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Gastroenterology > Hematology > Flashcards

Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Disproportionate Microcytic hypochromic anaemia = Hb=slightly less(110) + MCV = a lot lesser ( 60s) + Fatigue/Asymptomatic+ Raised HbA2 + basophilic stipling and target cells.Dx:

A

B thalasemia Trait.

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2
Q

B thalasemia Trait.

A

Disproportionate Microcytic hypochromic anaemia = Hb=slightly less(110) + MCV = a lot lesser ( 60s) + Fatigue/Asymptomatic.

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3
Q

Electrophoresis result in B thalasemia trait ?

A

Raised HBA2.

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4
Q

Blood film/ type of cells in B thalasemia trait ?

A

Basophilic stipling and occasional target cells.

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5
Q

Diagnostic test of B thalasemia trait ?

A

Haemoglobin electrophoresis = Raised HBA2.

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6
Q

Which mutation in Polycythemia Rudra Vera ?

A

JAK 2 Mutation.

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7
Q

Pruritis after bath + epistaxis + recurrent infection + splenomegaly+
Stroke history
JAK 2 mutation + all 3 : hb , tlc, platelet: all increased. Think :

A

Polycythemia Rubra Vera.

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8
Q

Polycythemia rubra Vera can lead to which condition :

A

AML and Myelofibrosis.

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9
Q

C/o SOB+ Lethargy+ night sweats+ Bone pain + H/o Polycythemia Rubra Vera. Which cancer most likely /

A

Acute Myeloid leukemia.

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10
Q

Marked spherocytosis + DAT= negative. Dx:

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis.

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11
Q

Marked spherocytosis + DAT=Positive. Dx:

A

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anaemia.
( AIHA)

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12
Q

Diagnostic test in Hereditary Spherocytosis :

A

EMA binding test.

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13
Q

H/O Hereditary Spherocytosis + Now : viral infection—Presents with weakness and lethargy.

A

Hemolytic crisis secondary to hereditary Spherocytosis.

Rx: Folic acid + - Fluids, Supportive Rx

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14
Q

Rx for Hemolytic crisis secondary to H.Spherocytosis : Rx:

A

Folic acid.

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15
Q

What genotype is associated with a milder form of sickle cell ?

A

HBSc.

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16
Q

Which UTI meds can lead to pancytopenia ?

A

Trimoethoprim.

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17
Q

Most common symptom of Myelofibrosis :

A

Fatigue.

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18
Q

What type of cells in Myelofibrosis :

A

Tear drop cells.

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19
Q

What is increased in Myelofibrosis, indicating high turnover ?

A

Urea and LDH.

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20
Q

What is increased in early stage of Myelofibrosis ?

A

High WBC and High Platelet count.

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21
Q

What indicates Dry tap in Myelofibrosis ?

A

Unable to take bone marrow sample.

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22
Q

Elderly + Basophilia + Massive splenomegaly. Dx:

A

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia.

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23
Q

Mutation In CML ?

A

BCR- ABL ( Tyrosine Kinase pathway)

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24
Q

Rx in CML ?

A

Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor ( Imatinib)

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25
Q

Poor prognosis in CLL :

A

Deletion of 17p13 region.

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26
Q

K/C/O Sickle cell + Throbbing pain in leg. Dx and Investigation to diagnose :

A

Dx: Vaso occlusive crisis.
Ix: No Ix required. Dx is clinical.

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27
Q

Transfusion—SOB+ Decrease in BP. Dx and Rx?

A

Transfusion related acute lung injury. ( TRALI)

Rx: IV fluids + oxygen + escalation of care.

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28
Q

20-30 year old + low in IgA, IgG, IgM+ Recurrent chest infection. Dx:

A

Common variable immunodeficiency syndrome.

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29
Q

Lethargy + Splenomegaly +JAK 2 + High Urea and LDH + WBC and Platelets : slightly Raised. Dx and blood film :

A

Myelofibrosis
Tear drop cells

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30
Q

Dapsone + Dyspnoea =

A

Methhaemoglobinaemia.

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31
Q

Neutropenic sepsis is caused by :

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis.

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32
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis is gram ?

A

Gram Positive , coagulase negative.

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33
Q

mechanism of action of DDAVP in von Willebrand’s disease?

