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LAIM > Respiratory > Flashcards

Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

Effects of alveolar hypoxia

A

vasoconstriction

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2
Q

Hypoventilation is due to which acid base disturbance?

A

Metabolic alkalosis

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3
Q

Negative prognostic indicator in R. equi pneumonia

A

Intra-abdominal abscess Osteomyelitis

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4
Q

Virulence factor of Manheimia hemolytica?

A

Leukotoxin

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5
Q

Cattle with cough, harsh dorso-caudal lung sounds, subcutaneous edema

A

BRSV

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6
Q

Diagnostic method for verminous pneumonia

A

Baermann

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7
Q

Most common cell in RAO BAL

A

Neutrophils

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8
Q

Sheep with cough, weight loss, hard udder

A

Ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP)

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9
Q

Cow in feedlot with fever, cough, red nose

A

BHV-1

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10
Q

Treatment of horse with strangles

A

Horses with early clinical signs • ATB on early stage, before abscessation (3-5 days) • May prevent local abscess and shedding Horses with lymph node abscessation • Supportive care • Soft food • NSAIDs, hot compress, drainage, lavage • ATB recommended if horse is depressed, anorectic, dyspneic • Penicillin → drug of choice • Cephalosporins, macrolides • ATBs may prevent development of lasting immunity

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11
Q

Diagnosis for Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Latex agglutination

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12
Q

Most important immune cell for R. equi

A

T lymphocytes?

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13
Q

Cow with lesion in lung caudodorsally

A

Bovine respiratory syncytial virus

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14
Q

Pathogenensis R. equi and decreased immune (macrophage) response

A

Lipoarabinominam on bacterium surface and Macrophage phagocytosis of R. equi

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15
Q

Diagnosis of Chronic carrier state for S. equi

A

Guttural pouch fluid/swab PCR

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16
Q

Fungi that most commonly causes pneumonia in horses

A

Coccidiomicosis

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17
Q

Horse with a nasal granuloma (mass), histopathology revealed large amounts of eosinophils around the lesions

A

Condidiobolus coronatus

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18
Q

What test to run in a horse that had been exposed to S. equi 3 weeks before

A

SeM ELISA? Nasal PCR?

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19
Q

What is the best immune response against R. equi:

A

IFN-y

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20
Q

What is the best for monitoring and early diagnosis of R. equi pneumonia in endemic farms:

A

CBC, monitoring for fever, cough

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21
Q

Adult cow with respiratory signs, mild, fever, tachypnea:

A

BHV-1, BRSV?

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22
Q

Acute interstitial pneumonia in cattle, associated with?

A

Hyperplasia of pneumocytes type 2

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23
Q

With respect to BRSV and vaccination of calves before 1 month old

A

vaccination of calves before 1 month old is not effective.

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24
Q

Lesions of Haemophilus in cattle

A

Pleuritis, myocarditis, fibrinopurulent pneumonia

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25
Q

Elimination of EIV Australia

A

canary pox 14 days

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26
Q

BRSV and vaccination of neonatal calves

A

Non protective

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27
Q

Zoonotic in dog and horse?

A

Blastomycosis?

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28
Q

Lung mechanism of IAD

A

?

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29
Q

Drug of choice of Pneumocystis carinii

A

TMS

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30
Q

Vaccination of EIV

A

Canary q14d

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31
Q

Vaccine with highest efficacy to decrease BRDC?

A

Killed: BVDV MLV: BHV-1, BRSV, PI3

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32
Q

EIPH, what is associated with?

A

Histology changes

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33
Q

In strangles, what is a positive nasal PCR

A

Actively shedding

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34
Q

Pulse oxymeter at 90

A

60 mmHg

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35
Q

Pneumocytes II

A

Lush pastures

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36
Q

Immune response in R. equi pneumonia

A

IFN-g –> macrophages

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37
Q

How to determine strangles titer?

A

SeM protein

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38
Q

Requisite for M. haemolytica vaccine

A

Leukotoxin

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39
Q

What is the function of the surface glycoproteins in BHV-1 infection?

A

Surface glycoproteins gC, gD, gB interact with heparan sulfate proteoglycans for cell attachment and entry

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40
Q

In BHV-1, how are the lungs in necropsy?

A

Lesions in respiratory, ocular, and reproductive mucosa, but do NOT extend to the lungs. “Boom!”

