Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Small Animal (Poppy) > Respiratory Disease > Flashcards

Respiratory Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Effect of lower airway disease on breathing pattern

A

Inspiratory phase is shorter than expiratory (normally this is reversed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Effect of upper respiratory tract on breathing pattern

A

Slow respiratory rate and exaggerated inspiratory effort (longer phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Effect of pleural disease on breathing pattern

A

Inspiratory and expiratory effort increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Effect of lower respiratory restrictive disease (e.g. IPF, pleural effusion) on breathing pattern

A

Fast shallow breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tachypnoea

A

Increased respiratory effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hyperpnoea

A

Increased respiratory rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Orthopnoea

A

Dyspnoea in any position other than standing or erect sitting (usually due to bilateral pulmonary oedema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Trepopnoea

A

Dyspnoea in one lateral recumbency but not the other (unilateral lung or pleural disease, or unilateral airway obstruction e.g. unilateral pleural effusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Abnormal sounds that occur due to narrowing of airways

A

Wheeze (high pitched) and rhonchi (low pitched)
Most commonly on expiration, can be on inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cell type in bronchiole epithelium

A

Clara cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the respiratory portion of lungs consist of?

A

Respiratory bronchioles
Alveoli
Simple squamous epithelium and scant loose connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Main clinical sign with airway disease

A

Cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Disease of which lung structures cause breathlessness?

A

Interstitial tissue
Alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The 4 causes of respiratory distress

A

URT
Pleural space
Lung
Non-CRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Characteristics of URT disease

A

Inspiratory difficulty
Audible noise
(May be cyanosis/cough)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Characteristics of pleural space disease

A

Characteristic respiratory pattern
Muffled heart and lung sounds?
(May be cyanosis/cough)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Management of URT disease

A

Mostly surgical
Emergency tracheostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Management of pleural space disease

A

Ultrasound thorax
Remove fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Characteristics of lung disease

A

Alveolar (blood/pus/parasites) or interstitial
(May be cyanosis/cough)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Characteristics of non-CRS conditions causing respiratory disease

A

Often open-mouth, panting, rapid, shallow breathing
Rarely severe difficulty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Differentials for non-CRS breathing difficulty

A

Hyperthermia/heat stroke/fever
Obesity
Excitement/stress/pain/fear
Parturition/false pregnancy/eclampsia
Anaemia/abnormal haemaglobin
Acidosis
CNS disease
Endocrine disease (HAC, steroid treatment, Hyperthyroidism
Neuromuscular disease
Pulmonary thromboembolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Clinical presentation of pulmonary thromboembolism

A

Acute onset dyspnoea
Few radiographic signs
Hypercoagulable state
Pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pathophysiology of cyanosis

A

Severe hypoxaemia (<80% saturation of arterial blood), colour comes from desaturated haemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Actions to take when cyanosis is present

A

Auscultate lung, trachea and heart with stethoscope to identify upper/lower respiratory tract disease
Cool animal and reduce stress/movement to reduce oxygen demand
Oxygen supplementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Long term management of cyanosis brought on by moderate heat

A

Weight loss
BOAS surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is paradoxical respiration and what is its significance?

A

Movement not synchronous
Means there is respiratory disease, not just exertion/stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How do you manage a dog that presents with respiratory distress?

A

Signalment/clinical history
Observe patient (emergency or clinically stable?)
Breathing pattern (inspiratory and expiratory phases)
Respiratory pattern (rate/effort)
Thoracic examination (palpation, auscultation, percussion)
Investigations (clinical exam, haem/biochem, imaging, tracheal wash/bronchoscopy/BAL, lung FNA/biopsy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Management of a cat with dyspnoea showing abdominal breathing

A

(Abdominal breathing indicates pleural effusion)
Auscultate lungs and heart
Lung percussion
Radiograph (conscious DV)
Thoracocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Is bacterial pneumonia more common in dogs or cats?

A

Dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is always an emergency in cats?

A

Mouth breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How should a cat in respiratory stress be managed?

A

Hands off assessment
Oxygenation in oxygen cage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Signs of upper airway disease in the cat

A

Laboured inspiration (stridor, increased effort, slow inspiratory phase)
Change in purr/vocalisation
Dysphagia +/- salivation
Coughing/gagging
‘Head shaking’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Signs of lower airway disease in the cat

A

Laboured expiration (prolonged expiratory phase, audible expiratory push/wheeze)
Increased airway resistance (bronchospasm, mucus, bronchial wall thickening)
Occasional paroxysmal cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is feline asthma?

A

Airway hyperreactivity (bronchoconstriction) to inhaled allergen
Reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Clinical signs of feline asthma

A

Episodic respiratory distress/dyspnoea
Coughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cell type involved in airway inflammation in feline asthma

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is chronic bronchitis?

A

Reaction to infection or inhaled irritants cause airway damage and excess mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Clinical signs of chronic bronchitis (cats)

A

Coughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Cell type involved in airway inflammation in chronic bronchitis (cats)

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pathogenesis leading to dyspnoea in chronic bronchitis

A

Type I hypersensitivity of bronchial smooth muscle (autonomic and mucociliary imbalance)
Acute bronchoconstriction (response to trigger factor)
Inflammation of bronchial mucosal lining (histamine and leukotrine release)
Airway obstruction (bronchoconstriction, inflammation and mucus plugs in narrowed bronchioles)
Air trapping = destruction of alveoli
Chronic damage (irreversible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Differentials for a coughing cat

A

URT disease
Inflammatory lower airway disease
Infectious (bacterial, parasitic, viral)
Foreign body
Neoplasia
(Heart disease rarely causes coughing in cats)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Differentials for hyperpnoea/tachypnoea in cats (long list)

A

Stress/pain/fear
CNS disease
Anaemia/hypovolaemia
Heatstroke
Cardiac disease (causing pleural effusion/pulmonary oedema)
Respiratory disease (airways/lung parenchyma)
Pleural space disease
Mediastinal disease
Ruptured diaphragm
Peritoneal pericardial diaphragmatic hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Feline lungworm parasite

A

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Prepatent period of Aelurostrongylus abstrusus

A

1-2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How do cats become infected with Aulurostrongylus abstrusus?