A

Induces release of von Willebrand’s factor from endothelial cells

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34
Q

Antibiotic which causes hemolysis in G6PD?

A

Ciprofloxacin, sulphamethaxole, co trimoxazole.

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35
Q

Acute myeloid leukaemia - poor prognosis:

A

Deletion of chromosome 5 or 7

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36
Q

TTP features and Rx:

A

Terrible Pentad : Fever + Neuro. + Anaemia+ Decrease in Platelets + AKI= Increase in Urea and Creat.

Rx: Plasma Exchange.

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37
Q

TTP deficiency of what:

A

Inhibition or deficiency of ADAM TS 13 = leads to failure to cleave VWF multimers.

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38
Q

In TTP, The deficiency of ADAM TS 13 leads to what :

A

Leads to failure to cleave VWF multimers.

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39
Q

Wiscot Aldrich syndrome, features and mnemonic :

A

WATER:

WA:Wiscot Aldrich, WASP gene mutation.
T: Thrombocytopenia: Decrease in platelets
E: Eczema
R: Recurrent pyogenic infection.

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40
Q

Both B and T cell deficiency :

A

Wash your B and Ts:

Wiscot
Ataxia Telangiectasia
SCID
Hyper IgM syndrome.

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41
Q

B cell deficiency :

A

ABC:

A: IgA deificiency
B : Brutons
C: Common variable immunodeficiency

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42
Q

Recurrent bruising + Recurrent infection + eczema + low platelet + anaemia

A

Wiscot Aldrich syndrome.

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43
Q

Most common type of lung cancer in non smokers:

A

Lung Adenocarcinoma.

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44
Q

Rabiscurase MOA:

A

Converts uric acid to allantoin.

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45
Q

Most common symptom of Superior vena cava obstruction :

A

Dyspnoea.

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46
Q

Hodkin’s Lymphoma poor prognosis

A

Fever
Weight loss
Night sweats

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47
Q

The universal donor of fresh frozen plasma is :

A

AB RhD negative blood

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48
Q

Myelofibrosis: High or Low LAP ?

A

High LAP score.

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49
Q

Haemophilia A , which factor ?

A

Factor 8 ( Aight)

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50
Q

Haemophiila B , which factor ?

A

Factor 9

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51
Q

Haemophilia clinical features ?

A

Haemarthroses.
Haematomas.
Prolonged Bleeding after surgery.

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52
Q

Anaphylactic reaction to bee sting, First line Ix:

A

Radio allergosorbent assay. ( RAST)

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53
Q

In Acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the single most important test in determining his prognosis?

A

Cytogenetics.

Cytogenetics detects chromosomal abnormalities—which has biggest effect on AML prognosis.

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54
Q

Cytogenetics detects what ?

A

C=C= Chromosomal Abnormalities.

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55
Q

Neutropenic sepsis Rx?

A

Filgrastim.

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56
Q

K/c/O cancer= Hodkins + Recent chemo+ C/o : Fever+ Neutrophils= < 0.5 10^9. Dx:

A

Neutropenic Sepsis.

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57
Q

Aetio of Neutropenic Sepsis:

A

Staph epidermidis.
Gm + cocci, Coagulase Negative.

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58
Q

In Hemolysis, Haptoglobin: Increase or Decrease ?

A

Haptoglobin decreases.

As Haptoglobin binds to free haemoglobin.

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59
Q

1 adrenaline
2 adrenaline
>2 adrenaline . Admit for how many hours ?

A

1 Adrenaline= Admit for 2 hours.
2 Adrenaline= Admit for 6 Hours.
>2 Adrenaline = Admit for 12 hours.

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60
Q

Aprepitant MOA:

A

Antiemetic which Binds to NK1 receptor( Chef wearing Apron , Nikon Camera)

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61
Q

Which products are used to avoid transfusion-associated graft versus host disease?

A

Irradiated Blood products.

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61
Q

Acute myeloid leukaemia - good prognosis:

A

good prognosis: t(15;17)

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62
Q

Woman with bone metastases- most likely to originate in the :

A

Breast

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63
Q

Isolated neutropenia in which ethnicity ?

A

Black Afro Caribbean.

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64
Q

Gallstones is common in which blood disorder ?

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis.

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65
Q

Philadelphia chromosome good or bad prognosis in ALL ?

A

Bad prognosis

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66
Q

VIT B12 absorption ?

A

Active transport in terminal ileum

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67
Q

Taxanes MOA:

A

Prevents micro tubules polymerisation.

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68
Q

T(9:22)

A

Philadelphia chromosome in CML.

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69
Q

Transmission of which type of infection is most likely to occur following a platelet transfusion?

A

Bacterial.

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70
Q

What is the single most important factor in determining whether cryoprecipitate should be given?

A

Low fibrinogen.

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71
Q

Pt on warfarin—Trauma—#ge—blood transfusion—which blood product to give additionally?

A

Prothrombin complex concentrate.

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72
Q

Best Prognosis in Hodkins:

A

Lymphocyte Rich ( Rich ppl have better bank accounts)

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73
Q

Worst Prognosis in Hodkins :

A

Lymphocyte Depleted ( Poor ppl have depleted bank accounts )

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74
Q

The oncologist recommends starting a medication which can specifically target this type of breast cancer in post-menopausal women only

A

Aromatase inhibitor- Azoles.

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75
Q

CKD is the most common cause of Which clotting factor deficiency ?

A

Anti thrombin 3.

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76
Q

Anterior mediastinal mass + symptoms of myasthenia = Dx and Ix of choice:

A

Thymoma.
Ix of choice : CT scan of chest.

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77
Q

Thymoma clinical features.:

A

Anterior mediastinal mass + symptoms of myasthenia = thymoma

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78
Q

Prostrate cancer—new onset back pain+ Peri anal numbness + leg weakness. Dx and Rx:

A

Neoplastic spinal cord compression.
Rx: high dose dexamethasone orally immediately.

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79
Q

Painless neck lump + B symptoms. Dx and Translocation:

A

Follicular Lymphoma.
Translocation: t( 14, 18)

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80
Q

Transfusion + now—fever chills rigors. Dx and Cause:

A

Dx: Transfusion related infection
Cause: platelets

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81
Q

Screening for Hereditary angioedema?

A

C4 levels

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82
Q

What is not involved in patho of hereditary angioedema?

A

Histamine.

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83
Q

Isolated thrombocytopenia +Increase in bleeding time. Easy bruising + Epistaxis. Dx and Rx?

A

ITP
Rx: oral prednisolone.

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84
Q

ITP Rx:

A

Oral prednisolone.

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85
Q

In ITP antibodies are against :

A

Glycoprotein 2b/3a complex.

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86
Q

Cells seen in DIC:

A

Schistocyte.

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87
Q

DIC mnemonic and features:

A

Damn I am clotting.
Decreased Fibrinogen + Increased D dimer.

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88
Q

Decreased Fibrinogen + Increased D dimer. Dx?

A

DIC

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89
Q

CML , LAP score , high or low ?

A

Low.

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90
Q

Family H/o + Abd pain + Neuro symptoms- hallucinations , agitation , change of mood + reduced sensation of foot +

A

Acute intermittent porphyria.

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91
Q

Dx of Acute intermittent porphyria :

A

Porphobilinogen.

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92
Q

Rx for Acute intermittent porphyria :

A

Heme.

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93
Q

Bombesin is a tumour marker in

A

Small cell lung cancer

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94
Q

Small cell lung cancer tumour marker:

A

Bombesin.

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95
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome. Rx:

A

Rasburicase + IV Fluids.

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96
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome mnemonic and electrolytes :

A

UKPc: Increase in urea, creat, phosphate,
Decrease in calcium.

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97
Q

H/o Breast cancer + Osteosarcoma. Most likely Dx:

A

Li Fraumeni syndrome.

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98
Q

Tumour marker in Li Fraumeni :

A

P53.

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99
Q

Difference bw TRALI and TACO:

A

No Hypotension in TRALI.

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100
Q

Post splenectomy which types of cells are seen ?

A

Howel Jolly bodies.

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101
Q

Which diabetic drugs causes hemolysis in G6PD?

A

Sulphonamides- Glimepiride.
Biguinide- Metformin.

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102
Q

Which bodies are seen in Leukamoid reaction:

A

Dohle bodies.

