Reminders Flashcards

1
Q

What must you do when you get an electronic request for records

A

Make sure a release is signed

Remove all personally identifiable information before sending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do you do when you get a request for info from an ethics committee

A

Make sure an ROI has been signed

Comply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Can psychologists exchange services for media advertisement

A

Nope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sexual harassment is when…

A

Someone has said it’s offensive and asks you to stop (and you don’t)

When it is significant enough to be considered abusive by a reasonable person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bartering is okay when…

A

It’s even in scale

When it doesn’t create a problem with dual-roles
Ex. Therapist and boss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If someone isn’t progressing in treatment and wants to stay with you

A

Set a termination date if you can’t find new goals to work on

(No progress on treatment goals, no service)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Contingent fees

A

Should be avoided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Privilege

A

Legal requirement that protects client information in LEGAL PROCEEDINGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Thinning

A

A reduction in reinforcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Two-factor theory of learning

A

Contains elements of classic and operant conditioning

Explains avoidance conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What learning heuristic is good for learning a second language

A

Keyword method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Overcorrection

Positive punishment

A

Restitution
- some kind of punishment

Positive practice
- reinforce positive, alternative behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Proactive interference

A

When old information impacts the ability to learn or use new information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Retroactive interference

A

When newly learned information impacts your ability to recall previously learned material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mean and SD of WAIS and SBinet

A

Index scores: mean of 100, sd of 15

Subtest scores: mean of 10, sd of 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Kaufman Tests

A

KABC-II intelligence test for children

Can score with Luria’s neuropsychological processing model to remove interference from non-mainstream cultural backgrounds, language or hearing background, or autism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PPVT

A

Peabody picture vocabulary test

Measure of receptive vocabulary in people with psychosis, autism, motor or speech impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ravens PM

A

Nonverbal measure of general (fluid) intelligence

Considered a useful multicultural test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How was the Strong Interest Inventory developed

A

Empirical criterion keying

Comparing the test profiles of various professionals, male and female, to the test profiles of people in general

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Holland’s RIASEC

A

Realistic - technical, mechanical, outdoorsy
Investigative - scientific, mathematical, analytical
Artistic - creative, writing, designer
Social - helping professions, clergy
Enterprising - business, competitive, management, sales
Conventional - structured, unambiguous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

High LK
Low F

(On MMPI)

A

Fake good - giving an overly positive impression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

High F
High F-K index

(On MMPI)

A

Suggests exaggeration of sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Malingering on the MMPI

A

Malingering when LK are around 50
And F is slightly elevated
And clinical scales are sawtoothed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

High F scale
Significant scores on clinical scales (most or all)

(On the MMPI)

A

Suggests random responding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Bender-Gestalt

A

Neuropsych measure for visual-motor integration

Screening for neurological impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Benton Test

A

Test of visual memory retention

For the purpose of identifying brain damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What percent of genes do full siblings, fraternal twins, and first degree relatives share

A

50%

Half sibs share 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Genetic disorders of males and females

A

Kleinfelter - Male with extra X

Turner - Female with one X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ambivalent v Avoidance attachment styles

A

Ambivalent are clingy and avoidant (think borderline babies)

Avoidant are rejecting and unresponsive (overbearing or absent parents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The symptoms of FAS are…

A

Lifelong and irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In what order do infants develop depth cues

A

Kinetic

Binocular

Pictorial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What explains why normal children labeled “gifted” get more academic attention (and related improvements) than their peers

A

Rosenthal effect

If you believe something to be true, you will treat those people accordingly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What brain activity is responsible for negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Reduced activity in the PFC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How many sx needed to diagnose ADHD

A

Five in people over 17

Six in kids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Technique of solution focused therapists

A

Exception question

“When does this behavior NOT occur?”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Howard’s three phases of treatment

A
  1. Remoralization - instillation of hope
  2. Remediation - focus on sx
  3. Rehabilitation - unlearning maladaptive that caused the issue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Boundary disturbances

A

Part of Gestalt Therapy

When there’s a disruption between the boundary of self and the environment (can’t maintain homeostasis)

Introjection(swallowing whole concepts), projection (do to others) retroflection (do to self), confluence (guilt and resentment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Three levels of prevention

A

Primary - prevent new cases (promotes health, vaccinate)

Secondary - treat preexisting cases to minimize illness (screening and early intervention)

Tertiary - prevent consequences of the issue (community-based)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Duration of brief psychotic disorder

A

1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Age groups of men and women with highest suicide rates

A

Men - over 75

Women - 45-64

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Three stages of group cohesiveness