A

Eat paratenic host (rodent/bird)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Clinical presentation of feline lungworm

A

Most infected cats are asymptomatic
Usually young cats
Mild coughing, sometimes dyspnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Diagnosis of feline lungworm

A

Identify L1 larvae (faecal flotation/Baermanns, airway wash analysis, false negatives can occur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Treatment when there is suspected/diagnosed feline lungworm

A

Fenbendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Causative agents of mycobacterial pneumonia in cats

A

M. bovis
M. microti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

At what stage of mycobacterial infection does pneumonia occur? (Cat)

A

Late (due to systemic spread)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Early signs of mycobacterial infection (cat)

A

Cutaneous (bite from infected vole/rodent)
GI (ingestion of contaminated milk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Diagnosis of mycobacteria infection in cat

A

Histopathology
PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Important consideration with mycobacterial pneumonia

A

Zoonotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Treatment of mycobacterial pneumonia

A

Rifampicin, pradofloxacin, azithromycin
~6m course as pulmonary involvement, might be controversial (compliance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Differentials for eosinophilic inflammation in BAL/blind tracheal wash of the cat

A

Feline inflammatory airway disease (asthma/bronochitis)
Viral pneumonia
Parasitic
HES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Risks of bronchoscopy in the cat

A

Aggravating irritable airways
Moving plugs of mucus
Bronchospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is this cat suffering from?

A

Congestive heart failure
Perl’s stain is positive for iron (haemosiderin) in macrophages, also know as ‘heart failure cells’
Feature of chronic congestion
SHOULD NOT HAVE HAD A BAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Treatment of a cat in a respiratory crisis (LRT)

A

Oxygenate
Manage inflammation: dexamethasone IV
Manage bronchospasm: terbutaline and inhaled salbutamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Terbutaline class and action

A

Selective B2 receptor agonist
Smooth muscle relaxant and bronchodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Why might you pre-treat with terbutaline before a cat receives a BAL?

A

Hyper reactive airways prone to bronchospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What should you rule out before treatment with terbutaline?

A

Heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What drug class is inhaled salbutamol?

A

Selective B2 receptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Long term treatment of feline asthma/chronic bronchitis

A

Reduce allergens
Prednisolone (2-3w)
Inhaled fluticasone if improvement on prednisolone
Review case if no response to prednisolone (test for Mycoplasma/treatment trial, lungworm, ciclosporin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What disease would you be suspicious of in this dog with nasal planum depigmentation?

A

Aspergillosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What disease causes nasal planum depigmentation in cats (rare in dogs)?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which type of cats commonly suffer from squamous cell carcinoma?

A

White cats with solar exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Management of nasal squamous cell carcinoma in cats

A

Photodynamic therapy
Planectomy (good prognosis with nose off, biopsy may cure)
Immunomodulators (imiquimod)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Does squamous cell carcinoma commonly metastasise?

A

No (metastasis rare, locally invasive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Investigating a nasal neoplasia

A

MRI/CT
Rhinoscopy
Biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Is aspergillosis more common in dogs or cats?

A

Dogs
(Rare in cats)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Is neoplasia or aspergillosis a more common cause of nasal disease?

A

Neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Pathogen that causes aspergillosis

A

A. fumigatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Signalment in Aspergillosis

A

Medium to long nosed breeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Clinical signs of Aspergillosis

A

Nasal discharge (mucopurulent, unilateral then bilateral, intermittent epistaxis)
Ulceration/depigmentation of nasal planum
Pain on palpation
Sneezing
Facial deformity?
Neurological signs?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How can Aspergillosis cause facial deformity?

A

Destructive to turbinates
Erode frontal bones and cribiform plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How is (allergic?) rhinitis diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis of exclusion
Biopsy of nose may indicate allergic response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What disease causes laboured/noisy breathing, nasal discharge, headshaking, sneezing and difficulty swallowing in cats?

A

Nasopharyngeal polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The only significant larynx disease in cats

A

Laryngeal lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Canine laryngeal/tracheal diseases

A

Oncocytoma/rhabdomyosarcoma
Tracheal cartilaginous tumours
OSA
Fibrosarcoma
SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Management of tracheal masses

A

Usually benign so can be resected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What type of endoscope is best for rhinoscopy?

A

Flexible (best for flexing above palate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Appearance of aspergillosis on rhinoscopy

A

White plaques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What diagnostic methods are gold standard when investigating nasal disease?

A

CT and rhinoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What differentials for nasal disease may be diagnosed on CT?

A

Foreign body
Neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What differentials for nasal disease may be diagnosed on rhinoscopy?

A

Aspergillosis
Foreign body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Use of nasal radiography in nasal disease

A

Limited
May rule out destructive disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What nasal disease can be diagnosed by serology?

A

Aspergillosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Main causes of chronic rhinitis in cats

A

Tumours
Polyps
Rhinitis
Foreign bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Chronic rhinitis

A

Inflammation and swelling of conchae with increased mucous production and usually secondary infection, mucopurulent secretion may contain blood
(Cats)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What can occur in severe chronic rhinitis in cats?

A

Loss of conchae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What disease could play a role in chronic nasal inflammation in cats, resulting in destructive rhinitis?