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41
Q

Effects on vaccine for BRSV

A

Th2 response After intranasal vaccine –> IgA

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42
Q

Which is the most common virus isolated from lungs of calves euthanized for pneumonia

A

Bovine parainflueza 3

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43
Q

Effect of bovine PI3 in RBCs

A

Hemagglutinates and hemadsorbs

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44
Q

Serotypes causing pneumonia in Manheimmia hemolytica

A

A1 –> Cattle A2 –> Sheep and goats

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45
Q

Main characteristic of M. hemolytica lung lesions

A

CV, fibrinous pleuritis **Necrotizing fibrinous pleuropneumonia**

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46
Q

Virulence factor for M. hemolytica

A

Leukotoxin –> CD18 receptor Also: PS capsule, IROM P

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47
Q

ATBs to be used in prophylaxis for M. hemolytica

A

Tilmicosin, florfenicol

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48
Q

Serogroup causing pneumonia in P. multocida

A

A3

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49
Q

“Calf pneumonia” is usually referred to which infectious agent?

A

P. multocida

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50
Q

What is a main feature of the clinical presentation of P. multocida pneumonia

A

Chronic or ongoing pneumonia

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51
Q

Main features in the pathogenesis of H. somni

A

Binds to Fc in antibody –> preventing opsonization Vasculitis and vascular thrombi Induce IgE

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52
Q

Most time of infection for H. somni

A

First 2 months or 2 weeks of the feeding period

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53
Q

Why is Mycoplasma bovis resistant to b-lactams?

A

Bacteria lacks cell wall

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54
Q

Syndrome caused by Mycoplasma bovis

A

Chronic pneumonia and polyarthritis

Resistant to ATB

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55
Q

Virulence factor of M. bovis

A

Variable surface proteins (VSPs)

Lack of cell wall –> resistant to b-lactams

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56
Q

Sources of infection for M. bovis

A

Contact Aerosol Infected milk

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57
Q

Lung lesions for M. bovis

A

Caseonecrotic lesions Foci of coagulation necrosis

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58
Q

Test for carriers of Mycoplasma mycoides-large colony type

A

PCR of auricular swabs

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59
Q

Important source of infection of M. mycoides LCT

A

Does that recover from mastitis become chronic carriers

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60
Q

M. mycoides-large colony type

A

*hot swollen joints*

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61
Q

Prevention of m. mycoides LCT

A

Feed heat treated colostrum, or cow colostrum at birth, then pasteurized milk or replacer from 1 month to weaning

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62
Q

“Fog fever”

A

Acute Bovine Pulmonary Edema and Emphysema

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63
Q

Cause of ABPEE

A

L-tryptophane from lush pastures –> 3-Methylindole

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64
Q

3 important features of ABPEE

A
  1. Absence of coughing 2. No signs of sepsis 3. No adventitious lung sounds
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65
Q

Target cells is ABPEE

A

Type I pneumocytes and Clara cells

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66
Q

Moldy Sweet Potato

A

4 - Ipomeanol toxicity –> interstitial pneumonia

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67
Q

Diagnosis of extrinsic allergic alveolitis “bovine farmer’s lung”

A

Antibody to S. rectivirgula

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68
Q

Treatment for D. viviparus

A

Ivermectin -> 3, 8, 13 weeks Doramectin -> 0, 8 weeks If treatment during PPP -> larvae never shed in feces

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69
Q

Most common lung worm in small ruminants

A

Muellerius capillaris

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70
Q

Muellerius capillaris: where is the adult parasite located?

A

Goat: subpleural tissue Sheep: nodules

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71
Q

Best treatment for M. capillaris

A

1 week on/1 week off/1 week on with fenbendazole *Resistant to levamisole

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72
Q

Thin ewe syndrome

A

Ovine progressive pneumonia - Maedi visna

73
Q

Which conditon is related to this image and why?

A

Ovine progressive pneumonia

Aseptic indurative lymphocytic mastitis

74
Q

Clinical pathology in cases of OPP

A
  • Lymphocytosis
  • Hypochromic anemia
  • Hypergammaglobulinemia in advance cases
75
Q

Pathophysiology of OPP

A

Ingestion of milk/colostrum → monocytes or macrophages → spread to tissues

76
Q

Explain the “test and cull” for the control of OPP

A

if (+) → isolate or cull adult and lamb < 1 year age

77
Q

This clinical presentation corresponds most likely to which condition?