Yalom

A

Orientation

Conflict

Cohesiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is regulated breathing used for

A

Childhood onset fluency disorder

Stuttering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Difference between Alz neurocog and LBD neurocog

A

LBD neurocog starts with motor sx

Alz starts with memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What groups have highest rates of treatment service delivery

A

Lesbian and bisexual women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

“Oblique”

A

Means correlated in factor analyses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Spearman coefficients

A

Used in rank-order correlations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When would you use a correlated samples t-test

A

When analyzing only two means, from one sample of participants
(Within subjects design)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Purpose of an ANCOVA

A

Removes the effects of an extraneous valuable (covariant) on the dependent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When is history a threat to internal validity

A

When you have a lengthier study with only one group

(You may not be sure that your tx caused the effects, could be the impact of the historical event on all your participants)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What statistical procedure will get you the fewest number of predictors for a given outcome

A

Stepwise multiple regression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The career decision making model is founded in what clinical theory

A

Erikson and ego identity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Three components of expectancy theory

A

VIE

Valence
Instrumentality
Expectancy

(Related to employee motivation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Two factor theory of employee motivation

A

Lower level motivators - pay, materials
(Leads to dissatisfaction if not met, doesn’t increase motivation)

Higher level motivations - autonomy, responsivity, advancement
(Don’t lead to dissatisfaction if not met, leads to motivation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Two NEO traits associated with good leadership

A

Extraversion

Conscientiousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Leader-Member Exchange Theory

A

Views subordinates as in group or out group based on a number of factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Purpose of a behavioral interview

I/O

A

To see how employees have responded to work situations in the past

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Two types of integrity tests for employee selection decisions

A

Overt and personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Hemineglect results form damage to what part of the brain

A

Parietal

Usually right parietal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

James Lange Theory

A

Perception

Behaviors and physiological reaction > emotion

“I’m afraid because my heart is pounding and I’m sweating”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Cannon-Bard Theory

A

The PNS and cortex are stimulated

Then we feel emotions and bodily reactions

(Bodily experiences are relatively the same for all reactions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Two-Factor Theory of Emotion

Schachter & Singer

A

Physiological arousal + cognitive interpretation
= subjective emotional experience

(Epinephrine study)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The right hemisphere processes what kind of emotions

A

Negative emotions

So damage leads to euphoria and indifference)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The left hemisphere process what kinds of emotions

A

Positive emotions

Do damage leads to depression and emotional volatility (catastrophic reactions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What NT is inhibitory and related to anxiety

A

GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

When do we see advanced sleep phases

A

In older adults

When going to sleep and getting up occur earlier than what is typical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What depth perception cues do we use up close and farthest away

A

Up close = retinal disparity

Far away = motion parallax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Job of an antagonist drug

A

To block receptor cites OR inhibit the effect of a given NT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Floor and ceiling effects are…

A

The degree to which a test can DISCRIMINATE among those with very low, and those with very high levels of the thing measured by the test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What two things modify the relationship between message discrepancy and attitude change

A

Credibility

Source of the message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Number of bystanders to ensure most likely to get help

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What route to persuasion leads to strong behavioral change

A

Central route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What does a minority have to do to persuade majority opinion

A

Focus on behavioral style

Be persistent with the message without being dogmatic and too extreme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Your ability to have your attitudes change your behavior depends on…

A

Strength

Accessibility

Specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Realistic Conflict Theory

A

One theory of discrimination

Occurs when groups must fight or compete for resources

(Robbers Cave)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Taylor Russel tables require what three pieces of data

A

(Used to est percentage of new hires that will be successful)

Validity coefficients
Base rates
Selection ratios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Hawthorne Effect

A

Improvement in job performance as a result of participation in a study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Contingency Theory

Leadership

A

Leadership effectiveness is the result of leadership style and favorableness of the situation

Low LPC - task oriented, does well in low or highly favorable situations
High LPC - relationship focused, does will in moderately favorable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Purpose of the Position Analysis Questionnaire

A

To conduct worker-oriented job analyses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Benefits of relative measures of performance

A

Reduce bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What kind of validity is most important for selection tests

A

Concurrent validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

KR-20

A

Measures internal consistency of a measure when items are scored dichotomously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How are reliability coefficients interpreted

A

Directly as percent variability

0.80 = 80% variability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Equation for SEM

A

SD x Sqrt(1 - reliability coefficient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

When the reliability coefficient is 1.0…

A

Standard deviation is 10

SEM 0-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

When do you use multitrait-multimethod matrices

A

When evaluating construct validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The criterion coefficient can be no greater than…

A

Sqrt (1 - reliability coefficient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Ranges of Item Difficulty

