
C. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D. Lymphocytes)

A

C. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

83
Q

Which class of bony defect responds BEST to regenerative therapy?

A. Shallow crater
B. One-walled
C. Two-walled
D. Three-walled

A

D. Three-walled

84
Q

Which medicament can be used during pulpotomy procedure?

A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Mineral trioxide aggregate
C. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
D. Flowable composite

A

B. Mineral trioxide aggregate

85
Q

Which of the following are used primarily to enlarge the root canal orifices and remove the cervical/lingual bulge usually seen
on anterior teeth?

A. High speed burs
B. Endodontic excavator
C. Gates Glidden drills
D. Endodontic explorer

A

C. Gates Glidden drills

86
Q

Which of the following best illustrates the reason why calcium hydroxide is not used endodontic procedures involving the
primary dentition?

A. Can cause external resorption
B. Promotes the formation of reparative dentin
C. Has an alkaline pH which can cause internal resorption
D. Produces no anti-microbial effect

A

C. Has an alkaline pH which can cause internal resorption

87
Q

Which of the following is described as a soft tissue graft which is rotated or otherwise repositioned to correct an adjacent
defect?

A. Free gingival graft
B. Pedicle graft
C. Connective tissue graft
D. Frenectomy

A

B. Pedicle graft

88
Q

Which of the following is not a diagnostic tool commonly used in endodontic?

A. Endo Ice
B. Radiograph
C. Hot gutta percha
D. Study model

A

D. Study model

89
Q

Which of the following is NOT a key feature of replacement?

A. Lack of mobility
B. Lack of PDL on x-ray
C. Pink appearance
D. Infraocclusion

A

C. Pink appearance

90
Q

Which of the following is the instrument of choice for removing deep subgingival calculus, for root planing altered cementum, and, for removing the soft tissue lining the periodontal pocket?

A. Curette
B. Sickle scaler
C. Hoe
D. File

A

A. Curette

91
Q

Which of the following is the most common error when performing periodontal probing?

A. Using the wrong type of probe
B. Incorrectly reading the periodontal probe
C. Excessively angling the probe when inserting it interproximally beyond the long axis of the tooth
D. Forgetting to also probe the lingual of every tooth

A

C. Excessively angling the probe when inserting it interproximally beyond the long axis of the tooth

92
Q

Which of the following is true of cementum EXCEPT?

A. The main function is to compensate for tooth wear
B. It is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament
C. The deposition of new cementum continues periodically throughout life whereby root fractures may be repaired
D. The cementum is indistinguishable on radiographs

A

D. The cementum is indistinguishable on radiographs

93
Q

Which of the following is true regarding post-core preparation?

A. Positive horizontal stop to minimize wedging
B. 4-5 mm gutta percha should remain to provide resistance to microleakage
C. Minimum amount of sound tooth structure to prevent failure is 1.5-2mm
D. Horizontal wall to prevent rotation similar to a box

A

D. Horizontal wall to prevent rotation similar to a box

94
Q

Which of the following is/are NOT found in pulp?

A. Reticulin fibers
B. Proprioceptor nerve fibers
C. Collagen fibers
D. Myelinated nerve fibers

A

B. Proprioceptor nerve fibers

95
Q

Which of the following might you possibly use when retreating a previously root canal treated tooth EXCEPT

A. Rotary files
B. Glass bead sterilizer
C. Chloroform
D. Heated instruments

A

B. Glass bead sterilizer

96
Q

Which of the following needs to be evident in to make a diagnosis of periodontitis?

A. Bleeding
B. Pocket depths of 5 mm or more
C. A change in tissue color and tone
D. Radiographic evidence of bone loss

A

D. Radiographic evidence of bone loss

97
Q

Which of the following periodontal is the aimed at pocket elimination indicated for suprabony pockets and if there is
inadequate zone of keratinized tissue

A. Modified Widman Flap
B. Replaced Flap procedure
C. Apically repositioned flap
D. Gingivectomy

A

C. Apically repositioned flap

98
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the assessment of tooth mobility is false?

A. Teeth normally have a very slight physiologic mobility
B. Mobility can result from multiple causes
C. Mobility is unacceptable and should always be treated
D. Periodontal disease can result in tooth mobility

A

C. Mobility is unacceptable and should always be treated

99
Q

Which of the following treatment modalities will not assist in pocket reduction?

A. Gingivectomy
B. Apically positioned flap
C. Guided tissue regeneration
D. Connective tissue graft

A

D. Connective tissue graft

100
Q

Which of the following types of oral mucosa is not keratinized under normal conditions?

A. Buccal mucosa
B. Vermillion border of the lips
C. Hard palate
D. Gingiva

A

A. Buccal mucosa

101
Q

Which pulpal nerve is stimulated when performing the electric pulp test during diagnosis?

A. All sensory nerves
B. All autonomic nerves
C. A delta fibers
D. C fibers

A

C. A delta fibers

102
Q

Which tooth is improperly matched with the reason for difficulty of its access preparation?

A. Maxillary molar-proximity of canals to DB line angle
B. Maxillary first premolar-mesial concavity
C. Mandibular molar-mesio lingual tilt of tooth
D. Mandibular incisor-narrow mesio distal dimension

A

A. Maxillary molar-proximity of canals to DB line angle

103
Q

Why use a palatal approach for osseous periodontal surgery?

A. Palatal embrasures are wider, allowing for better access to osseous surgery
B. Less sensitivity for the patient
C. More subgingival calculus on the palatal surfaces
D. Less bleeding

A

A. Palatal embrasures are wider, allowing for better access to osseous surgery

104
Q

Why use a palatal approach for osseous periodontal surgery?

A. Palatal embrasures are wider, allowing for better access to osseous surgery
B. Less sensitivity for the patient
C. More subgingival calculus on the palatal surfaces
D. Less bleeding

A

A. Palatal embrasures are wider, allowing for better access to osseous surgery

105
Q

You are halfway through the root canal treatment on tooth #36. To prevent bacterial growth in the canal between appointments, you decide to use an intra-canal medication. The inter appointment medicament of choice is

A. Sodium hypochlorite
B. Ethylenediaminetetraacetate
C. Chlorhexidine
D. Calcium hydroxide

A

D. Calcium hydroxide

106
Q

You are halfway through the root canal treatment on tooth #36. To prevent bacterial growth in the canal between appointments, you decide to use an intra-canal medication. The inter appointment medicament of choice is

A. Sodium hypochlorite
B. Ethylenediaminetetraacetate
C. Chlorhexidine
D. Calcium hydroxide

A

D. Calcium hydroxide

107
Q

You are performing a 5-year follow up on a 43-year old patient with an implant. When comparing radiographs, you estimate
that there has been almost 0.1mm loss of bone height around the implant since it was placed. Which of the following is
indicated?

A. The implant is doing well; this amount of bone loss is considered acceptable
B. Removal of the implant and replacement with a larger size implant
C. Removal of the implant to allow healing before another one can be placed 4 months later
D. Remaking the prosthetic crown because of tangential forces on the implant

A

A. The implant is doing well; this amount of bone loss is considered acceptable

108
Q

You are playing a soft ball game in Central Park. Your good friend is the catcher. He is not wearing a mask. A foul tip hits him
in the mouth and the left central incisor is avulsed and lands in the dirt behind the home plate. Your office is 10 minutes away.
The best treatment for the tooth is

A. Scrape off all the debris and remove the contaminated periodontal ligament; then replant immediately
B. Gently clean the tooth of debris with saline; carefully remove several millimetres of the apex so as not to disturb the
remaining periodontal ligament
C. Gently clean the tooth and carefully remove the periodontal ligament and initiate endodontic therapy
D. Gently clean the tooth of debris and replant

A

D. Gently clean the tooth of debris and replant

109
Q

You have been treating a patient in your practice for 20 years. As your patient has aged, numerous changes have occurred in
his pulp tissues. All of the following can be associated with age-related changes to the dental pulp except

A. Decreased cellular elements
B. Pulp stone formation
C. Radiographic obliteration of the pulp space
D. Increased response to electric pulp testing

A

D. Increased response to electric pulp testing

110
Q

You have placed files in all three canals located in tooth #19 during a root canal procedure to obtain measurement. Upon
taking the first radiograph, the two files in the distal canal are superimposed. For your second radiograph, you move the cone
to the mesial. The resulting image shows both files in the distal canal. The file that has moved to the mesial is positioned

A. Mesially
B. Distally
C. Buccally
D. Lingually

A

D. Lingually

111
Q

________is a light, “feeling” stroke that is used with probes and explorers to evaluate the dimensions of the pocket and to
detect calculus and irregularities of the tooth surface.

A. Exploratory stroke
B. Scaling stroke
C. Root planing stroke
D. None of the above

A

A. Exploratory stroke

112
Q

_________ are the most common cells in the periodontal ligament and appear as ovoid or elongated cells oriented along the
principal fibers, exhibiting pseudo-podialike processes.

A. Fibroblasts
B. Cementoblasts
C. Osteoblasts
D. Macrophages

A

A. Fibroblasts

113
Q

Which of the following is not a secondary feature
seen in both forms of aggressive periodontitis?

a. Dental plaque inconsistent with severity of
destruction
b. Hyperresponsive macrophage phenotype
c. Phagocyte abnormalities
d. Rapid periodontal attachment loss

A

d. Rapid periodontal attachment loss

1. UP- PREBOARDS (9 decks)

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