A

Feline herpesvirus 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Treatment of aspergillosis

A

(Challenging)
Oral antifungal agents (‘azoles, prolonged treatment, not recommended due to side effects)
Topical therapy (enilconazole/clotrimazole, preferred option)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Delivery methods of topical therapy in aspergillosis

A

Catheter placement in frontal sinuses via surgery, repeated in 7-14 days
Infusion of nasal cavities under GA (minimally invasive method, more success if repeated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Clinical signs of infectious respiratory disease in dogs

A

Nasal disease
Change in bark/meow
Conjunctiva inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Do ocular and nasal discharge indicate URT or LRT?

A

URT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

If there is a cough where can respiratory disease be localised to?

A

Bronchioles (site of cough receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Systemic signs of infectious respiratory disease

A

Pyrexia
Depression
Lethargy
Inappetence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What life threatening complication can develop after infectious URT disease?

A

Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is ‘kennel cough’ referring to?

A

Canine Infectious Respiratory Disease complex/CIRDc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Specific type of cough in CIRDc

A

Tracheitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Clinical presentation of kennel cough

A

Hacking cough +/- productive (may cough so much they vomit)
Submandibular lymphadenopathy
Ocular/nasal discharge
+/- Lethargy
+/- Pyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Viruses in kennel cough

A

Canine parainfluenza virus/CPiV
Canine respiratory coronavirus/CRCoV
Canine adenovirus-2/CAV-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

How does kennel cough progress?

A

Initially low pathogenicity virus (CPiV, CRCoV, CAV-2)
Disrupt mucociliary escalator
Allows invasion of ‘bystander’/secondary bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What type of virus is canine parainfluenza virus?

A

Enveloped RNA virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What type of virus is canine adenovirus-2?

A

Non-enveloped DNA virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What type of virus is canine respiratory virus?

A

Enveloped RNA virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Bacteria usually involved in kennel cough

A

Bordatella bronchiseptica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Significance of Bordatella bronchiseptica in a culture

A

Often positive and not significant, but can be significant in unwell animal and therefore is justification for antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Why can’t a kennel cough vaccine be given to a dog who’s owner is immunocompromised/pregnant?

A

Bordatella bronchiseptica is zoonotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

How long is Bordatella bronchiseptica shed following an infection?

A

12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Unusual cause of respiratory disease in dogs

A

Canine distemper virus (common abroad, possibly been imported)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What type of virus is canine distemper virus?

A

Enveloped RNA virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How is canine distemper transmitted?

A

Shed in all bodily fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Clinical signs of canine distemper virus

A

Bronchopneumonia
Purulent ocular and nasal discharge
Haemorrhagic vomiting and diarrhoea
Neurological signs
Hyperkeratosis
Weight loss (as very unwell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Does ‘serological evidence = disease’ in canine influenza?

A

No, many dogs serologically positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Novel respiratory pathogens in the UK

A

Canine influenza
Strep equi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Clinical signs of canine influenza

A

Cough
Purulent nasal discharge
Pyrexia/pneumonia in 20% of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Strep equi clinical signs

A

Pyrexia
Bloody nasal discharge
Haematemesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Main transmission routes for CIRD

A

Aerosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Symptomatic treatment of respiratory disease

A

Avoid choke chains/pulling on collar
Clean eyes/nose
NSAIDs/steroids? (NSAIDs good for pyrexia but affects prostaglandins which are protective in lung)
Medication to stop cough and prevent further irritation (butorphanol/codeine)
Antibiotics? (Doxycycline for gram negative cover: Bordatella, Pseudomonas, Klebsiella)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Prevention of respiratory disease

A

Environmental hygiene
Dog-to-dog contact
Fomite transmission
Ventilation
Vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Distemper vaccine

A

Live, subcutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Parainfluenza vaccine

A

Live, subcutaneous or intranasal (combined with Bordatella)

124
Q

How can intranasal vaccination be made easier for the dog

A

Cover eyes
Keep diluent out of fridge
Warm gently in palm
Trickle, don’t squirt

125
Q

What is the importance of cats using smell and taste to enjoy food?

A

Not hungry without sense of smell

126
Q

How is feline herpesvirus spread?

A

Fomites

127
Q

What are the long term effects of damage to nasal bones in feline herpes?

A

Cat flu kittens become chronic ‘snufflers’

128
Q

Clinical signs of feline herpesvirus

A

‘Flu’ signs
Ocular ulcers
Hepatic dermatitis

129
Q

What type of virus is feline herpesvirus?

A

DNA virus, enveloped, stress related recrudescence

130
Q

What feline virus does chronic rhinitis (‘snuffles’) follow?

A

‘Cat flu’/feline herpesvirus
Rule out non-viral causes e.g. polyp

131
Q

Treatment of chronic rhinitis in cats

A

Antibiotics? (prolonged)
Aerosol therapy
Decongestants (can’t be prolonged)
Anti-virals? (specific, must know virus)

132
Q

What type of virus is feline calicivirus?

A

RNA, fast evolving

133
Q

Clinical signs of feline calicivirus

A

‘Flu’ signs
Tongue ulcers
Floppy kittens (synovitis)
Associated with Feline Chronic Gingivitis Stomatitis

134
Q

Causative agent of Chlamydophila in cats

A

Chlamydia felis (intracellular bacterium like organism)

135
Q

Transmission of Chlamydia felis

A

Close contact
Poor hygiene

136
Q

Clinical signs of Chlamydophila

A

Can initially appear unilateral
Chemosis (swelling of conjunctiva)

137
Q

Treatment of Chlamydophila

A

Doxycycline (4w), treat all in contacts

138
Q

Predominant causative agents of ‘cat flu’

A

FHV
Chlamydia

139
Q

Supportive treatment for cat flu

A

High calorie diet (nasogastric/oesophageal tube)
Fluids
Supplement potassium (drops when not eating)

140
Q

Possible meaning of a low head in a cat with cat flu?