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103
Q

Leukamoid reaction features:

A

High LAP score
Dohle Bodies
Left shift of neutrophils.

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104
Q

which direction of shift of neutroohils in Leukamoid reaction ?

A

Left direction shift.

105
Q

Heparin binds which clotting factor ?

A

Antithrombin 3.

106
Q

Which one of the following causes of thrombophilia is associated with resistance to heparin?

A

Antithrombin 3 deficiency.

107
Q

Which urine test in lead poisoning ?

A

Increase in urinary coproporphyrin.

108
Q

Blood picture in lead poisoning

A

Microcytic anaemia plus basophilic stipling.

109
Q

Pt started on warfarin+ Now develops necrotic skin condition : Dx

A

Protein c deficiency.

Protein c deficiency= Hypercoaguable state + warfarin= blood thinner= this imbalance leads to necrotic skin condition.

110
Q

Thymoma assn :

A

Myasthenia gravis
Red cell aplasia.

Dermatomyositis
SIADH

111
Q

Food allergy test:

A

Skin prick test.

112
Q

JAK 2 + isolated increase in platelets. Dx:

A

Essential Thrombocytosis.
Rx: Hydroxyurea ( Hydroxycarbamide)

113
Q

Essential thrombocytosis. Rx

A

Hydroxycarbamide.

114
Q

Coeliacs causes which type of spleen issues ? And causes which type of cells to appear /

A

Hyposplenism.
Howell jolly bodies.

115
Q

Diagnostic test in anaphylaxis

A

Serum tryptase.

116
Q

Cyclophosphamide Adverse and its prevention :

A

Haemorhagic cystitis
Prevention: MESNA

117
Q

H/o Sickle cell disease. Hb, WBC, Platelet : all three decreased. C/o fever cough myalgia. Dx:

A

Aplastic crisis

118
Q

Raynauds + waldernstrom. Dx: which type ?

A

Type 1 cryoglobulinaemia.

119
Q

Hepatitis c + Waldenstriom, which type ?

A

Type 3 cryoglobulinaemia.

120
Q

_____is the empirical antibiotic of choice for neutropenic sepsis

A

Piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin)

121
Q

Dyspnoea + Normal PO2+ Decreased SPO2. Dx:

A

Methhaemoglobinaemia.
Rx:IV methylthioninium chloride (methylene blue) if acquired

122
Q

Rx of Methhaemoglobinaemia.

A

IV methylthioninium chloride (methylene blue) if acquired

123
Q

PE+ Recurrent DVT- unprovoked. DX:

A

Activated protein c resistance( Factor 5 Leiden)

124
Q

Which antibiotics causes Methhaemoglobinaemia ?

A

Sulphamethaxzole—Co-trimoxazole.

125
Q

Which infection ass with MALT= gastric lymphoma

A

H.Pylori.

126
Q

Cisplatin MOA:

A

Cross linking in DNA.

127
Q

Methaemoglobinaemia Patho :

A

oxidation of Fe2+ in haemoglobin to Fe3+

128
Q

Intravascular hemolysis mnemonic :

A

MRCGP

Mismatch blood transfusion
Red cell fragmentation- heart valves,TTP
G6PD
Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinaemia.

129
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinaemia diagnostic investigation :

A

Cytometry- To detect low levels of CD55 and CD59.

130
Q

Most common type of Hodkins lymphoma :

A

Nodular Sclerosing.

131
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria is deficiency due to :

A

Porphobilinogen deaminase

132
Q

Anaphylaxis - serum tryptase reach peak at :

A

Serum tryptase reach peak at one hour.

133
Q

SVC obstruction

A

Dexamethasone.

134
Q

Hodkins lymphoma- spread to other organs. Which stage ?

A

Stage 4

135
Q

mutation is associated with prostate cancer in men?

A

BRACA 2

136
Q

BRAC-2 in men mnemonic :

A

BP2:
Breast
Prostrate
Pancreas.

137
Q

Hodkins = both sides of diaphragm , which stage ?

A

Stage 3

138
Q

Abd pain + red coloured urine+ rapid weakness in legs. Dx :

A

Acute intermittent porphyria.