A

0 (no one got the item right) - 1 (everyone got the item right)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Shrinkage

A

When the validity coefficient decreases during cross-validation of a measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

When do African American prefer a white therapist

A

When they’re in the conformity state of identity development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Somatic Sx Disorder v Conversion Disorder

A

Somatic symptoms are bodily sx

Conversion disorder are neurological sx without basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

BD I v BD II

A

Bipolar 1 requires mania

Bipolar 2 requires an episode of MDD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Requirements for Tourette’s

A

Dx before age 18

2 motor tics and 1 vocal tic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the purpose of gift giving with Asian clients

A

To instill hope and provide reassurance

Immediate support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Impact of psychotherapy on medical care

A

Provision of psychotherapy to patients lowers expenditures on medical care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Reaction formation

A

(Defense mechanism)

When you behave opposite of what you believe/feel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Positioning

A

Therapy technique when exaggerate the clients concerns to emphasize how ridiculous or irrational they are

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Schizoid PD v Avoidant PD

A

Schizoid has no desire or interest in social relationships

Avoidant reportedly wants relationships but avoids the due to fear of shame or rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Parataxic distortion

A

Transference for interpersonal therapists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Coefficient of determination

A

Correlation coefficient squared

Measure of shared variability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

When would you use a single sample chi square test

A

Single variable being measured

Nominal variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Type one error vs type two error

A

T1E - incorrectly rejecting the null
(Saying something is statistically significant when it’s not)

T2E - incorrectly keeping the null
(Saying there is no difference when there actually is)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

SEM increases as…

A

SD increases

Sample size decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

T-test v ANOVA

A

T test for one or two groups, with one IV

ANOVA for two or more groups with one IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Factorial ANOVA

A

When you have two or more IVs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Split Plot ANOVA

A

When you have multiple IVs, two of which are related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Correlation coefficients

- Pearson R v Spearman Rho v Point Biserial

A

Pearson’s R: both variables are continuous (interval or ratio)

Spearman’s Rho: both variables are ordinal

Point Biserial: one variable is dichotomous, one is continuous (interval or ratio)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Concordance rates for schizophrenia between monozygotic v dizygotic twins v non-twin siblings

A

48% monozygotic

17% dizygotic

9% nontwin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Inability to realize you have an illness

A

Anosognosia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Criteria for schizophrenia

A

Two active phases symptoms for at least one month (delu, halu, disorganized speech)

Continuous signs for at least six months (avolition, anhedonia, odd behaviors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Peter Lewinsohn’s theory of depression is based on…

A

Operant conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Subthreshold sx of mania and depression must be present for how long to dx cyclothymia

A

Two years

1ys for children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

How long do you need sx for to diagnose bulimia

A

Three months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Hypnagogic hallucinations occur when

A

Just before falling sleep

Narcolepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Hypnopompic hallucinations occur when

A

Just after awakening from sleep

Narcolepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

When does sleepwalking or sleep terrors occur

A

Stage 3 or 4

First third of the sleep period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Nonpharmacological treatment of choice for insomnia

A

CBT

  • stimulus control
  • sleep restriction
  • sleep-hygiene edu
  • relaxation
  • cognitive tax
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Age to dx pedophilic disorder

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Age cutoff for IED

A

Six years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Three categories of ODD sx

A

Argumentative/defiant
Vindictiveness
Angry/irritable mood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Dx if conduct disorder (time stamps)

A

At least three sx in last 12mo

At least one sx in last 6mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

ODD v CD

A

Emotional dysregulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

An amnestic-confabulatory type alcohol-induced major neurocognitive disorder is linked to a

A

Thiamine deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Sx opioid withdrawal

A

Nausea or vomiting

Diarrhea

Fever

(Flu-like symptoms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Sx of etoh withdrawal

A

Autonomic hyperactivity

Hand tremor

Hallucinations

Anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Four categories of substance use sx

A

Impaired control

Social impairment

Risky use

Pharmacological (tolerance and withdrawal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is required for a diagnosis of delirium

A

Impaired attention and awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Alzheimer’s NCD vs depression

A

Alzheimer’s NCD is related to gradual onset, and minimization of new (memory) deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q
Cognitive and motor symptoms in
NCD Parkinson’s
NCD Lewy Bodies
NCD Alzheimer’s
NCD Prion
A

NCD Parkinson’s starts with motor sx, then cognitive sx
NCD Lewy Bodies starts with cog sx, then motor sx
NCD Alzheimer’s starts with early memory loss (low Ach)
NCD Prion has a rapid progression of impairment in motor and cerebellar sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Schizoid PD v Schizotypal PD