A

Low potassium (no nuchal ligament)

141
Q

Symptomatic treatment in cat flu

A

NSAIDs (hydrate to prevent kidney damage)
Nebulise with sterile water
Mirtazapine tablets
Eye drops

142
Q

Specific anti-virals for cat flu

A

Famciclovir (Herpes, effective but expensive)
L-lysine?
Fusidic acid?

143
Q

Core vaccinations for cats in the UK

A

Feline panleukopaenia virus
Feline herpes virus
Feline calicivirus

144
Q

Non-core vaccines available for cats in the UK

A

Chlamydia felis
Bordatella bronchiseptica
Feline leukaemia virus (recommended in kittens)
Rabies virus

145
Q

Core vaccines for cats in the UK

A

Feline panleukopaenia virus
Feline herpes virus
Feline calicivirus

146
Q

Prevention of cat flu

A

Hygiene (disinfectants, FHV labile, FCV more resistant)
Barriers (prevent cat-cat transmission)
Ventilation
Reduce stress
Vaccinations

147
Q

Which cat flu causative agent is resistant to quaternary ammonium compounds (disinfectant)

A

FCV

148
Q

Pleural effusion presentation

A

Coughing
Lethargy
Inappetence
Weight loss
Sleeping on belly not side
Dyspnoea (pant at reduced exercise levels)
Increased RR
Shallow breathing
Lung sounds muffled ventrally
Sinus arrythmia and muffled heart sounds on both sides

149
Q

Pleural effusion with protein under 25g/l, low cellularity and clear colour

A

Pure transudate

150
Q

Pleural effusion with protein 25-40g/l, moderate cellularity and hazy in colour

A

Modified transudate

151
Q

Pleural effusion with protein >30g/l, moderate to high cell count and opaque in colour

A

Exudate

152
Q

Pleural effusion with protein >35g/l, high cell count, smelly and amber/red/yellow in colour

A

Pyothorax (inflammatory fluid/pus)

153
Q

Pleural effusion that have variable protein, high cell count and is creamy/pale pink in colour

A

Chylothorax

154
Q

Diagnosis of a pleural effusion

A

Radiography (contrast study)
Ultrasound
Thoracocentesis

155
Q

Uses of radiography in pleural effusion

A

Identify fluid level for future monitoring
Establish if effusion is unilateral/bilateral before thoracocentesis

156
Q

What does the yellow box on this DV radiograph highlight?

A

Retracted lung lobe (pulled back from thoracic wall when there is fluid/air in the pleural space)
Can also be seen at top of this lateral radiograph

157
Q

What is being highlighted by the yellow boxes at the bottom of this radiograph?

A

Obscured cardiac silhouette and diaphragm, obscured by pleural effusion in the ventral pleural space

158
Q

What is highlighted by this contrast study?

A

Thoracic duct under vertebrae is intact but some smaller duct branches more cranially are indistinct

159
Q

How can you diagnose pleural effusion by ultrasound?

A

Fluid ventrally around lungs

160
Q

Thoracocentesis equipment

A

Butterfly catheter in small cats/dogs (19-23G), fenestrated plastic catheter in large/obese dogs (18-22G 1/5-2.5in catheter)
Attached to three way stopcock and syringe (10-20ml)

161
Q

Technique for thoracocentesis

A

Animal placed in sternal recumbency/standing
Not usually sedated
Local anaesthesia may be used (Lidocaine 2%)
Site clipped and scrubbed
Tap 7th/8th ICS, needle inserted cranial to rib to avoid intercostal vessels and nerves

162
Q

Which tube should be used for analysis of pleural fluid cytology/cell count/TP?

A

EDTA

163
Q

Medical management of chylothorax

A

Chest drain
Low fat diet and rutin (after discharge)

164
Q

Surgical management of chylothorax (if medical management not successful)

A

Thoracotomy and thoracic duct ligation

165
Q

Important considerations when placing a chest drain in chylothorax management

A

Drain enough fluid to stabilise for GA
Place chest drain on each side (technically only need one as fenestrated mediastinum but may become clogged)
Antibiotics for secondary infection
NSAIDs (chest drain painful)

166
Q

Clinical signs of pulmonary parenchymal disease

A

Increased inspiratory and expiratory effort
+/- Cough (alveolar disease may not reach bronchi)
Less frequent: hemoptysis, collapse/syncope, cyanosis

167
Q

Findings in physical exam when there is alveolar disease

A

Cyanosis
Crackles
Increased/decreased bronchovesicular sounds
Auscultation can be unremarkable
Signs of systemic disease: pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, lameness

168
Q

Differentials for alveolar disease

A

Aspiration pneumonia
Pulmonary oedema (cardiogenic/non-cardiogenic?)
Pulmonary haemorrhage
Eosinophilic lung disease
(Pulmonary parasites)
(Pulmonary neoplasia, primary/metastatic)
(Infectious pneumonias)

169
Q

Definitive diagnosis of lower airway disease in the dog

A

History (e.g. swimming, vomiting)
Other clinical signs (e.g. pyrexia = inflammatory)
BAL/trans-tracheal wash
Biopsy?

170
Q

Aspiration pneumonia

A

Inhalation of material into lower airway

171
Q

Serious aspiration events

A

Chemical aspiration (pneumonitis)
Large volume (drowning event)
Iatrogenic (e.g. PEG fluids in bowel prep pull interstitial fluid into lungs)

172
Q

Is infection in aspiration pneumonia more commonly primary or secondary?