139
Q

Sickle cell patients should be started____ to reduce the incidence of complications and acute crises

A

started on long term hydroxycarbamide/hydroxyurea.

140
Q

most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone in men :

A

Prostrate cancer.

141
Q

Patients starting rituximab should be screened for__

A

Hepatitis B before starting treatment

142
Q

Hereditary angioedema is caused by deficiency of___

A

C1 esterase inhibitor

143
Q

Baseline haemoglobin of 110g/L: sudden drop of Hb—H/o Sickle cell. Dx:

A

Aplastic Crisis.

144
Q

Sideroblastic anaemia causes and mnemonic :

A

MALT:
Myelodysplasia.
Alcohol.
Lead
Anti TB drugs.

145
Q

Anti TB drugs causes which type of anaemia ?

A

Sideroblastic anaemia.

146
Q

Which stain in Sideroblastic anaemia ?

A

Pearl’s stain.

147
Q

Rx of Sideroblastic anaemia :

A

Pyridoxine.

148
Q

Burkits lymphoma Translocation:

A

T(8,14)

149
Q

Which gene in Burkits lymphoma?

A

C-Myc.

150
Q

Which virus in Burkits lymphoma ?

A

Epstein Barr virus.

151
Q

Biopsy findings in Burkits lymphoma ?

A

Starry sky appearance.

152
Q

Growth in Jaw + Starry sky appearance. Dx:

A

Burkits lymphoma.

153
Q

ESR value in polycythemia Rubra Vera :

A

Low

154
Q

Rx for hairy cell leukemia:

A

Interferon alpha.

155
Q

H/o h.spherocytosis + Episodic upper abdomen pain. Dx:

A

Billiary colic.

156
Q

How is capecitabine Administered ?

A

Orally.

157
Q

Which sex is a good prognosis in CLL ?

A

Female sex.

158
Q

most common inherited bleeding disorder:

A

Von WIllebrand disease.

159
Q

most useful marker of prognosis in myeloma?

A

B2 Microglobulin.

160
Q

Which is not a treatment modality in ITP ?

A

Plasma exchange.

161
Q

Alpha thalasemia on which chromosome ?

A

Chromosome 16.

162
Q

Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic Ass with increased risk of :

A

VTE.

163
Q

primary immunodeficiency is due to a defect in neutrophil function?

A

Chronic Granulomatous disease.

164
Q

Common variable immunodeficiency Is due to defect in which primary immunodeficiency ?

A

B cell function.

165
Q

Ovarian cancer tumour marker :

A

CA 125.

166
Q

Peritoneal cancer tumour marker :

A

CA 125.

167
Q

Pancreatic cancer :

A

CA 19 9

168
Q

Breast cancer tumour marker :

A

CA 15 3

169
Q

H/o Polycythemia rubra + petechia + gingival bleeding+ DIC picture. Dx:

A

Acute Promyelocytic leukemia

170
Q

Which of the following chemotherapy agents is most likelcy responsible for hypomagnesemia ?

A

cisplatin.

171
Q

Aromatase inhibitors common side effects in post menopausal women ?

A

Osteoporosis

172
Q

The presence of haemolysis with blister cells on the blood film is highly suggestive of____

A

G6PD deficiency

173
Q

Blood smear of G6PD:

A

Heinz bodies
Bite cells
Blister cells.

174
Q

Anti malarials causes hemolysis in :

A

G6PD

175
Q

Translocation of Acute promyelocytic leukaemia :

A

t(15;17)

176
Q

T(15;17)

A

Acute Promyelocytic leukaemia.

177
Q

irinotecan MOA:

A

Inhibition of topoisomerase 1.

178
Q

Methhaemoglobinaemia. Po2 and spo2 level :

A

Normal PO2 and low Spo2( low oxygen saturation)

179
Q

Recurrent pancreatitis + Recurrent parotitis. Dx:

A

IgG4 disease.

180
Q

which gene proliferation in follicular lymphoma ?

A

Increases BCL2 transcription

181
Q

Hereditary angioedema mode of inheritance ?

A

Autosomal Dominant.

182
Q

Doxorubicin Adverse:

A

Cardiomyopathy

183
Q

Vincristine Adverse :

A

Peripheral neuropathy.