A

Schizoid - no desire to form relationships

Schizotypal - avoid interaction due to a fear of people (unusual thinking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

According to Rogers, incongruence between self and experience is impacted by

A

Self worth

131
Q

Individuation

A

Carl Jung

The process by which a person becomes a psychological “individual” and unique…during the second half of life

132
Q

Introjection

A

The boundary disturbance that involves uncritically accepting values, standards, and beliefs of other people

Gestalt

133
Q

Motivation for behavior in reality therapy is driven by

A

Basic needs - survival, love, power, freedom, fun

Willam Glasser

134
Q

Mistaken style of life is associated with which therapy modality

A

Adler

Individual psychology

135
Q

The transtheoretical model of therapy assumes a persons motivation to change is affected by what three factors

A

Decisional balance

Self-efficacy

Temptation

136
Q

Four problem areas talked about in interpersonal therapy

A

Role disputes

Role transitions

Interpersonal deficits

Grief

137
Q

What is an “exceptional circumstance”

A

Narrative family therapy

An exceptional circumstance or unique outcome, one that is not predicted by problem-saturated narratives (can be used to help develop alternative narratives)

138
Q

“Differentiation”

Intrapersonal aspect

A

Inability to distinguish ones thoughts from feelings

Cannot separate emotionL and intellectual functioning

139
Q

“Differentiation”

Interpersonal aspect

A

Cannot separate ones own emotional functioning from the functioning of others

140
Q

Differentiation is a component of what therapy

A

Extended family systems therapy (Bowen)

141
Q

Three techniques used in strategic family therapy

A

Prescribing the symptom - engage in the problematic behavior in an exaggerated way

Restraining - telling family not to change or not to change too quickly

Ordeal - give family member an unpleasant task to complete when they engage in the undesirable behavior

142
Q

Primary goal of mindfulness based CBT is

A

Accepting and separating from distressful thoughts

143
Q

Three phases of stress inoculation training

A

Conceptualization and education

Skills acquisition and consolidation

Application and follow through

144
Q

The average psychotherapy patient was better off than _____ of patients who did not receive psychotherapy

A

80%

145
Q

What accounts for the greatest amount of variability across psychotherapy outcomes

A

Patient contributions

40% - unexplained variance
30% - patient contributions
12% - therapeutic relationship

146
Q

Caplan’s four obstacles to providing effective mental health services

A

Lack of knowledge
Skills
Confidence
Objectivity (caused by interference)

147
Q

Eyesenck determined that symptom improvement in psychotherapy was less than improvements due to…

A

Spontaneous remission

148
Q

Etic v emic

A
Etic = universal
Emic = culture-specific
149
Q

High communication vs low communication.

A

(Hall)

High - group understanding, nonverbal messages, context (characteristic of several cultural minority groups)

Low - relies on verbal message, independent of context, characteristic of while mainstream culture

150
Q

Part of the brain associated with Parkinson’s

A

Degeneration of DA-producing cells in the substantia nigra

Basal ganglia

151
Q

Part of the brain responsible for procedural, automatic memories

A

Cerebellum

152
Q

Hippocampus’s job with memory

A

Transfer declarative memories from STM to LTM

Injury = memories of incident not transferred to LTM

153
Q

Brain structure involved in Tourette’s

A

Basal ganglia

154
Q

Fxn of the hindbrain structures

Medulla
Pons
Cerebellum

A

Medulla - involuntary mouth mvmts, respiration, heart rate

Pons - coordinate mvmt between two sides of body

Cerebellum - posture, balance, procedural memories

155
Q

Function of midbrain structures

Retic Formation
Substantia Nigra

A

RF - consciousness and arousal

SN - reward seeking
Assc Parkinson’s

156
Q

Another word for absent seizures

A

Generalized onset non-motor

Blank stare with few other sx

157
Q

Migraines are assc with what NT

A

Serotonin

Low serotonin

158
Q

How Wernicke’s and Broca’s aphasias are alike

A

Alike - impaired repetition and anomia (can’t recall names of familiar objects)

159
Q

Damage to dlPFC

A

Perseveration responses

160
Q

Damage to orbitofrontal cortex

A

Acquired sociopathy

Behavioral disinhibition

161
Q

Damage to mediofrontal cortex

A

Decreased motivation and initiative

162
Q

Effects of Broca’s and Wernicke’s area damage

A

Broca - (expressive aphasia) slow, labored speech of primarily nouns & verbs, anomia, impaired repetition, Comprehension is ok
- Frontal lobe

Wernicke - (receptive aphasia) poor comprehension of written and spoken, fluent but nonsensical speech
- Temporal lobe

163
Q

H.M.

A

Major issue was anterograde amnesia

Inability to form new, long-term, declarative memories

164
Q

Parts of the brain for prospective memory

A

Prefrontal cortex - event-based prospective memory

Cingulate cortex - time-based prospective memory

165
Q

MAOI that causes sexual dysfunction

A

Phenelzine

166
Q

Antidepressant least likely to cause sexual side effects

A

Bubropion

NDRI

167
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Side effect of antipsychotics

Muscle rigidity, fever, autonomic dysfunction, altered mental state

168
Q

Side effects of SGAs

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Agranulocytosis (low WBCs)

Metabolic syndrome (weight gain, high BP, insulin resistance)

169
Q

Serotonin syndrome

A

SSRI + MAOI (or Lithium)

Agitation, confusion, autonomic instability, tremor, delirium, hyperthermia

170
Q

Early memory loss in Alzheimer’s is due to what NT

A

Low levels of Ach in entorhinal cortex and hippocampus

171
Q

Drugs for OCD

A

SSRIs

Serotonin deficiency found in OCD, so you want SSRIs to increase serotonin

172
Q

What theory of emotion is this:

Bite a pencil > smile > happy

A

James Lange

I am happy, because I’m smiling

173
Q

Lazarus Cognitive appraisal theory

A

Emotional reactions are due to appraisal of events

Primary appraisal - beliefs, values, motivation

Secondary appraisal - identifies coping skills and likelihood they’ll work

Reappraisal - changes appraisals if appropriate

174
Q

What do you consider when using automated licensing and scoring programs

A

Validity

Other psychometric properties

175
Q

Age of fetal viability

A

22-26 weeks

176
Q

Cause if Prader-Willi and Angelman Syndromes

A

Chromosomal deletions

177
Q

Overregularization

A

When a child misapplies rules for forming plurals and past tense

178
Q

Support for Chomsky’s theory of language development

A

All languages have the same underlying grammatical structure and rules

179
Q

Age of telegraphic speech

A

18-24mo

180
Q

Overextension

A

Language error

Child uses a word too broadly

181
Q

Underextension

A

Child using a word too narrowly

Language error

182
Q

Three language errors

A

Underextension

Overextension

Overregularization

183
Q

Number of sub stages in sensorimotor stage

And when does intentional, goal-directed behavior begin

A

Six stages

Intentional and goal-oriented behavior begins during sub stage 4, coordination of secondary circular reactions

184
Q

What happens to memory with age

A

Decline in long-term, secondary, memory

STM (primary memory) and remote LTM (tertiary memory) stay intact

185
Q

Occupational development per Marcia

A

Three stages:

identity foreclosure - job because your parents have it
Identity achievement - making a personal decision to be a certain job
Identity diffusion - not thinking about it until absolutely have to
Identity moratorium - considered options with no decision

186
Q

Kohlbergs states of gender identity development

A

Gender identity

Gender stability

Gender constancy

187
Q

Rothbart’s three aspects of temperament

A

Surgency/extraversion
Negative reactivity
(Related to reactivity)

Effortful control
(Related to self-regulation)

188
Q

Family intervention based on Patterson et al research on coercive family interactions

A

PMT

Parental training in effective parenting skills

189
Q

Insecure/resistant v insecure/avoidant attachment styles

A

Insecure/resistant - ambivalent - scared of stranger regardless, close to mom, angry at her when she returns

Insecure/avoidant - indifferent, avoidant, similar with stranger

190
Q

Three stages of Piaget’s morality development

A

Premoral - no consideration

Heteronomous - behavior and consequence focused (unsophisticated)

Autonomous - rules can be changed, judge behavior on actors intentions

191
Q

Biggest predictor of divorce

Communication style by Gottman and Leveson

A

Contempt

Also: criticism, defensiveness, stonewalling

192
Q

Outcomes of high-quality daycare

A

Increase behavioral problems
Improved cognitive and language abilities, social skills

Similar to non-daycare attachment

193
Q

For second order conditioning,

A

The CS acts as a US

194
Q

Most effective conditioning procedure

A

Delayed

195
Q

Covert sensitization

A

Pair an image of a stimulus associated with the problem behavior, with an image of a stimulus that naturally produces an incompatible dad undesirable response.