A

Ovine Pulmonary Adenocarcinoma

  • Frothy fluid in the respiratory tract
  • Evident with the wheelbarrow test
78
Q

What is considered pathognomonic for Vena Caval Thrombosis and Metastatic Pneumonia in cattle

A
  • Respiratory signs with anemia
  • Widespread wheezes
  • Hemoptysis
79
Q

Necropsy finding in vena caval thrombosis

A

Thrombus between the liver and right atrium at the caudal vena cava

80
Q

Diagnosis of bovine tuberculosis

A

TB test → injection of M. bovis purified protein derivate

  • At ≠ sites → ↑ specificity

Culture is gold standard (8 weeks incubation)

81
Q

Most common bacteria implicated in pleuritis and pleuropneumonia in cattle

A
  • M. haemolytica
  • H. somni
82
Q

Tretment for Oestrus ovis infestation

A
  • Ivermectin -> treat after the first hard freeze
  • Oral moxidectin is not effective
83
Q

Most common bacteria in cases of sinusitis in cattle

A
  • Dehorning → T. pyogenes
  • Not dehorning → Pasteurella multocida
84
Q

Possible initial cause of laryngeal necrobacillosis

A

Laryngeal contact ulcers

Histophilus somni?

85
Q

Bacteria implicated in laryngeal necrobacillosis

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

  • Needs portal of entry
86
Q

Texel-cross lamb with prolonged inspiration and a honking cough

A

Inherited chondrodysplasia causing tracheal collapse

  • Autosomal recessive
87
Q

Honker cattle

A

Tracheal Edema Syndrome of Feedlot Cattle

88
Q

Death cattle, bloody nose, hematuria

A

C. haemolyticum

89
Q

Most common bacteria in pneumonia due to transportation

A

Actinobacillus

Pasteurella

Streptococcus

90
Q

Most common age for R. equi pneumonia

A

3 weeks - 5 months

91
Q

Most common presentatio of R. equi

A

Subclinical, might recover without therapy

92
Q

Which is the desired immunological response in cases of R. equi pneumonia?

A

Type 1 response:

This is characterized by the production of antigen-specific Th1 lymphocytes, which allow for clearance of intracellular R. equi via the production of IFN-g and the activation of macrophages, and by antigen specific cytotoxic T lymphocytes which recognize and kill R. equi infected cells.

93
Q

Which immunological response is detrimental for foals infected with R. equi?

A

Th 2 response:

Predicted to develop potentially life-threatening pulmonary lesions

94
Q

Gene associated with virulence in R. equi, and where is it located?

A

Vap A gene, located in the pathogenicity island (PAI)

95
Q

These genes are necessary for the correct functioning of the main virulence factor of R. equi, so the bacteria can replicate and survive in the macrophages. Y’all know what I’m talking about?

A

VirR and Orf

Each of them encondes a regulatory protein

96
Q

Which gene in R. equi encodes a immunodominant, temperature-inducible, surface expressed lipoprotein?

97
Q

Receptor used by macrophages to engulf opsonized R. equi

A

Complement receptor 3 = CR3 or Mac-1

98
Q

Which receptor does R. equi use for entry in the macrophage

A

Mannose receptor in the macrophage that recognized lipoarabinomannan (LAM) in the bacterium

99
Q

Which cell is required for complete pulmonary clearance of R. equi

A

T lymphocytes (> CD4+)

100
Q

Why are adult horses more resistent to R. equi pneumonia?

A

Developement of R. equi-specific CTLs

101
Q

Why are foals more susceptible to R. equi pneumonia?

A
  • Deficient in CTL
  • Ag presenting cells have decrease CD1, MHC II expression
  • IFN-g deficiency and Th2 bias
102
Q

Diagnosis of R. equi pneumonia

A

Bacterial culture and PCR for VapA gene from TBA

103
Q

What is the effect of vaccination of mares against R. equi?

A

Does not increase protection

104
Q

Which infectious agents can cause lung infections in utero?

A

EVA, EHV-1, 4

105
Q

Diagnosis of P. carinii pneumonia

A

Trophozoites in histology

Interstitial, miliary pattern

106
Q

How long is the nasal shedding in strangles

107
Q

Best way to determine the carrier status in strangles

A
  • Endoscopic examination of the GP
  • Culture + PCR of GP lavage
108
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of strangles

A

Culture

  • Nasopharynx, GP wash*
  • Preferred method on aspirate of masses
109
Q

Which test is more sensitive than culture for diagnosis of strangles?