A

Secondary (due to damage)

173
Q

Signs of aspiration pneumonia

A

Cough
Harsh/reduced lung sounds
Tachypnoea
Pyrexia

174
Q

Alveolar pattern

A

Border obliteration (can’t see cardiac silhouette/blood vessels)
Air bronchograms still present (airways spared)

175
Q

Radiographic findings in aspiration pneumonia

A

Most commonly right middle, right cranial or left cranial lobe
Alveolar pattern

176
Q

Is a BAL a high or low risk procedure?

A

Low
(20ml saline in but quickly reabsorbed so 1ml out)

177
Q

BAL microscopy findings in aspiration pneumonia

A

Bacteria inside toxic neutrophils

178
Q

Treatment of aspiration pneumonia

A

Supportive (oxygen, broad spectrum antibiotics, care with oxidative damage to fragile lung)
Treat underlying cause
Anti-acid medication if frequent occurrence
Metaclopramide (improve motility and increase LOS tone)

179
Q

Lung biopsy findings in aspiration pneumonia

A

Airways and alveoli are full of neutrophils rather than air, airways spared

180
Q

Conditions that can cause pulmonary oedema

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure
Reduced oncotic pressure
Increased vascular permeability
Impaired lymphatic drainage

181
Q

Where is fluid accumulation in pulmonary oedema?

A

Interstitium and subsequently alveoli

182
Q

What is the consequence of pulmonary oedema?

A

Ventilation perfusion mismatch and hypoxaemia

183
Q

What are the types of fluid in pulmonary oedema, and which is most common?

A

Cardiogenic (most common)
Non-cardiogenic

184
Q

Cardiogenic fluid protein content in pulmonary oedema

A

Low protein due to increased hydrostatic pressure (heart failure) without increased vascular permeability

185
Q

What are the arrows pointing to?

A

Air bronchograms
(Left heart failure and border obliteration over left atrium which is elevating trachea)

186
Q

What causes non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema?

A

Lung damage increases vascular permeability so protein leaks out (high protein fluid in alveoli)
Removal of lung fluid is an active process (active transport of sodium and chloride) so damaged epithelium causes fluid build up

187
Q

Main cause of non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema

A

Pulmonary epithelial injury (choking, near-drowning, electric shock, head trauma, smoke inhalation, SIRS)

188
Q

When should radiograph be taken after phsical lung injury to assess damage and why?

A

Not immediately, lag phase between injury and fluid build up

189
Q

Most common cause of eosinophilic airway disease in dogs

A

Eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy

190
Q

Most common cause of eosinophilic airway disease in cats

A

Reactive eosinophilic airway disease

191
Q

Typical presentation of eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy

A

Coughing
Young adults
Weight loss

192
Q

Radiographic findings in eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy

A

Bronchointerstitial pattern (bronchial markings: donuts/lines with clear centres, interstitial markings: aren’t seen on radiograph as thin, just greying out)
Can see alveolar pattern

193
Q

Blood finding in eosinophilic bronchopneumonia

A

Circulating eosinophilia (~50% of dogs, some will have hypereosinophilic syndrome)

194
Q

Diagnosis of eosinophilic bronchopneumonpathy

A

Radiograph
BAL to confirm

195
Q

Treatment of eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy

A

Prednisolone

196
Q

Prognosis of eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy

A

Outcome good
(Guarded if other organs involved)

197
Q

Diagnosing lower respiratory tract disease

A

Localise problem to lungs
Clinical exam
Thoracic ultrasound
If lung disease present on ultrasound then radiograph

198
Q

Antibiotic selection in lower respiratory tract disease

A

Based on C&S but takes too long to come back
High concentration required in lung/airways
Treatment for 4-6 weeks for severe/chronic infection
Lipophilic (penetrate blood-bronchus barrier)
Bacteriocidal

199
Q

Antibiotic choice for lower airway disease

A

Fluroquinolones (good penetration, good for gram -ve/moderate for gram +ve)
Amoxicillin clavulanate (penicillin with best distribution into bronchial tissue, good for gram +ve/moderate for gram -ve)

Combination of the two is best if cause unknown

200
Q

What is Bromohexine used for?

A

Mucolytic: reduces mucus accumulation in chronic bronchitis and other conditions with compromised muco-ciliary clearance (increases lysosyme activity and IgA concentration)

201
Q

What is the pleura?

A

Inner wall of body cavities lined by single layer of mesothelial cells

202
Q

What do you call the pleura covering the surface of the lung?

A

Visceral (pulmonary) pleura

203
Q

What is the parietal pleura made up of?

A

Mediastinal, diaphragmatic and costal pleura

204
Q

How is the pleural space drained?

A

Rich lymphatic system

205
Q

Pleural cavity/space

A

Narrow ‘space’ between the parietal and visceral pleura, contains serous fluid

206
Q

Function of pleural space

A

Establishes adhesion
Smooth movement of lungs when breathing
Sub-atmospheric (negative) pressure allows expansion of lungs in respiration

207
Q

Mediastinum

A

Space between left and right pleural sac, in midline of thorax
Continuous in most species
Contains blood vessels, nerves, oesophagus, heart and trachea

208
Q

Why does pleural space disease cause difficulty breathing?

A

Accumulation of fluid, air or soft tissue causes loss of thoracic cavity and possible collapse of of lungs due to loss of negative pressure

209
Q

Cause of pneumothorax

A

Rupture of major airways/lung parenchyma
Thoracic trauma (broken rib lacerates pleura/penetrating wound)
Perforation of oesophagus
Bullous (‘blister’ = spontaneous pneumothorax, necrotising/neoplastic lung disease)
Iatrogenic (prolonged ventilation under GA/bronchoscopy)
Gas producing bacterial infection in pleural space

210
Q

What disease would you expect when lung percussion sounds like a ‘drum’, there are dull lung sounds dorsally and increased lung sounds ventrally and slow rapid breaths?