196
Q

Implosive therapy

A

Always imaginative

Incorporates psychodynamic elements

197
Q

EMDR is effective because…

A

Repeated exposure to the feared object or event

198
Q

Positive v negative discriminative stimulus

A

Positive - reinforcement will be provided

Negative - signals reinforcement will follow

199
Q

Matching Law is used for…

A

Talks about understanding rates of reinforcement

Proportionality of frequency is related to the reinforcement schedule

200
Q

Premack Principle

A

Using a preferred action to reinforce a behavior

201
Q

Three components of the working memory

Per Baddeley

A

Visuospatial sketchpad
Phonological loop
Episodic buffer (integrates verbal and visual info)

202
Q

Four processes in Banduras observational learning

A

Attention
Retention
Production
Motivation

203
Q

When previously learned information interferes with new learning

A

Proactive interference

(PRevious knowledge interferes, PRoactive interference

204
Q

What supports the serial position effect

A

STM

LTM

205
Q

Item discrimination index (D)

A

Ranges -1 to +1

206
Q

How to calculate item discrimination index (D)

A

High scoring minus low scoring

90%, 20%… 0.90-0.20=0.70

207
Q

Acceptable level of item difficulty

A

D = 0.30

208
Q

How to calculate 68% confidence interval

A

add and subtract one SEM

209
Q

How to calculate 95% confidence interval

A

Add and substance two SEMs

210
Q

How to calculate 99% confidence interval

A

Add and subtract three SEMs

211
Q

An item response curve represents

A

Relationship between difficulty, discrimination (slope), probability of guessing correctly (y-axis)

Steeper the slope, the better the discrimination

212
Q

Kendall’s coefficient

A

Interrater reliability on a nominal scale

213
Q

Chronbachs alpha

A

Average inter-item consistency

214
Q

Spearman Brown prophecy formula

A

Effects of lengthening or shortening a test

215
Q

How to calculate variability from a factor loading

A

Square the factor loading to get the percent variability accounted for by that factor

Factor loading of 0.70 = that factor explains 49% of the variability

216
Q

Sensitivity v specificity

A

Sensitivity - ability to accurately identify people with the thing
Specificity - ability to accurately identify people without the thing

217
Q

Incremental validity

A

When a test improves decision-making accuracy

218
Q

Shape of percentile rank distributions

A

Always rectangular

219
Q

Expectancy tables interpret scores in terms of…

A

Likely criterion performance

220
Q

Z score of 0…

A

T score of 50

Stanine of 5

221
Q

Which personality tests were based on Murray’s theory of human needs

A

EPPS, TAT

222
Q

The TAT involves considering the characters…

A

Needs and press

Internal and external causes for their behavior…and the outcome for each story

223
Q

Which personality test was based on Jung’s personality theory

A

MBTI

224
Q

Confabulation on the Rorschach is most indicative of…

A

Brain injury
Cog impairment
Schizophrenia

225
Q

The lexical strategy was used to create which personality tests

A

16 PF

NEO-PI

226
Q

What subtests are used on the SB5 to determine starting levels

A

Object Series/Matrices

Vocabulary

227
Q

WAIS strengths and weaknesses for someone with Alzheimer’s

A

For neurocog:

Highest is VCI
Lowest is PSI

228
Q

WISC strengths and weaknesses for someone with autism

A

Highest: Fluid Reasoning

Lowest: Processing Speed

229
Q

Test that can be scored with the CHC model

A

KABC

Luria and CHC

230
Q

Fagan Test

A

Measure of selective attention and recognition memory in infants

231
Q

Evaluate mental ability of job applicants

A

WPT-R

232
Q

Leiter3

A

Measure of cog abilities

For those with cog delay, hearing or speech impediments, ASD

233
Q

Bayley III

A

Used to determine developmental status of toddlers and infants

234
Q

Halstead Impairment Index

A

Scores range 0-1

0-.2 normal
.3-.4 mild
.5-.7 moderate
.8-1 severe

235
Q

Cutoff score for the MMSE

A

24

Lower the score, greater the impairment

236
Q

3 scales of the Kuder occupational interest survey (KOIS)

A

Occupational scales

College major scales

Vocational interest estimates

237
Q

What scale on the SII used empirical criterion keying

A

Occupational scales

238
Q

Interest inventories are least predictive of…

A

Job performance and success

Generally ok at predicting satisfaction, choice, and persistence

239
Q

Ipsative scores

A

Provide information in someone’s RELATIVE strengths

240
Q

Advantage of behaviorally anchored rating scales

BARS

A

Provide information that’s useful for performance feedback

241
Q

Frame-of reference training is used for…

A

Making sure trainees understand the nature of the job and what successful performance looks like

(and giving them opportunities to practice themselves)

242
Q

Job evaluation v Job analysis

A

Job evaluation - used to establish comparable worth (compensation decisions)

Job analysis - to identify knowledge, skills, abilities, and other things workers must have to be successful

243
Q

General mental ability tests as predictors of job performance…

A

Good - most valid predictors across different jobs and performance measures

Bad - adverse impact for some racial and ethnic groups

244
Q

Most frequently used exercises in assessment centers

A

Leaderless group discussion (evaluate leadership potential)

In-basket exercise (respond to sample memos, messages, etc.)