A

PCR → SeM protein, the gene for the antiphagocytic M protein

  • Guttural pouch sampling is the most reliable
  • > Se than culture, always use in combination
110
Q

Interpretation of a SeM ELISA for strangles where the titer is ≥ 1:3200

A

High antibody → predispose to develop purpura when vaccinated

  • Do NOT vaccinate
111
Q

What is the detection rate for strangles when both culture + PCR are used?

112
Q

How long is the quarantine for strangles?

113
Q

Why is mechanical ventilation challenging in cases of ARDS/ALI?

A

Areas of mismatch with areas of normal lung tissue

Predisposes to ventilator-induced lung injury

114
Q

PaO2/FiO2 ratios to classify ARDS/ALI

A

< 300 mmHg ALI (PaO2 < 63)

< 200 mmHg ARDS (PaO2 < 42)

115
Q

Test with highest Se and Sp for diagnosis of respiratory viruses in horses

116
Q

T/F

For EIV, serum antibody concentrations correlates with protection

117
Q

Which lineage of EIV is currently circulating?

118
Q

Vaccine recommendation for EIV by OIE

A

Florida clades 1 and 2

119
Q

How long is the shedding for EIV?

120
Q

Diseases cause by EHV-1

A
  1. Respiratory
  2. Abortion/Neonatal death
  3. EHVM
  4. Chorioretinopathy –> shotgun lesions
121
Q

How long is the shedding of EHV-1?

122
Q

What is the purpose of the lymphocyte-associated viremia of EHV-1?

A

Virus reaches other tissues, targets the endothelial cells and causes vasculitis

Viremia can persist for 21 days! FFS!

123
Q

Where are the places for latency of EHV-1?

A
  • Trigeminal ganglion
  • Lymphoreticular system
124
Q

Most important cell for immunity against EHV-1?

A

CTLs –> MHC class I restricted

Mediated by CD8+

125
Q

What is the effect of antibodies against EHV-1?

A

Decrease virus shedding, but fail in preventing infection, abortion and EHM

126
Q

How does EHV-1 evade the immune system?

A
  • Downregulationof MHC-1
  • Alteration of NK cells
  • Modulation of cytokine response
127
Q

How long is the isolation for cases of EHV-1?

128
Q

Measures to prevent EAV

A
  • Vaccinate colts in the first year and annually thereafter
  • Vaccinate mares that will be bred
  • Manage carrier stallions separate, or castrate
  • MLV
129
Q

Which animals are at higher risk for infection with equine adenovirus

A

Arabian foals with SCID

Immunocompromised animals

130
Q

Types of equine adenoviruses

A
  • EAdV-1 → respiratory disease, conjunctivitis
  • EAdV-2 → diarrhea in foals
131
Q

What stage of D. arnfieldi is in the bronchi?

A

L5, is retained in non-patent infection

But remember, horse also patent infection

132
Q

Which inflammatory mediators are upregulated in cases of severe equine asthma?

A
  • IL-8
  • IL-1b
  • TNF-a
133
Q

What kind of immunologic response occurs in severe equine asthma?

A

Th2 response, IgE mediated

134
Q

It is believed that there is a genetic component in severe equine asthma. Which gene could be implicated?

A
  • IL-4 receptor gene
    • IL-4 enhances IL-8
135
Q

Pathophysiology of EIPH

A

Rupture of alveolar capillaries secondary to increase in intramural pressure (increase in both capillary and alveolar pressure)

136
Q

Does furosemide affect performance in cases of EIPH?

A

Administration 4 hrs before is associated with improved racing outcomes

137
Q

Is furosemide effective prophylaxis for EIPH?

A

4 hours before extrenous exercise decreases the severity and incidence of EIPH

  • Furosemide decreases pulmonary capillary and transmural pressure
138
Q

Mucus scoring for equine asthma

A
  • Grade 0 = no mucus
  • Grade 1 = single to multiple small blobs
  • Grade 2 = larger but non confluent blobs
  • Grade 3 = confluent or stream forming
  • Grade 4 = pool forming
  • Grade 5 = profuse amounts
139
Q

For glanders (farcy), why would you do a IDT?

A

To certify negative horses

Is zoonotic and cases have to be reported to OIE

140
Q

What is necessary in a cytology to diagnose a fungal pneumonia?

A

Large number of fungi in degenerated neutrophils in a speedily processed sample

141
Q

Which diagnosis with high Se and Sp can be used for Conidiobolomycosis?

