Respiratory Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Dyspnoea, obstructive pattern on spirometry in patient with rheumatoid

A

Bronchiolitis Obliterans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

HRCT of bronchiolitis obliterans:

A

Mossaic Pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which pattern in Bronchiolitis Obliterans ?

A

Obstructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Contraindications for Surgery in Lung Cancer :

A

ROPE

Reduced FEV1
Obstruction of SVC
Paralysis of vocal cords
Effusion

Stage 3 or 4
Tumour Near Hilum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Rx for Sarcoidosis :

A

Monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Asthma Symptoms+ Pco2-Normal. What category of asthma ?

A

Life threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In life threatening asthma, pco2 level ?

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Life threatening asthma criteria :

A

CHESS 33

Cyanosis
Normal PCo2
Hypotension
Exhaustion
Silent chest
Sats< 92 %
PEFR < 33%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

First line Ix for Asthma :

A

FeNO > 50
Raised Eosinophil count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If asthma is not diagnosed by FeNO and Eosinophil count :

A

Improvement of FEV1 of 12 % and rise in volume of 200 ML or more in response to B Agonist or steroids.

Significant ( > 20 %) in diurnal PEFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

To diagnose Asthma , Improvement of FEV1 of __ and rise in volume of __ ML or more in response to B Agonist or steroids.

A

12% and 200 ML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

To diagnose Asthma , how variation in Diurnal PEFR ?

A

> 20 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Management of high altitude cerebral edema

A

Descent and Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Climb to mountain + Headchae + Poor coordination + slurred speech

A

High Altitude Cerebral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

reason for using inhaled corticosteroids In COPD :

A

Reduced Exacerbations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In around__of patients subsequently diagnosed with lung cancer the chest x-ray was reported as normal

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is Lambert Eaton associated with Squamous Cell Carcinoma ?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Squamous cell Carcinoma features:

A

PTHrP—Hypercalcemia
Ectopic TSH—Hypthyroidism

Hypertrophic Pulmonary Osteoatrhopathy

Clubbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Is clubbing a feature of Squamous Cell Carcinoma ?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Does Amyloidosis cause B/L Hilar Lymphadenopathy ?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The first line investigation for adults with suspected asthma is:

A

Eosinophil count and FeNo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Should NIV be done in Bronchiectasis ?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the most useful marker for monitoring the progression of patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

A

FEV 1

Now, FEV1 is like measuring how much air you can blow out of the balloons in 1 second. For people with COPD, their lungs are like balloons that don’t work very well, so they can’t blow out as much air in that 1 second. Doctors use FEV1 to see how well the lungs are working and if they’re getting worse over time.

FEV1/FVC is like comparing how much air you can blow out in 1 second to how much air you can blow out in total. But in COPD, the problem is mostly about how hard it is to blow air out quickly (that’s the FEV1 part). The FVC part (total air you can blow out) doesn’t change as much, so FEV1 is the most useful number to watch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hypercalcaemia + bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy :

A

Sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sarcoidosis

A

Hypercalcaemia + bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The parents of a 3-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis ask for advice. They are considering having more children. Neither of the parents have cystic fibrosis. What is the chance that their next child will be a carrier of the cystic fibrosis gene?

A

there is a 50% chance that their next child will be a carrier of cystic fibrosis (i.e. be heterozygous for the genetic defect) and a 25% chance that the child will actually have the disease (be homozygous).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The ‘cherry-red’ lesion is a typical finding of:

A

Lung Carcinoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Vital capacity -

A

4,500 ML in males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Is coal dust a risk factor for lung cancer ?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Occupational asthma M/C/C :

A

Isocyanates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Occupational Asthma causes :

A

GF works at PEPSI

Glutaraldehyde
Flour
Platinum salt
Epoxy Resins
Proteolytic Enzymes
Soldering FLux resins
Isocyanates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis Rx:

A

Oral Prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Previous H/o or Label of Asthma—C/o Dry cough + wheeze + progressive Dyspnoea + Recurrent chest infections/ frequent Hospitalisation + On Imaging—Bronchictasis: Tram Tack Opacities/signet ring / ring shadow
High eosinophilia
Raised IgE
RAST positive for Aspergilus
Positive IgG

A

Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis

A

Previous H/o or Label of Asthma—C/o Dry cough + wheeze + progressive Dyspnoea + Recurrent chest infections/ frequent Hospitalisation + On Imaging—Bronchictasis: Tram Tack Opacities/signet ring / ring shadow
High eosinophilia
Raised IgE
RAST positive for Aspergilus
Positive IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Blood of ABPA

A

High eosinophilia
Raised IgE
RAST positive for Aspergilus
Positive IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Triangle of safety for chest drain insertion :

A

Base of the axilla, lateral edge pectoralis major, 5th intercostal space and the anterior border of latissimus dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Extrinsic allergic alveolitis is associated with which zone fibrosis ?

A

Upper zone fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Upper zone fibrosis mnemonic :

A

CHARTS
Coal worker pnemoconiosis
Histiocytosis/Hypersensitivity pneumonitis—Extrinsic allergic Pneumonitis.

Ankylosing spondylitis
Radiation
TB
Silicosis/Sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Asthma attack with Normal PCo2. Rx?

A

Normal Pco2—life threatening asthma
Do Invasive Intubation and ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The investigation of choice for upper airway compression:

A

Flow Volume Loop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Erythema Nodosum is good or ba prognosis in Sarcoidosis ?

A

Good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Indication for starting treatment in Sarcoidosis :

A

Hypercalcemia

Eye, heart, Neuro—facial nerve Palsy.
CXR—Stage 2 or Stage 3 with symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Bupropion

A

Norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor and nicotinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which one of the following is most important in the long term control of his symptoms of Bronchiectasis ?

A

Postural Drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

malt workers’ lung

A

Aspergillus Calvatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Bupropion Contraindication :

A

Epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

PiMZ

A

carrier and unlikely to develop emphysema if a non-smoker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Recurrent chest infections + subfertility + Negative sweet test

A

Kartagener syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Does COPD cause OSA ?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Asthmatic features/features suggesting steroid responsiveness in COPD:

A

previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy

a higher blood eosinophil count

substantial variation in FEV1 over time (at least 400 ml)

substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow (at least 20%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

End stage Emphysema Rx?

A

Lung volume reduction surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction predominates in the acute phase of extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

A

Type 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Does extrinsic allergic alveolits cause Eosinophilia ?

A

No—Inflamation is typically Granulomatous and therefore does not involve eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Cystic Fibrosis diet recommendation :

A

High calorie and high fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for every meal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Does Arthropathy occur in cystic fibrosis ?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Does Nasal Polyps occur in cystic fibrosis ?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Does diabetes occur in cystic fibrosis ?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Does steatorhea and rectal prolapse occur in cystic fibrosis ?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Does Delayed Puberty occur in cystic fibrosis ?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In COPD, If PCO2 levels is normal—then target oxygen saturation level ?

A

94-98%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Indication for Intubation in Asthma :

A

PH < 7.35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Criteria for LTOT

A

2 readings of PH< 7.3 or (PH 7.3-8 + No PH)

Nocturnal Hypoxaemia
Oedema
Polycythemia
Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

ARDS Diagnostic Criteria :

A

ABCD:

Acute onset
B/L Infiltrates
C- Not cardiogenic
D- Decreased Pao2:Fio2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Does Measels cause bronchiectasis ?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Does ABPA cause Bronchiectasis ?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Does Hypogamaglobulinaemia cause Bronchiectasis ?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Does Sarcoidosis cause Bronchiectasis ?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Does Amyloidosis cause Bronchiectasis ?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Expiratory reserve volume in obese patients :

A

Significantly Decreased— reduced expiratory reserve volume may be observed in cases of obesity, where increased abdominal fat restricts diaphragmatic movement, thus reducing the expiratory reserve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Fev1 and FVC and ERV in Obese patients :

A

reduced FEV1 and FVC with a normal FEV1/FVC ratio, and reduced
expiratory reserve volume.
reduced expiratory reserve volume may be observed in cases of obesity, where increased abdominal fat restricts diaphragmatic movement, thus reducing the expiratory reserve.

71
Q

CXR Findings of silicosis :

A

Egg shell Calcification of hilar lymph nodes

72
Q

Most common organism in Bronchiectasis :

A

Haemophilus Influenza

73
Q

Which drug to be avoided in Churg Strauss ?