A

Pneumothorax

211
Q

What is ‘tension pneumothorax’?

A

Lesion in lung parenchyma acts as ‘one way valve’
Pleural pressure rises causing severe lung compression
Pressure can exceed central venous pressure, reducing venous return and cardiac output
Rapidly life threatening

212
Q

Why might the apex beat of the heart be displaced?

A

Mass in mediastinum

213
Q

Diagnosis of pneumothorax

A

Physical examination
Assessment of respiratory status
Thoracic radiographs if stable enough (increased distance between heart and sternum, black around heart, collapsed lung lobes)
Thoracic ultrasound (glide sign lost)
(Routine haematology/biochemistry)
Blood gas and pulse oximetry to assess severity

214
Q

Treatment of traumatic pneumothorax

A

Oxygen
Drain as necessary (avoid overdrainage)
Strict cage rest
+/- chest drain (Heimlich valve attached to thoracostomy tube)
Surgical correction if no improvement (saline in thorax, see where air leaks in)

215
Q

Most common cause of spontaneous pneumothorax

A

Ruptured pulmonary bulla or sub-pleural bleb
Can occur with chronic asthma in cats

216
Q

Management of spontaneous pneumothorax

A

Medical management to stabilise
Lobectomy as necessary

217
Q

Tracheal placement and meaning

A

Displaced dorsally = must be mass present (hidden behind pleural effusion)

218
Q

Mediastinal masses/lesions

A

Benign or malignant tumours
Cystic lesions
Enlarged mediastinal LNs
Haematomas

219
Q

Most useful diagnostic imaging for surgical mediastinal masses

A

CT

220
Q

Is diagnosis important for mediastinal disease?

A

Yes, it is difficult but determines treatment options (e.g. lymphoma vs. sarcoma)

221
Q

Signalment for mediastinal lymphoma

A

Young cats, Siamese (50% + for FeLV)
Dogs with stage 3-5 lymphoma (negative prognostic indicator)

222
Q

How can you identify a mediastinal mass by palpation in cats?

A

Squeeze cranial thorax, should be springy but if solid mediastinal mass present

223
Q

Main differential for a medistinal lymphoma?

A

Thymoma

224
Q

Diagnosis of mediastinal lymphoma

A

Cytology

225
Q

Treatment of mediastinal lymphoma

A

Chemo +/- radiotherapy
(Remission, not cure)

226
Q

What presents with respiratory disease +/- cranial caval syndrome +/- myasthenia gravis?

A

Thymoma (rare, old dogs)
(Subcutaneous oedema as no venous return from head via vena cava)

227
Q

Do thymomas typically metastasise?

A

No (benign or malignant but mets rare from both)

228
Q

Management of suspect thymoma

A

Thoracic radiographs to confirm presence of mass
Cytology +/- tru-cut +/- flow cytometry (diagnosis important as lymphoma is a differential and not surgical, may consider CT)
Surgical resection is treatment of choice
Excellent prognosis if fully resectable, poor in old dog with megaoesophagus (invasive)

229
Q

How can thyroid in thorax be confirmed? (Heavy ectopic masses can sink into thorax, cats present as unresponsive hyperthyroid)

A

Scintigraphy (active?)

230
Q

Pleural tumour from epithelial lining cells

A

Mesothelioma (rare)

231
Q

What can be diagnosed with this pleural fluid cytology?

A

Mesothelioma (accumulation of neoplastic cells)

232
Q

Rib tumours

A

Osteosarcomas/chondrosarcomas/overlying soft tissue tumours
Treatment via rib resection
Prognosis worse for osteosarcoma (aggressive in this location), may also require chemotherapy

233
Q

Coughing reflex

A

Irritation of airways
Glottis closes
Intrathoracic pressure against closed glottis
Expel airway contents

234
Q

How can you accurately determine from an owners history whether a dog is coughing, sneezing, retching, has dysphagia etc.?

A

Video

235
Q

Diagnostic plan for a coughing dog

A

Imaging (radiograph/CT, bronchial pattern/LHF/FB?)
Endoscopy (FB?)
Trans-tracheal wash
Bronchoalveolar lavage
Haematology
Faecal exam (parasites)

236
Q

Differentials for an acute cough (dog)

A

Tracheobronchitis (‘kennel cough’)
Irritation by smoke/dust/chemicals/medicines
Airway FB
Pulmonary haemorrhage
Acute pneumonia
Acute oedema
Airway trauma (choke chains/bites)

237
Q

Differentials for a chronic cough (dog)

A

Chronic bronchitis/bronchiectasis
LHF
Oslerus/Aelurostrongylus/Angiostrongylus infection
Tracheal collapse
Airway FB
Bronchopneumonia
Pulmonary neoplasia (primary/secondary)
Extra-luminal mass (thyroid/abscess/lymphoma)
Eosinophilic disease
(Pulmonary fibrosis)

238
Q

Anti-tussives

A

Butorphanol
Codeine

239
Q

Canine chronic bronchitis

A

Daily coughing >2m
Thickening of bronchial tissue
Overproduction of airway mucus
Narrowing of airways

240
Q

Clinical signs of chronic bronchitis

A

Wheezing
Productive coughing
Worse on excitement
Externally well
Exaggerated sinus arrhythmia (high parasympathetic tone)

241
Q

Radiographic findings with chronic bronchitis

A

Bronchial lung pattern (tram lines and donuts)

242
Q

What disease would you suspect in a BAL with increased mucus, non-degenerate neutrophils/eosinophils/macrophages and Cushmann’s spirals (airway mucus cast)?