A

Serum antibodies

142
Q

What is your interpretation of high titers for aspergillosis?

A

Is common from environmental exposure

  • Definitive diagnosis is by culture*, IHC, IF
143
Q

Why antifungals like azoles or amphotericin B are not effective against pneumocystosis?

A

Pneumocystis carinii lacks ergosterol! FML!

144
Q

If you want to diagnose pneumocystosis, what sample would you submit?

A

BAL for cytology

  • Can NOT be cultured
145
Q

In cases of strangles, how long does the nasal shedding last?

146
Q

Best way to increase detection of R. equi

A

Culture + PCR (90% detection)

147
Q

Purpura hemorrhagica is a type ____ hypersensitivity reaction

148
Q

How would you institute ventilation in a case of ALI/ARDS?

A

Low tidal volumes

149
Q

Would you use bronchodilators to treat a case of ALI/ARDS?

A

No! It can worsen the V/Q mismatch

150
Q

OIE recommendations for influenza vaccine

A

Florida clades 1 and 2

151
Q

What is the reason for vaccine failure in EIV?

A

Antigenic drift

152
Q

What are the principals hallmarks of ALI/ARDS?

A
  1. Increased alveolar-capillary permeability edema*
  2. Infiltration and activation of inflammatory cells
  3. Atelectasis
  4. Pulmonary hypertension
153
Q

Clinical effects of ALI/ARDS

A
  • Dyspnea
  • Profound hypoxemia secondary to V/Q mismatch
  • Reduced lung compliance
154
Q

Important diagnostic test in ALI/ARDS for confirming condition and assess progression

A

Serial measurements of PaO2

155
Q

What is the mainsted treatment for interstitial pneumonia?

A

Corticosteroids

Early and agressive therapy provides the best long-term outcome

156
Q

Gene implicated in heritability of RAO

A

IL-4 receptor gene

157
Q

Response that mediates ocurrence of RAO

A

Th-2 mediated pathway

158
Q

What test should be used to certify a horse negative for Glanders?

159
Q

Virulence factor for Trueperella pyogenes

160
Q

Which is an effective way to protect calves against infection with B. trehalosi?

A

Administration of a multivalent MLV vaccine containing M. haemolytica toxoid

161
Q

Which bronchodilator can be used in a case of RAO? ©

A

Ipratropium

162
Q

Which disease is difficult to erradicate with vaccination and isolation? ©

A

Equine Influenza Virus

163
Q

If suspected of M. haemolytica, P. multocida or H. somni, what is the best way to collect a sample that is clinically significant?

A

Distal to the nasopharynx –> TTW, BAL

If not possible, at least deep NPS

164
Q

Which is the best drug for treatment and prevention of BRD? ©

A

Oxytetracycline

165
Q

Best measure for eradication of EAV from herd ©

A

Manage carrier stallions

Vaccinate mares that are bred to the carrier stallion

166
Q

Mycoplasma other than M. bovis causative of BRD? ©

A

M. dispar

(can be normal upper respiratory flora)

167
Q

Best treatment for BRD in dairy cattle ©

168
Q

What is known about the use of furosemide for EIPH? ©

A

Decrease severity and incidence

(reduces pulmonary vascular pressure)

169
Q

Lung lesions in EIPH ©

A

Bilateral and more in caudo-dorsal region

Pleural and septal fibrosis and angiogenesis

Venous remodeling

170
Q

Advantages of ultrasouund for R. equi ©

A

Evaluation of severity of pneumonia and response to therapy

171
Q

Best treatment for dyspnea in alpaca ©

172
Q

SaO2 of 90% corresponds to _____ mmHg

173
Q

Blood gas changes in a V/Q mismatch ©

A

V/Q = 0 –> same as venous blood (PO2=40; CO2=45)

V/Q = infinity –> same as inspired air (PO2=149; CO2=0)

174
Q

Neutrophils in BAL of llama ©

A

11% –> higher than horses

175
Q

Status of bronchi in IAD ©

A

No bronchoconstriction

176
Q

Primary fungi pathogen ©

A

Coccidioides immitis

177
Q

Action of macrophages in R. equi ©

A

Activation of IFNg by CD4+

178
Q

Test to diagnose airway responsiveness in cases of IAD ©

A

Histamine aerosol –> elevated levels of leukotriene C4

LAIM (20 decks)

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