A

Monteleukast(Leukotriene receptor antagonists)

74
Q

FEV1/FVC = 0.72

A

0.72-0.8 —Restrictive

< 0.7–Obstructive

75
Q

Pulmonary Haemorhage TLCO -

A

Raised TLCO

76
Q

Chronic sinusitis + nephritic syndrome

A

Granulomatosis with polyangitis(Wegners)

77
Q

Granulomatosis with Polyangitis is associated with which ANCA ?

A

C ANCA

G=C

78
Q

Churg Strauss symptoms :

A

asthma
blood eosinophilia (e.g. > 10%)
paranasal sinusitis
mononeuritis multiplex
renal involvement occurs in around 20%
pANCA positive in 60%

79
Q

Asthma + Rhinitis + The pain is associated with some altered sensation in the lateral palmar aspect of the hand. She feels that her thumb is slightly weaker than before.

A

Churg Strauss

80
Q

Which blood picture is raised in Churg Strauss ?

A

Eosinophils

81
Q

Asbestos causes which zone fibrosis?

A

Lower zone Fibrosis

82
Q

Lower zone Fibrosis mnemonic?

A

ACID
Asbestos
Connective tissue
Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Drugs—Amiodarone
Bromocriptine
Cyclophosphamide
Nitrofurantion
Methotrexate

83
Q

Functional Residual Capacity :

84
Q

Light’s criteria for exudates :

A

Protein level > 30 g/l
If between 25-35:

Pleural fluid protein / Serum protein >0.5
Pleural fluid LDH / Serum LDH >0.6
Pleural fluid LDH > 2/3 * Serum LDH upper limit of normal
Glucose is not used in Light’s Criteria.

85
Q

Prevention of acute mountain sickness :

A

Acetazolamide

86
Q

H/o climb—On/off Headache + Nausea + Fatigue + No cerebral features + No Pulmonary edema. Dx:

A

Acute Mountain Sickness

87
Q

C/I for lung transplant in cystic Fibrosis :

A

Burkholderia cepacia

88
Q

Farmer’s Lungs is caused by :

A

Saccharopolyspora rectivirgula

Farmers are sacche log

89
Q

Vital Capacity :

A

maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration

90
Q

A 34-year-old steelworker presents complaining of episodic shortness of breath. This is particularly noted whilst at work where he describes feeling wheezy and having a tendency to cough. Which one of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic investigation?. Diagnosis and confirmatory test :

A

Occupational Asthma

Serial peak flow measurements at work and at home

91
Q

COPD - still breathless despite using SABA/SAMA and no asthma/steroid responsive features → add

A

LABA + LAMA

92
Q

Most associated substance with Occupational Asthma :

A

Isocyanates

93
Q

What shifts O2 dissociation curve to let :

A

Methhaemoglobinaemia
Carboxyhaemoglobiin
HbF

Low pco2
Low temp
Low Acidity
Low 2-3 DPG

94
Q

What shifts o2 dissociation curve to right ?

A

Cadet rise and face right :

Raised PCO2
Raised Acid
Raised 2-3 DPG
Raised Temperature

95
Q

PTH-related peptide secretion is seen in which cancer ?

A

Sqaumous cell Carcinoma

96
Q

PTH-rp related peptide secretion is seen in :

A

Small cell lung carcinoma

97
Q

Sarcoidosis CXR Staging :

A

Sarcoidosis CXR
1 = BHL
2 = BHL + infiltrates
3 = infiltrates
4 = fibrosis

98
Q

COPD + PH < 7.35 despite ongoing treatment:

A

Non invasive ventilation
( BiPAP— BI= Both oxygenation and ventilation )

99
Q

Pulmonary arterial hypertension is defined as an elevated pulmonary arterial pressure of greater than:

100
Q

SOB + Chest examinataion normal + Hunched back + FEv1/fvc < 0.7

A

Restrictive lung disorders
Chest = Normal —so Not Fibrosis
Hunched back—Therefore its Kyphoscoliosis

101
Q

Before starting azithromycin, which test need to be done ?

A

Do ECG
As azithromycin causes prolonged QT interval

102
Q

Wood related work + Worsening dry cough + productive cough + SOB + Weight loss + CXR—B/L ground glass opacities in upper-mid zone

A

Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

103
Q

OSA— lifestyle changes done. Next step ?

104
Q

Asthma + Confused. Next step ?

A

Referral to ITU

Confusion is life threatening

105
Q

Painful skin rash + Coug. Dx and which blood level will be raised ?

A

Sarcoidosis
ACE levels

106
Q

Known lung cancer + proximal Myopathy + Hypertesnsion + low pottasium, Dx and pathology ?

A

Small Cell Lung Cancer

Pathology—Ectopic ACTH Secretion

107
Q

TLCO in Absestosis :

108
Q

Dockyard worker + Worsening SOB + Pleural Plaques

A

Asbestosis

109
Q

No Smoking + Lung Cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

110
Q

Is malabsorption a feature of Kartaganner ?

111
Q

Heart related condition in Kartagener :

A

Dextrocardia

112
Q

fertility in Kartagener ?

A

Subfertility

113
Q

Lungs related condition in Kartagener ?

A

Bronchiectasis and recurrent sinusitis

114
Q

Silica predisposes to which lung condition ?

A

Tuberculosis

115
Q

Diagnosis of COPD :

A

FEV1/FVC < 70% + symptoms suggestive of COPD.

According to NICE guidelines, the diagnosis of COPD requires both the presence of symptoms (such as breathlessness, chronic cough, regular sputum production, frequent winter bronchitis, and wheeze) and the demonstration of airflow obstruction on spirometry.

116
Q

PEFR in COPD :

A

No Value

COPD : problem with smaller airways.
PEFR: Checks the bigger airways.

Therefore no role in copd

117
Q

H/o Climb + shortness of breath and a pink frothy cough. Examination reveals bibasal crackles

A

high altitude pulmonary oedema (HAPE)

Nifedipine

118
Q

Varenicline Side effect :

119
Q

Value of PEFR in life threatening Asthma :

A

PEFR < 33 %

120
Q

COPD Staging

A

FEV1
> 80% Stage 1 - Mild - symptoms 50-79% Stage 2 - Moderate
30-49% Stage 3 - Severe
< 30% Stage 4 - Very Severe

121
Q

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis area of fibrosis :

A

Lower zone fibrosis

122
Q

Pleural Fluid point for Indication of placing Chest tube :

A

Pleural Fluid PH < 7.2
Purulent Pleural Fluid
Presence of organism

123
Q

Genotype which confers the highest risk for developing emphysema

124
Q

Cavitating lung cancer :

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

125
Q

Which two conditions does amyloidosis does not cause ?

A

Bronchiectasis and B/l hilar lymphadenopathy

126
Q

What kind of effusion does hypothyroidism cause ?

A

Transudate

127
Q

Transudate Pleural effusion causes :

A

All the failures + Meigs
Heart failure
Thyroid Failure—hypothyroidism
Kidney failure—nephrotic
Liver failure—Hypoalbuminaemia

128
Q

Cystic fibrosis which chromosome defect ?

A

Chromosome 7

129
Q

Hypercalcemia pathology in Sarcoidosis :

A

Increased activation of Vitamin D

130
Q

presentation of dyspnoea and hypoxaemia 72-hours postoperativel

A

Basal Atelectasis

Pneumothorax is typically more of acute onset shortness of breath which makes the answer incorrec

131
Q

Pleural fluid >__ is exudative :

132
Q

LABA examples :

A

Formeterol
Salmetrol

133
Q

ICS examples:

A

Budesonide

134
Q

PiMZ

A

carrier and unlikely to develop emphysema if a non-smoker

135
Q

Pleural Plaques found. Next step ?

A

No follow up required

136
Q

Which one of the following anti A 41-year-old man with a past history of asthma presents with pain and weakness in his left hand. Examination findings are consistent with a left ulnar nerve palsy. Blood tests reveal an eosinophilia. Which one of the following antibodies is most likely to be present?

A

P Anca

Mononeuritis multiplex —Purg straus

137
Q

In emphysema, The TLCO ?

138
Q

Left to right cardiac shunt, TLCO ?

A

More blood available , hence the TLCO increases

139
Q

Polycythemia long term complication :

140
Q

Nasal Crusting + Hempotysis + Raised urea creat

A

Granulomatosis with polyangitis

141
Q

Most common organism found in COPD exacerbation :

A

Haemophilus Influenza

142
Q

the triad of erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, and polyarthritis.

A

Lofgren’s syndrome

143
Q

single most important intervention in patients with COPD

A

Smoking Cessation

144
Q

For COPD, What are the most appropriate initial settings for the ventilator?

A

IPAP of 10 cm H20, EPAP=5 cm H20

145
Q

Which one of the following is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with community-acquired pneumonia?

146
Q

Community acquired pneumonia 1st line Rx?

A

Penicillin—Amoxicillin

If you want to be respected in community, you have to be a man of pen (Penicillin )

Moderate to severe—Add Macrolides

Amoxicillin( Co-amoxiclav) + Clarithromycin

147
Q

C/I for varenicline?

A

Past history of self harm

148
Q

Is CRP a good tool to assess prognosis in pneumonia ?

149
Q

What is the main role of alpha-1 antitrypsin in the body?

A

Protease Inhibitor

150
Q

extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA), also known as hypersensitivity pneumonitis in farmers is caused by ?

A

Contaminated Hay

151
Q

COPD patient with The posterioranterior (PA) chest x-ray on admission shows a unilateral pleural effusion. Which one of the following is the most useful next line investigation?

A

Pleural aspiration under ultrasound guidance.

The most direct way to determine the cause of a pleural effusion is by analysing the fluid itself. This can provide information about its nature (transudative vs exudative), microbiology (if infection is suspected) and cytology (for malignant cells). Therefore, pleural aspiration with ultrasound guidance would be the most appropriate next line investigation according to UK guidelines.

152
Q

progressive exertional dyspnoea associated with clubbing and a spirometry—FEV1/FVC >0.7 + Bibasal crackles. Dx and Ix

A

Restrictive + Bibasal Crackles(lower zone—affected) : Fibrosis

Ix- CT

153
Q

Acute asthma attack : Rx?

A

OSSIM
O2
SABA
Steroids
Ipratopium Bromide
Magnesium Sulphate

Aminophyline

154
Q

Which HLA in Bronchiectasis ?

A

HLA DR1

Bronch1ectas1s

155
Q

B/L Hilar Lymphadenopathy + parotid enlargement, fever, and anterior uveitis.

A

Heerfordt syndrome

156
Q

Heerfordt syndrome

A

B/L Hilar Lymphadenopathy + parotid enlargement, fever, and anterior uveitis.

157
Q

O2 dissociation curve in Hypocapnia ?

A

Shifts to left

158
Q

diagnostic test for obstructive sleep apnoea

A

Polysomnography

159
Q

Most imp aspect of management of asbestosis:

A

Smoking cessation

160
Q

Oxygen in stroke patients ?

A

No oxygen therapy in stroke

161
Q

Pathology of emphysema ?

A

destruction of alveolar walls secondary to proteinases

162
Q

What is the normal function of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator?

A

Chloride channel

163
Q

Raised TLCO + Multifocal airspace consolidation noted

A

Pulmonary Haemorrhage

Asthma wont have this image finding

164
Q

KCO in Obese :

165
Q

Obese patient spirometry

A

Fev1/FVc > 0.7 + Raised KCO

166
Q

ARDS CXR:

A

bilateral infiltrates in both bases.

167
Q

CXR of Chondrosarcoma :

A

Calcification

168
Q

Fever + Dry Cough + SOB + B/L Patchy Opacities + Raised ESR and CRP+ LACK OF RESPONSE TO ANTIBIOTICS.

A

LACK OF RESPONSE TO ANTIBIOTICS—Cryptogenic organising Pneumonia.

We would expect a community acquired pneumonia to respond to antibiotics.

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is a possibility as the two conditions can have similar histories and chest x-ray appearances but the is no aetiologic agent mentioned in the history so it makes it less likely.

Our patient is a non-smoker so lung cancer is less likely.

169
Q

pneumothoraces occurring in menstruating women:

A

Catamenial Pneumothorax

170
Q

single most important piece of advice to reduce his risk of further pneumothoraces?

A

Stop Smoking

171
Q

Differentiate PE and Anxiety :

A

PE has lower PCO2