A

Chronic bronchitis

243
Q

If there is bacteria on a chronic bronchitis BAL is this a normal finding?

A

No, this likely means that a bactrial infection is the cause. Immediate therapy needed as compromised resistance mechanisms

244
Q

Management of chronic bronchitis

A

Weight control, harness, avoid irritants (e.g. smoking), moist environment
Glucocorticoids (inhaled/oral)
Bronchodilator therapy?
Coupage
Antimicrobials if evidence of need

245
Q

Compare the two inhaled bronchodilators

A

Salbutamol: fast onset of action, cleared renally
Salmeterol: longer lasting

246
Q

Most common inhaled glucocorticoid

A

Fluticasone (propionate)

247
Q

Options for delivery of inhaled medication

A

Mask
Spacing device/chamber (don’t have to coordinate breathing)

248
Q

Benefits of inhaled medications in chronic airway disease

A

Minimal absorption into circulation so less systemic side effects
Faster onset of action
Lower dose required

249
Q

Actions of glucocorticoids in airway

A

Bronchodilatory (beta 2 adrenergic)
Anti-inflammatory (inhibit prostaglandin and leukotriene synthesis)
Reduced leukocyte accumulation
Reverse increased vascular permeability
Alter macrophage function
Inhibit fibroblast growth
Modulate immune system

250
Q

What drug class are bronchodilators?

A

Beta 2 agonist

251
Q

Benefits of bronchodilators

A

Reduce spasm of lower airways
Decrease intrathoracic pressures
Decrease tendency of larger airways to collapse
Improve diaphragmatic function
Improve mucociliary clearance
Inhibit mast cell degranulation (reduce release of mediators of bronchoconstriction)

252
Q

Disadvantages of inhaled medications

A

Expensive
Time consuming
Owner compliance
Patient compliance

253
Q

Oral bronchodilators

A

Terbutaline
Theophylline

254
Q

Pathogens involved in bacterial bronchopneumonia

A

(Mixed)
E. coli, Klebsiella, Pasteurella, Staphs, Streps, mycoplasma, B. bronchiseptica , Strep. equi zooepidemicus

255
Q

Factors predisposing to bronchopneumonia

A

Debilitation
Prolonged recumbency
Systemic immunosuppression
Immunodeficiency
Damaged respiratory epithelium
Defective respiratory defenses
Aspiration
Airway obstruction
Systemic sepsis
Bronchiectasis

256
Q

Top differential in a working dog with sudden onset coughing and gagging with progressive halitosis

A

Bronchial foreign body

257
Q

Primary lung tumours (rare, dogs>cats)

A

Oral melanoma, thyroid carcinoma, osteosarcoma, haemangiosarcoma, mammary carcinoma

258
Q

Where in the lung does metastatic neoplasia occur?

A

Interstitial disease

259
Q

Complications of transthoracic FNA (ultrasound guidance)

A

Pneumothorax/pyothorax
Empyema
Bleeding
Seeding of neoplasia into body wall along track of needle

260
Q

Primary cardiorespiratory parasite in metastrongyloidea family that affects young dogs (6-12m)

A

Oslerus osleri

261
Q

Diagnosis of O. osleri

A

BAL (characteristic nodules 1-1.5cm seen via bronchoscopy at tracheal bifurcation, 2m after infection)
L1 in faeces/BAL fluid

262
Q

Treatment of O. osleri

A

Fenbendazole (daily for 10d, repeat 4w later)

263
Q

Asymptomatic parasite with same lifecycle as O. osleri

A

Filaroides hirthi

264
Q

Parasite of wolves and foxes that occasionally causes chronic bronchopulmonary disease and productive cough in dogs

A

Crenosoma vulpis

265
Q

Intermediate host of C. vulpis

A

Slugs/snails

266
Q

What noise is heard with brachycephalic obstructive airway disease?

A

Stertor (reverberation of nasopharynx)

267
Q

Primary pathophysiology factors causing brachycephalic obstructing airway disease

A

Stenotic external nares
Relative overlength of soft palate
Relative oversize of tongue
Tracheal hypoplasia/stenosis
Sliding hiatal hernia

268
Q

What can be seen on this radiograph?

A

Tracheal hypoplasia

269
Q

What is a secondary consequence of the negative pressure associated with upper respiratory tract disease?

A

Laryngeal collapse

Stage 1: laryngeal saccule eversion
Stage 2: medial deviation of cuneiform cartilage and aryepiglottic fold/collapse
Stage 3: medial deviation of corniculate process of the arytenoid cartilage or corniculate collapse

270
Q

Describe the appearance of these nares

A

External nasal aperture stenosis

271
Q

Surgical option for brachycephalic airway syndrome

A

Rhinoplasty (wedge-resection)
Alar fold resection (preferred)
Surgery of soft palate (partial staphylectomy)
Folded flap palatoplasty (make palate shorter and thinner)
Tonsillectomy (often included in soft palate surgery)

272
Q

Clinical signs of idiopathic acquired laryngeal paralysis

A

Stridor
Cough
Dyspnoea
Change in phonation (bark)
Exercise intolerance
Collapse
(Worse when hot/excited/exercising)

273
Q

Diagnosis of laryngeal paralysis

A

Clinical signs/auscultation
Laryngoscopy (light GA)

274
Q

Emergency medical management of laryngeal paralysis

A

Rest/cooling
Supplemental oxygen
Sedation (low dose medetomidine)
IV access
IV corticosteroids
Tracheostomy tube placement/surgical management?