184
Q

Imatinib MOA:

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitors

185
Q

Ototoxicity is caused by which Anti cancer drugs ?

A

Cisplatin.

186
Q

Cisplatin adverse :

A

Hypomagnesemia
Ototoxicity
Peripheral neuropathy

187
Q

Acute Promyelocytic leukemia Rx:

A

All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA)

188
Q

Abdomen pain, diarrhoea and progressive weakness and pain in the limbs. She looks low in mood and tearful at times. You ask for a urine sample and leaves it standing near the window. 20 minutes later, you notice that the urine has become darker.

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

189
Q

M protein > 30 g/l + monoclonal plasma cell infiltrate.
▪︎No CRAB features. Dx and Rx:

A

Smouldering Multiple Myeloma.
Rx: Observe and Monitor.

190
Q

Cyclophosphamide - MOA:

A

Causes cross-linking in DNA

191
Q

HTLV1 association :

A

Adult T cell leukemia

192
Q

Do fungal infection cause eosinophilia ?

A

No

193
Q

IgG paraprotein level in MGUS?

A

<30 g/L

194
Q

4 year old + Splenomegaly + clinically anaemic+ H/o Sickle Cell :

A

Sequestration crisis.

195
Q

IV drug user + hep C + Rheumatoid arthritis +Purpuric Rash + low C4. Dx:

A

Cryoglobulinaemia.

196
Q

Megaloblastic Anaemia Rx

A

Intramuscular vitamin B12 + start oral folic acid when vitamin B12 levels are normal

197
Q

Congenital cause of Methhaemoglobinaemia :

A

NADH methaemoglobin reductase deficiency

198
Q

H/o H Spherocytosis—C/o- Lethargy. Hb low , Retic=low. Dx:

A

Parvo virus infection.

In Hemolytic anaemia, retic count is high. It’s Low here.

199
Q

Most useful follow-up investigation(s) to detect disease recurrence in testicular cancer.

A

Alpha-fetoprotein + beta-HCG.

200
Q

weight loss, anaemia, splenomegaly, + Leucocyte with all stage of maturation. Dx:

A

CML

201
Q

T(11,14):

A

Mantle Cell Lymphoma.

202
Q

What chemical mediator is mainly responsible for the tissue oedema seen in patients in hereditary angioedema?

A

Bradykinin.

203
Q

Does penicillin cause G6PD?

A

No.

204
Q

Treatment of hereditary angioedema?

A

Anabolic steroids.

205
Q

Is dermatomyositis ass with Thymoma ?

A

yes

206
Q

Is motor neuron disease ass with Thymoma ?

A

No.

207
Q

Which two anaemias are seen in PNH ?

A

hemolytic anaemia and aplastic anaemia.

208
Q

Which test is positive in PNH ?

A

Positive Ham test.

209
Q

Is hemearthosis a feature of PNH ?

A

No. its seen in haemophilias.

210
Q

Lead poisoning mnemonic and features:

A

LEADS
L- lead lines on gingival
E- encephalopathy
A- Abdomen colic
D- wrist drop- peripheral neuropathy.

211
Q

Type of cell seen in lead poisoning:

A

Microcytic Anaemia + basophilic stipling.

212
Q

Mode of inheritance in Wiscot :

A

X linked recessive( water down)

213
Q

SVC obstruction is caused by primary malignancy or metastatic malignancy ?

A

Primary malignancy.

214
Q

Stoke + isolated increase in platelets. Dx and Mutation :

A

Dx: Essential thrombocytosis.
Mutation : JAK 2 mutation.

215
Q

Mutations seen in essential thrombocytosis:

A

JAK 2 mutation and CALR

216
Q

Which toxin leads to hepatocellular cancer ?

A

Aflatoxin

217
Q

Elderly + Increase in Lymphocytes + which cancer ?

A

Chronic Lyphocytic Leukemia.

218
Q

Investigation of choice in CLL :

A

Flow Cytometry/Immunophytic - detects Antibodies on the surface

219
Q

Deletion of which chromosome in

A

Deletion of Long arm chromosome 13.

220
Q

Unusual taste in mouth is a classical feature of :

A

LEAD poisoning.

221
Q

Abdominal pain, constipation, neuropsychiatric features, basophilic stippling

A

Lead poisoning.

222
Q

itchiness in her mouth and at the back of her throat after consuming peaches on several occasions with some mild swelling which settles down over time + Seasonal Variation:

A

Oral allergy syndrome.

223
Q

Which of the following has a role in monitoring disease activity in colorectal cancer?

A

CEA

224
Q

Difference between H. Angioedema and anaphylaxis :

A

H.angioedema has painful macular rash.
Skin manifestation in anaphylaxis is : urticaria.

225
Q

Methotrexate MOA:

A

inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis

226
Q

Urinary findings in Acute Intermittent Porphyria.

A

Increased urinary porphobilinogen between acute attacks

227
Q

Imp Adverse of SERM:

A

DVT

228
Q

DVT in pregnancy. Rx:

A

Low molecular Weight Heparin.

(Heparin helps in pregnancy )

229
Q

Rituximab acts against :

A

CD 20 and B cells

230
Q

What to screen before giving Rituximab?

A

Patients starting rituximab should be screened for hepatitis B before starting treatment

231
Q

Is Haemochromatosis ass with Polycythemia?

A

No.

232
Q

Is dehydration ass with Polycythemia ?

A

Yes

233
Q

Common causes of polycythemia ?

A

Polycythemia Rubra Vera.
COPD.
Stress/ Dehydration.
Fibroids.
Hypernephroma.

234
Q

If allergy to latex, then allergy to which food ?

A

Banana

235
Q

Hypodiploidy : Good or Bad prognosis In ALL ?

A

Bad prognosis

236
Q

Epistaxis + Bleeding Gum+ Bilobed large nuclear cells. Dx:

A

Acute myeloid leukemia.

237
Q

K/C/O Sickle + Fever + Dyspnoea + low spo2 + CXR= opacification.

A

Dx: Acute chest syndrome
Rx: Oxygen, IV FLuids, Incentive spirometry.

238
Q

CLL - treatment:

A

Fludarabine, Cyclophosphamide and Rituximab (FCR)

239
Q

MGUS+ Organomegaly + No bone lesions. think :

A

Waldenstorm

240
Q

Headache+ epistaxis + hepatospleomegaly + Pancytopenia + IgM peak. Dx:

A

Waldernsotrm.

241
Q

Which peak in waldenstorm ?

A

IgM Peak

242
Q

Blood picture in Waldensorm :

A

Pancytopenia

243
Q

What type of blood cells in Waldenstorm ?

A

B lymphocytes + Plasma cells

244
Q

DVT plus IgM peak. Dx?

A

Waldenstorm.

DVT= Hyperviscocity syndrome

245
Q

CLL is due to :

A

Monoclonal Proliferation of B lymphocytes.

246
Q

Complications developed in Waldenstorm :

A

Hyperviscocity complications ( Headache, DVT)

247
Q

Cancer patients with VTE Rx:

A

Continue DOAC for 6 months.

248
Q

Provoked VTE Rx:

A

DOAC for 3 Months

249
Q

Unprovoked VTE Rx:

A

DOAC for 6 Months

250
Q

Elderly + Absolute Lymphocytosis. Dx:

A

CLL

251
Q

Type of cells in CLL :

A

Smudge cells.

252
Q

Diagnostic test for CLL.

A

Flow Cytometry/ Immunophenotyping : to detect antibodies.

253
Q

Warm autoimmune Hemolytic anaemia is ass with Ig?

A

IgG

It’s warm in G=Ghana( Outside Uk)

254
Q

Cold autoimmune Hemolytic anaemia is ass with ig?

A

IgM

It’s miserable in Manchester.

255
Q

Coombs test ( DAT test) in warm autoimmune Hemolytic ?

A

Coombs or DAAT : Positive.

256
Q

Recurrent infection in CLL is due to :

A

hypogammaglobulinaemia

257
Q

Which type of anaemia occurs in CLL as complication:

A

Warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

258
Q

Common complication in warm autoimmune Hemolytic anaemia ?

A

Lymphoma.

259
Q

Raynauds+ Spherocytosis. Dx and First line Ix?

A

Next line Ix: Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)

Dx: Autoimmune Hemolytic anaemia.

260
Q
A

Gastroenterology (4 decks)

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