245
Q

Incremental validity is related to

A

Decision making accuracy

246
Q

A new selection test will improve decision making accuracy when the base rate is

A

0.5

247
Q

Formative v summative

A

Formative - conducted during

Summative - conducted immediately after to see if program met its goals

248
Q

Needs analysis v job analysis

A

Needs analysis - identify company’s training needs

Job analysis - identify skills and knowledge in workers to make them successful

249
Q

Kirkpatrick’s four levels of training program evaluation

A

Reaction
Learning
Behavior
Results

(Least to most informative)

250
Q

Two phases of Tiedeman’ career decision making model

A

Anticipation

Implementation

251
Q

Super’s five stages in the life-span, life-space theory

A
Growth
Exploration
Establishment
Maintenance
Disengagement
252
Q

What two key concepts are used in Dawis and Lofquist’s theory of work adjustment

A

Satisfaction (job satisfaction)

Satisfactoriness (employers satisfaction with the employee)

253
Q

Components of Katz & Kahn’s open-system theory

I/O psych

A

Inputs
Throughputs
Outputs

254
Q

McGregors two types of managers

A

Theory X - believe employees lack ambition and are lazy

Theory Y - believe everyone will do a good job if you let them

255
Q

Self managed work teams (SMWTs)

A

Employees have total control over their work and assignments, schedules, employee selection and training, and performance appraisal

256
Q

Bases for social power

French and Raven, IO Psych

A
Reward
Coercive
Legitimate
Expert
Referent
257
Q

Two dimensions of leader behaviors

OSU Study

A

Initiating Structure

Consideration

258
Q

Path-Goal Theory

IO Leadership

A

Optimal leadership styles (directive, achievement oriented, supportive, participative, depend on characteristics of the employee and work environment

259
Q

What persists the best leadership according to Hersey and Blanchard

A

(Situational leadership model)

Employees job maturity

260
Q

VIE

A

Expectancy - effort will lead to successful performance

Instrumentality - successful performance will lead to certain outcomes

Valence - belief about the value of the outcomes

261
Q

Workers job motivation is attributed to his social comparisons

A

Equity theory

262
Q

Three main types of organizational commitment

A

Continuance
Affective
Normative

263
Q

Three characteristics of hardiness

Kobasa

A

Commitment fatigue family and work
Sense of control over your life
See new experiences as a challenge

264
Q

Three types of organizational justice

A

Procedural
Distributive
Interactional

265
Q

What percentage of genetic factors explain variability in job satisfaction

A

30%

266
Q

Purpose of superordinate goals

A

Reduce intergrouphp hostility and competition

267
Q

Allports hypothesis to reduce prejudice between two groups

A

Equal status
Superordinate goals
No competition
Support form authorities

268
Q

Pluralistic ignorance

A

When someone doesn’t intervene in an emergency because they believe since others aren’t acting, it must not be important

269
Q

Mere exposure effect is most often associated with

A

Interpersonal attraction

270
Q

People are most likely fo attribute the behavior of another person to external causes when…

A

Consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness are high

Covariation model

271
Q

Disjunctive task

A

When group members choose a best solution from what is offered by everyone

272
Q

Components to Heiders balance theory

A

Person
Another person
An attitude object

273
Q

Sleeper effect

Social psych

A

When people remember the message, but not who the message came fro

274
Q

Subject of GAD in children

A

Athletic/academic performance

Natural disasters (catastrophic events)

275
Q

OCD onset between genders

A

Earlier onset in males

Males more likely to have comorbid tic

276
Q

Onset of vascular dementia

A

Can be acute or step-wise

Can contain plateaus

(Depends on the nature of the vascular issues)

277
Q

Erotomanic delusions

A

That people are IN LOVE WITH you

Not necessarily sexual

278
Q

IQ criteria for Intellectual Disability

A

Two SD below the mean of the test

279
Q

Length of sx in schizophreniform

A

1-6mo

Schizophrenia is 6mo+

280
Q

Purpose of ACT

A

Teach mindfulness skills

See symptoms as uncomfortable or harmless transient states

281
Q

Goal of gestalt therapy

A

Achieve here and now awareness of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors

282
Q

How style of life is determined in Adlerian psychotherapy

A

Determined by social interest

If you achieve superiority in a prosocial way (healthy) vs. if you achieve superiority in a way that is antisocial and competitive (mistaken)

283
Q

Primary
Secondary
Tertiary prevention

A

Primary - prevent new cases (immunizations)
Secondary - lessen duration of current cases (provide tx)
Tertiary - lessen severity, risk of relapse, reduce impact on community
(Ex. Prevention programs, relapse prevention skills)

284
Q
Reintegration stage
(Helms model of white identity theory)
A

Recognize your racist views and justify them (thinking minority is less motivated, more ignorant, etc.)

