Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

COMPETENCY > RENAL > Flashcards

RENAL Flashcards

1
Q

who is the ckd-epi equation not validated in

A

children (age <18 years), pregnant women, or in some racial or ethnic subgroups, such as Hispanics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

AKI definition 1: increase in scr by how much within 48h?

A
  1. Increase in SCr by ≥ 26.5 mmol/L within 48 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AKI definition 2: assume to occur within the 7 days, how much is the increase in SCr

A

more than 1.5 times baseline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

AKI definition 3: how much urine volume the last 6 hours

A

less than 0.5ml/kg/h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the main cause of pre-renal aki, and the conditions associated with it

A

reduced blood flow to kidneys

haemorrhage, dehydration, medications eg ACEi/ARB/NSAID, diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

main cause of intrinsic kidney damage

A

medication related - AG, vanco

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

main cause of post-renal aki

A

trauma, benign prostatic hyperplasia, tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which types of AKI have proteinuria

A

intrinsic, post-renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which type of AKI has high urine osmolarity

A

pre-renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how to manage pre-renal aki

A

fluid replacement, maintain BP, stop any drugs that cause volume depletion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how to manage intrinsic AKI

A

discontinue nephrotoxins, treat underlying infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how to manage post renal AKI

A

remove obstruction, reinstate urine flow by insertion of a catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how does nsaid cause aki

A

constriction of afferent arteriole, leading to decreased renal perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how does acei cause aki

A

dilatation of efferent arteriole, decreased glomerular filtration pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

gfr categories

A

g1 - more than 90
g2 - 60-89
g3a - 45-59
g3b - 30-44
g4 - 15-29
g5 - less than 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

labs to look out for in renal scripts

A

urea, phosphate, calcium, potassium, bicarb, anemia, pth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when to use iron supplementation

A

tsat less than 30 and ferritin less than 500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

drug interactions with oral iron

A

calcium, tetracyclines, fluoroquinolones, thyroxine, antacids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the composition of iron
1. sangobion
2. iberet folate

A

12%
20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

if a patient is acutely ill, what to do with IV iron

A

can cause increased risk for infections
* Withhold during acute infections, restart after infection resolves (usually after the end of
the abx course)
* May consider switching to oral iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when to start ESA

A

Hb is between in 9-10

22
Q

what happens when the target hb is more than 11 in ckd patients with esa

A

increased risk of cv events and stroke

23
Q

how to dose adjust esa

A

25% increments
titrations not more often than every 4 weeks
maximal increase in hb is 1 every 2-4w

24
Q

when the monitor hb when on esa

A

initiation: 2-4w
maintenance: monthly (dialysis), 3 monthly (non-dialysis)

25
Q

list 5 adverse effects of ESA

A
  1. Pure red cell aplasia
  2. HTN (most common)
  3. Vascular access thrombosis
  4. Seizures
  5. Flu-like syndrome
26
Q

calcium based phosphate binders side effects

A

hypercalcemia, GI upset, constipation, LOA, nausea, vomiting

27
Q

sevelamer, lanthanum, sucroferric side effects

A

both: GI upset, diarrhoea, vomiting
sucroferric: discoloration of stools
sevelamer: constipation, flatulence

28
Q

side effect of vitamin d analogues

A

increase GI absorption of calcium and phosphate, causing hyperca and hyperphos

29
Q

what is the place of finerenone in ckd patient?

A

for patients with DKD and proteinuria, finererone resulted in lower risks of CKD progression and cvs events than placebo

30
Q

list 4 PD related complications

A
  1. peritonitis
  2. exit-site and tunnelled-catheter infections
  3. hypoK
  4. hyperglycemia (change PD fluids from glucose to icodextrin)
31
Q

diagnosis of PD peritonitis

A

at least 2 of the following:
1. clinical features consistent with peritonitis (ab pain, cloudy dialysis)
2. dialysis effluent white > 100 with >50% polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMN);
3. positive dialysis effluent culture

32
Q

ideal empiric therapy for PD peritonitis

A

vancomycin (Gram pos) + aminoglycoside/ ceftazidime (gram neg) or cefepime

33
Q

3 medicines that PD patient should be on

A
  1. potassium supplementation
  2. TOP genta cream for infection prophylaxis
  3. laxatives to ensure daily bowel movement (AVOID FLEET due to high phosphate)
34
Q

list 4 complications associated with HD and how to manage

A
  1. Intradialytic hypotension
    - Midodrine
    - Adjust timing of anti-hypertensives
    - Set accurate dry weight
  2. muscle cramps
    - Keep dialysate Na greater than serum Na
  3. vascular access thrombosis
  4. catheter associated infections
35
Q

dosing of amikacin in PD peritonitis

A

2mg/kg daily

36
Q

dosing of other AGs besides amikacin in PD peritonitis

A

0.6mg/kg daily

37
Q

dosing of cefazolin in PD peritonitis

A

15 mg/kg daily

38
Q

when to avoid oral phosphate containing bowel prep

A

gfr <60

39
Q

when to initiate acei/arb for proteinuria

A

uacr between 30-300

40
Q

how does sevelamer act as a phosphate binder

A

nonabsorbable, nonelemental hydrogel

41
Q

additional benefits of sevelamer (cholesterol)

A

lower hdl, increases hdl

42
Q

main side effects of phosphate binders

A

NVD, ab pain

43
Q

why are aluminium binders not preferred (2 reasons)

A

CNS toxicity, worsening of anemia

44
Q

why are magnesium binders not preferred (2 reasons)

A

hypermagnesiumia, hyperk

45
Q

goal for pth in esrd

A

2-9 times uln

46
Q

side effects of vitamin D analogs

A

hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia

47
Q

how do calcimimetics work (eg cinacalcet)

A

reduce PTH secretion by increasing sensitivity of clacium sending recfeptor

48
Q

side effects of calcimimetics

A

nausea vomiting

49
Q

what to do with statins in adults on dialysis

A

continue if already on prior to dialysis, otherwise do not start

50
Q
A

COMPETENCY (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions