Research Flashcards

1
Q

Studies in order of best evidence

A

Systematic reviews>RTCs> cohort study, case control, cross sectional, case series, case reports, ideas/opinions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Meta analysis

A

Type of systematic review - has an estimate of effect size by comparing multiple RTCs to determine the effectiveness of a treatment; can minimize the issue of a small sample size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cohort studies

A

Observational longitudinal study - looks at a specific group of people with a risk factor and follows to see if they get the disease or not; can be done prospectively or retrospectively; difficult bc a lot of lifestyle factors can influence outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Case control study

A

Retrospective observational study; individuals with a disease are matched with a comparison group of those without the disease - looking for differences in exposture and occurrence of disease = the odd’s ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cross sectional study

A

Observational study - data collection done only at one point in time and all participants are tested at relateively the same time. Describes relationships between a disease and factors of interest that exist in that population at a given time; can look at prevalence - but can’t look at newly occurring conditions, and doesn’t give a causal relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Case report or series

A

In depth description of an individual’s condition or response to treatment; cannot test hypotheses or estabilish cause & effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Descriptive research

A

Analyzing with the goal of classifying and understanding a clinical phenomenon EX: developmental, normative, qualitative, case report, series

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Experimental research

A

Comparing 2 or more conditions for the purpose of determining cause and effect EX: RTCs, quasi experimental studies, single subject designs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Exploratory research

A

Examines the dimensions of a phenomenon of interest and its relationships to other factors; EX: cohort studies, case control, historical research, methodological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Qualitative research

A

Data from observation/interviews focused on meaning and interpretations to gain an understanding in thoughts and opinions or develop hypotheses; global, probing, small sample size, non statistical, exploratory or investigative - findings cannot be used to make generalizations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Quantitative

A

Data or measurements that are analyzed via statistics with the goal of quantifying data to generalize results onto a population; non-probing, specific, large sample size, objective observer, used to recommend a final course of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Respect for persons

A

Refers to individuals rights to make autonomous decisions about their health care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Beneficent

A

The obligation of the researcher to provide for the well being of their subjects by maximizing benefits and minimizing the possible harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

minimal risk

A

The magnitude of harm or discomfort anticipated in the research is not greater than that ordinarily encourntered in daily living

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vulnerable populations

A

Typically minors, those with diminished capacity to consent, pregnant women, human fetuses, neonate, non-English speaking, prisoners, students

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Continuous data

A

Can assume any value along a continuous scale that covers a range of values without gaps or interruptions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Discrete data

A

Measured in whole units: HR, number of clinic visits, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dischotomous data

A

Type of discrete data; limited to only two values: gender, smoking vs non smoking, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Qualitative data

A

Categorical; non numeric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Quantitative data

A

Measurements or numerical value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Nominal scale

A

Classification scale; Ea object and person can only be assigned to one category; ex: blood type, breath sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ordinal scale

A

Ranking scale, based on the property of the variable; muscle grading tests, level of assistance, joint laxity scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Interval scale

A

Measurement scale where intervals are equal and there is no true zero point; Ex: temperature on the F or C scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ratio

A

measurement scale where the intervals are equal and there is a true zero: ex; ROM, distance walked, time to complete an activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Alternate forms reliability

A

Parallel forms reliability; 2 things are assessing the same thing consistently and accurately; ex: different NPTE tests can be administered throughout the year as long as their reliability is the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Internal consistency

A

The extent that items or elements that contribute to a measurement reflect one dimension; ex: a functional assessment scale should only include things that look at pt’s function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Intrarater reliability

A

Consistency of one person repeating the same measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Inter-rather reliability

A

Consistency of a test being measured by different people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Test-retest reliability

A

Consistency or equivalence of repeated measurements performed on the same person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Face validity

A

Degree of which a measurement tests what it is supposed to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Content validity

A

Degree in which a measurement reflects meaningful elements; ex: location, and type of pain, not just number of pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Construct validity

A

Degree of which a theoretical construct is measure by a test or measure; ex: MMT to innervation status of a muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Criterion related validity

A

Validity of a measure is determined by comparing it to a gold standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Concurrent validity

A

Criterion related validity; measurement is compared to a gold standard at the same time as it is being tested by something else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Predictive validity

A

Criterion related validity; measurement is considered valid because it predicts future behavior or events; ex: GRE to predict grad school success

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Prescriptive validity

A

Criterion related validity; the measurement suggests the form of treatment the pt should receive, then measured by the successful outcome of the treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Sampling error

A

Chance difference between statistical calculated from a sample and the true value of the parameter in the population; inherent in the use of sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Sampling with replacement vs without

A

Ea unit sampled is put back in the population before the next is drawn, ea unit truly has an equal chance of being selected; not used with humans; without: no placed back, reduces the size of the population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Probability sampling

A

Sampling that uses random selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Systematic sampling

A

Every ‘n’th number in a population is selected; simplicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Stratified random sampling

A

Population is dived into homogenous subgroups then simple random sampling from each group; this assumes that the sample will be representative of key subgroups as well as the overall population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cluster sampling

A

Population divided into clusters, usually based on geography; then random samples of the clusters are taken; less costly and more efficient than simple random sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Downfall to simple random sampling

A

May not be representative of population; not statistically efficient

44
Q

Non probability sampling

A

Any method of sampling that does not include random selection

45
Q

Convenience sampling

A

Using participants that are convenient to the researcher

46
Q

Purposive sampling

A

Selected based on key criteria

47
Q

Quota sampling

A

Subjects from ea subgroup are not randomly chosen, convenience sampling is used to choose from ea group

48
Q

Snowball sampling

A

Subjects identify other subjects - used when the characteristic being studied is rare

49
Q

Completely randomized design

A

Parallel group design; subjects are randomly assigned to different groups and ea group receives a unique intervention and then results are compared at the end

50
Q

Crossover design

A

Research design where subjects receive both treatments in random order separated by a period of no treatment; ea subject serves as their own control

51
Q

Factorial design

A

Research design in two or more independent variables are investigated with different subjects assigned to different combinations of the varibales

52
Q

Pre-test/post-test control group design

A

Compares the outcomes of two or more groups formed by random assignment by testing all groups before & after treatment; basic format of a RCT

53
Q

Posttest only control group

A

Compares the outcomes of two or more groups formed by random selection, by testing all groups only after the treatment

54
Q

Repeated measures design

A

Subjects are tested under all conditions, ea person acts as their own control: within subjects design

55
Q

Sequential clinical trial

A

Research design where the data is analyzed as it becomes available, so the trial can be stopped as soon as the evidence is sufficent to show a significant difference

56
Q

Single subject design

A

Drawing conclusions about the effects of a treatment based on the responses of a single patient

57
Q

Quasi-experimental design

A

Research without a control group, random assignment, or both

58
Q

One group pre-test/post-test design

A

Research where measurements are made on group before and after treatment

59
Q

One way repeated measures design

A

Extension of the one group protest-posttest; measurements are made on one group and multiple specific time intervals

60
Q

Time series design

A

Multiple measurements are made before and after treatment to observe patterns or trends during pre/post treatment periods

61
Q

What are the 3 types of quasi-experimental designs?

A

One group pre-test/post-test
One way repeated measures over time
Time series design

62
Q

Triple blinding

A

The subject, certain members of the team, and data analyzer are unaware of the research hypothesis

63
Q

Active control group

A

A known effective treatment is provided

64
Q

Matching/pairing

A

Identify pairs of subjects that have identical characteristics; i.e. Twin studies

65
Q

Intention to treat analysis

A

Analysis of all subjects randomly assigned to one of the treatments, regardless of whether they received or completed that treatment; preserves the balance of subject groups achieved through randomization

66
Q

External validity

A

Degree to which results are generalizable to populations beyond those in the study; threats: treatment interaction within setting and time

67
Q

Internal validity

A

Degree in which an intervention is the cause of the outcome measured in the study, and not due to extraneous factors. Threats: maturation, attrition, testing, instrumentation, regression toward the mean

68
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

An untreated subject experiences a change simply from participating in a study

69
Q

Alternate hypothesis

A

The experiemental hypothesis; Ha or H1

70
Q

Null hypothesis

A

Statistical hypothesis

71
Q

Independent variable

A

Caused the effect

72
Q

Dependent variable

A

Response or outcome caused by the independent variable

73
Q

P-value

A

Probability that a particular result could have happened by chance

74
Q

Alpha level

A

The significance level; usually 0.05; the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true or of committing a type I error

75
Q

If the p-value is less than vs. greater than the alpha level

A

Less than: reject the null hypothesis; greater than: do not reject

76
Q

Type I error

A

Concluding there is a significant difference when there is not; incorrectly rejecting the null
False positive

77
Q

Type II error

A

Stating there is not a difference when there is; incorrectly not rejecting the null
False negative

78
Q

Effect size

A

Measure of the magnitude of the difference between two treatments or values; the larger the ES, the more likely it will be statistically significant

79
Q

Effect size index

A

Difference between 2 groups divided by the SD

<0.1 trivial effect; >0.5 large effect

80
Q

Minimal detectable difference or change (MDC)

A

Minimum chance in a patients condition beyond a measurement of error

81
Q

Box & whisker plot - 5 values

A

Min score, Q1, median (Q2), upper quartile (Q3), max score

82
Q

Forest plot

A

Used in meta-analysis to show results of individual studies in addition to cumulative summary through a diamond shape

83
Q

Histogram

A

Displays distribution of data through plotting frequency

84
Q

Kurtosis

A

Describes the peak of a distribution: high kurtosis has a sharp peak, while a low has a flatter peak

85
Q

Bell curve

A

68% of data within 1SD above and below the mean
95% within 2
99% within 3

86
Q

Measuring skewness - positive, negative

A

Positive: mean/median are to the R of the mode (near the tail)
Negative: to the L of the mode (near the tail- tail to L)

87
Q

Coefficient of variation

A

The ration of the standard deviation of a distribution to the mean

88
Q

Variance

A

SD squared, usually not reported

89
Q

Analysis of variance (ANOVA)

A

Used to test the equality between two or more populations; one way: separated into groups based on only one characteristic vs. two way: separated based on 2 characteristics or factor

90
Q

Repeated measures ANOVA

A

All individuals are measured under a different number of conditions

91
Q

Regression analysis

A

Predicts how a change in one or more independent variables affects the dependent variable

92
Q

Interclass correlation (ICC)

A

Assess both the degree of correspondence and agreement among scores

93
Q

Pearson’s r

A

From -1.0 to +1.0; indicates the direction and magnitude of the relationship

94
Q

Dependent/paired t-test vs. independent t test

A

Compares the means of two groups that are correlated vs. compares two independent groups

95
Q

One sample t test

A

Compares to an expected or reference mean

96
Q

One tailed test

A

Statically symmetrical distribution, used only when a test can have only one effect: ex: helpful vs. not helpful

97
Q

Z-test

A

Used when the population is normally distributed

98
Q

Chi square test

A

No parametric statistics, compares between categorical varibales

99
Q

Kruskal Wallis test

A

Used to determine if 3 or more independent samples come from the same population; nonparametic version of one way anaylsis

100
Q

Mann Whitney test

A

Compares two independent samples with ordinal level data; independent t test comparison

101
Q

Spearman rank correlation coefficient

A

Correlational test for ordinal values; comparable to pearson’s r

102
Q

Wilcoxon signed rank test

A

Compares two dependent samples with ordinal data; comparable to paired t

103
Q

Sensitivity vs. specificity

A

Sen: with high sensitivity negative result = rule out (SnNout)
Sp: high specificty, positive rules in = SpPin

104
Q

Relative risk

A

Measure of risk for those exposed to the same risk factor; <1.0 increased risk

105
Q

Odds ratio

A

Measure of the odds of something happening; <1.0 exposure may reduce risk, >1.0 exposure may increase risk

106
Q

Number needed to treat

A

Number of patients that need to be treated to prevent one bad outcome; the higher the NNT, the less effective the treatment