285
Q

Individuation

A

(Jung)

Integrating conscious and unconscious into a unique identity

286
Q

Goal of Bowen’s extended family systems therapy

A

Increase differentiation

287
Q

Gerstman syndrome

A

Damage to dominant parietal lobe

Agnosia
Agraphia
Left and right confusion

288
Q

Classic v common migraines

A

Classic comes with auras

ClAssic = Aura

289
Q

SSRIs vs TCAs

A

SSRIs come with sexual dysfunction

TCAs come with cardiovascular risks and anticholinergic effects

290
Q

Stroke in dominant vs nondominant hemisphere

A

Dominant - dysarthria, aphasia

Nondominant - apraxia, sensory neglect

291
Q

Areas impacted in Kluver-Bucy syndrome

A

Amygdala
Temporal
Hippocampus

292
Q

If a patient begins to experience symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome…

A

Discontinue the medication immediately

Antipsychotics

293
Q

Glutamate

A

Alzheimer’s
Huntington’s
Other neurocog

(Excitotoxicity)

294
Q

Neglected vs rejected children

A

Neglected have more positive outcomes

- more prosocial, will likely experience a status change in a new peer group

295
Q

At what age does separation anxiety emerge

A

6-8mo

296
Q

At what age do infants recognize themselves in a mirror

A

12mo

297
Q

Sensory memory

A

Large capacity

Brief duration

298
Q

Law of effect

A

Thorndike

Cats in puzzle boxes

Behaviors with successful outcomes are learned more quickly

299
Q

Psychologist credited with coining “insight”

A

Kohler

300
Q

Highest and lowest WAIS in kids with ADHD

A

Highest is VCI

Lowest is PSI

301
Q

What test is based in Murray’s theory of personality

A

TAT

302
Q

Fagan test says what is the best predictor of IQ in later development

A

Attention to novel stimuli

303
Q

Power

A

The ability to correctly reject a false null

The ability to accurately find a significant difference when one exists

304
Q

What does the Solomon 4-group design help with

A

Reduce effects of protest sensitization

305
Q

What test helps you to categorize people

A

Discriminant functional analysis

306
Q

Best way to control for extraneous variables

A

Random assignment

307
Q

Eta

A

Interval or ratio variables
RELATIONSHIP IS NONLINEAR

(Correlation)

308
Q

ANOVA v MANOVA

A

ANOVA has more than one IV, one DV

MANIVA has more than one DV

309
Q

How to construct confidence intervals

A

Use the standard error estimate

310
Q

How long to keep records

A

7 years or 2 years after client turns 18

Whichever is longer

311
Q

Doing research with kids

A

Parents permission

Assent from children

312
Q

Under what circumstances can APA take additional action against you

A
  1. Suspended or expelled from your state psychological board

2. Convicted of felony

313
Q

Four conditions for malpractice

A
  1. Must have had a legal duty to treat the client
  2. Didn’t meet standard of care
  3. Client was harmed
  4. Harmed cause by breech of duty
314
Q

Leadership styles of Hersey and Blanchard

A

Telling
Selling
Delegating
Participating

315
Q

Components of a needs analysis

A

Organizational analysis
Task analysis
Person analysis
Demographic analysis

316
Q

What determines occupational choice per Donald Super

A

Self-concept

317
Q

Factors of career decision making per Krumboltz

A

Genes
Environmental conditions
Learning experiences
Task approach skills

318
Q

Four components of transformational leadership

A

Idealized influence
Inspirational motivation
Intellectual stimulation
Individual consideration

319
Q

Reasons for bystander apathy

A

Pluralistic ignorance
Evaluation apprehension
Diffusion of responsibility

320
Q

When does the primacy effect occur when listening to arguments

A

When both arguments are one after another

Assess attitude change one week later

321
Q

Social judgement theory…

A

Depends on your level of EGO INVOLVEMENT with the issue

322
Q

Overjustification

A

When intrinsic motivation declines as a result of being given an external reward for a behavior you enjoyed

323
Q

Influences of behavioral intention

A

Attitude

Subjective norms

Perceived behavioral control