275
Q

Sugrical management of laryngeal paralysis

A

Arytenoid lateralisation (tiebacl)
Needed in all cases for quality of life

276
Q

Top differential for ‘goose-honk’ cough

A

Tracheal collapse

277
Q

What does this radiograph show?

A

Trachea flattened at thoracic inlet

278
Q

Diagnosis of collapsed trachea

A

Radiograph
Endoscopy (grading)

279
Q

Medical management of tracheal collapse (usual approach)

A

Anti-tussives
Bronchodilators
Antibiotics/BAL to check for infection
NSAIDs
Corticosteroids (inhaled)
Bronchodilators (inhaled)

280
Q

Surgical approaches to collapsed trachea

A

Open ring prosthesis (externally placed around trachea)
Stent (self-extending metal alloy, supports lumen internally)

281
Q

Diagnosis with sneezing and these endoscopic findings

A

Aspergillosis

282
Q

Nematode (family: metastrongyloidea) that is a vascular worm referred to as the ‘French Heartworm’

A

Angiostrongylus vasorum

283
Q

Lifecycle of A. vasorum and relevance in diagnosis

A

Indirect (dog definitive host and slug/snail intermediate host)
Stomach to mesenteric LNs to lymphatics to HP vein/liver to vena cava to right ventricle to pulmonary arteries (adults)
L1 coughed up and swallowed, diagnosis of L1 in faeces/BAL

284
Q

Clinical signs of A. vasorum infection

A

Chronic cough
Breathlessness/exercise intolerance
Pulmonary hypertension
Coagulopathy/immune mediated thrombocytopaenia

285
Q

Diagnosis of A. vasorum

A

L1 in faeces/BAL
SNAP test
Radiography (interstitial pattern)
PCR on BAL/pharynx swab

286
Q

Products for treatment of A. vasorum

A

Imadocloprid and moxidectin (licenced, spot on), used for prevention
Milbemycin oxime and praziquantel (licenced, oral)
Fenbendazole (unlicenced, effective but start at low dose to reduce complications from massive worm death)

High risk: may add bronchodilators, corticosteroids, phosphodiesterase inhibitors (reduce pulmonary arterial pressure), cage rest and oxygen therapy

287
Q

Presentation of interstitial pulmonary fibrosis

A

WHWT (‘Westie lung’)/staffies
Middle aged/older dogs, rarely cats
Insidious onset chronic breathlessness which is progressive, may be coughing/cyanosis/syncope

288
Q

What is the ‘most crackly’ thing you’ll hear in the lungs?

A

Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis

289
Q

What lung pattern is this?

A

Interstitial

290
Q

Diagnosis of interstitial pulmonary fibrosis

A

Interstitial lung pattern on radiograph (+/- R cardiomegaly +/- pulmonary hypertension)
CT
Definitive: lung biopsy

291
Q

Treatment and prognosis of interstitial pulmonary fibrosis

A

Treatment not very effective, prognosis guarded

Symptomatic (avoid collars/smoke)
Inhaled and oral bronchodilator/corticosteroids
Additional immunosuppressives?
Manage pulmonary hypertension (phosphodiesterase inhibitors, sidenafil/Viagra, tadalafil, pimobendan)

292
Q

What disease (associated with Herpesvirus, this is puppy) causes this severe subacute multifocal to coalescing pattern which spares the airways/alveoli?

A

Interstitial pneumonia

293
Q

Most common interstitial neoplasias

A

Metastatic (osteosarcoma, haemangiosarcoma, thyroid carcinoma, melanoma of mucucutaneous junction)

294
Q

What can be seen in this radiograph?

A

Nodular masses within interstitial tissue
(May be more diffuse interstitial pattern as in picture)

295
Q

Treatment of metastatic interstitial neoplasia

A

Solitary metastatic mass removal becoming more common (CT needed)
Locally delivered chemotherapy (delivery and penetration problems)

296
Q

Most useful diagnostic test in respiratory disease (overall)

A

CT/radiography

297
Q

Indications for tracheal wash

A

Suspicion of large airway disease

298
Q

Compare tracheal wash to BAL

A

Less sensitive
Easier
Can be carried out in conscious patient

299
Q

Technique for tracheal wash

A

Clip and prep proximal trachea
Inject local between tracheal rings
Large bore catheter between rings into tracheal lumen
Long soft catheter through bore catheter into trachea, inject saline and immediately aspirate

300
Q

Indications for bronchoscopy

A

Investigate unexplained clinical signs
Obtain diagnostic samples
Evaluate radiographic lung lesions
Assessment of airways
Treatment of airway disease

301
Q

Contraindications for bronchoscopy

A

Hyper-responsive airways (cats with allergic bronchial disease/dogs with wheezing suggesting airway spasm)
Unstable cardiac failure/arrythmias
Tracheal obstruction
Increased haemorrhage risk

302
Q

BAL technique

A

Sterilise scope
Sternal recumbency, nose parallel to table
GA (no ET tube if small, pre-oxygenate
Assess larynx/pharynx/trachea
Gently direct through airways (tracheal rings, carina, right bronchus: cranial then middle then accessory, left bronchus: cranial 2 branches then caudal)

303
Q

Methods to collect samples on bronchoscopy

A

Bronchoalveolar lavage (20ml saline then immediate suction)
Surface brushing (cytology brush)
Biopsies

304
Q

What disease can be diagnosed from this bronchoscopy finding?

A

Oslerus osleri

305
Q

6y MN Siamese with 4w history of lethargy, inappetence and dyspnoea. Pleural fluid on radiograph, this is a smear from the colletced material on thoracocentesis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Lymphoma

306
Q

Elderly, MN, BCS 2/9
Acute breathlessness and sudden death on admission to a cat shelter. This fluid is collected from the pleural cavity. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Small Animal (Poppy) (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions