Regulations Flashcards

1
Q

Under what FAR section do dispatchers study?

A

Part 65

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2
Q

Who is eligible to be a dispatcher?

A

65.53 - One who is at least 23 years of age, able to read, write and understand the English language, pass the required knowledge test, and pass the required practical test.

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3
Q

How long can a dispatcher be scheduled to work?

A

No more than 10 consecutive hours.

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4
Q

What does a dispatcher have to do to remain current?

A

Pass their company’s recurrency check and observe 5 hours in the flight deck.

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5
Q

Why do airlines need dispatchers?

A

To maintain operational control through joint responsibility.

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6
Q

What is operational control?

A

The legal authority to initiate, conduct, and terminate a flight.

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7
Q

Who initiates a flight?

A

The dispatcher.

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8
Q

Who conducts the flight?

A

The dispatcher and PIC.

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9
Q

When does conducting begin?

A

When the PIC signs the release.

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10
Q

When does the dispatcher sign?

A

When they file with ATC.

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11
Q

What is an ops specs?

A

Operation Specification – an agreement between the airline and the FAA.

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12
Q

How many parts are there in an ops specs?

A

5 - A, B, C, D, E.

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13
Q

What are the parts of ops specs?

A
  • A – Definitions
  • B – Procedures
  • C – Airports
  • D – Maintenance
  • E – Weight and Balance
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14
Q

How many types of 121 operations are there?

A

Three – domestic, flag, and supplemental.

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15
Q

What is a domestic operation?

A

Operations within the 48 contiguous United States.

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16
Q

What is a flag operation?

A

Operations outside of the 48 contiguous United States.

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17
Q

What is a supplemental operation?

A

On-demand, charter, unscheduled operations.

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18
Q

Which parts of 121 require dispatchers?

A

Domestic and Flag.

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19
Q

Who is responsible for supplemental flights?

A

PIC and Director of Ops.

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20
Q

When the PIC of a domestic or flag operation signs the flight plan, what does it become?

A

A Dispatch Release.

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21
Q

When the PIC signs the flight plan of a supplemental operation, what does it become?

A

A flight release.

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22
Q

What items are required to be on a dispatch release?

23
Q

What does FATWIVS stand for?

A
  • F – minimum fuel requirements
  • A – airports
  • T – trip/tail #
  • W – weather packet
  • I – IFR
  • V – VFR
  • S – signature of both the PIC and dispatcher
24
Q

What does a flight release need to contain?

A

FATWIVS + Company name, crew names, and load manifest.

25
Q

What must a pilot carry at all times?

A

Flight Plan, Dispatch Release, and Load Manifest.

26
Q

What is the minimum fuel requirement for a domestic operation?

A

Origin –> Destination + to the most distant alternate + 45 minutes at cruise.

27
Q

What is the minimum fuel requirement for flag?

A

Origin –> Destination + 10% + to the most distant alternate + 30 minutes holding speed at 1500’.

28
Q

What is an MEL?

A

Minimum Equipment List.

29
Q

What does the MEL tell us?

A

What equipment is allowed to be inoperative inside the aircraft and what procedures to follow.

30
Q

When do we refer to the MEL?

A

When the plane is on the ground.

31
Q

What is a CDL? What does it tell us?

A

Configurations Deviations List. Tells us what equipment is allowed to be inoperative on the outside of the aircraft.

32
Q

What documents can we refer to if something breaks in the air?

A

AFM (Airplane Flight Manual) or QRH (Quick Reference Handbook).

33
Q

Who can declare an emergency?

A

PIC, ATC, or a Dispatcher.

34
Q

What does the FAR say about communication?

A

121.99 - The Dispatcher and PIC must be able to communicate throughout the entire route.

35
Q

Is it an emergency if you lose communications with the PIC?

A

Yes, it is an emergency.

36
Q

What is the NTSB?

A

National Transportation Safety Board.

37
Q

What does the NTSB do?

A

Investigates accidents to determine why accidents happen and try to prevent those accidents.

38
Q

What does FAR part 121 say about dispatchers being familiar with the weather?

A

The flight dispatcher must be thoroughly familiar with weather actual and forecast weather conditions at airports along the route of flight.

39
Q

What is the visibility requirement for takeoff?

A
  • 2-Engine Aircraft: 1SM
  • 3-Engine (or more) Aircraft: 1/2 SM
40
Q

When must a takeoff alternate be planned and listed on the dispatch release?

A

When the ceiling/visibility is less than the landing minima at the takeoff airport.

41
Q

How far away can the departure alternate be located?

A
  • 2-Engine Aircraft: Within 1 hour, in still air with 1 engine inop
  • 3-Engine (or more) Aircraft: Within 2 hours, in still air with 1 engine inop
42
Q

When is a destination alternate required to be planned and listed on the dispatch release?

A

1-2-3 Rule: 1 hour before or after ETA, ceilings less than 2,000ft, visibility less than 3SM.

43
Q

Is there a limit to how far away the destination alternate can be?

A

There is no limit, aside from fuel.

44
Q

What weather must an airport report to be listed as an alternate on the dispatch release?

A
  • Precision – 600’-2 SM
  • Non-Precision – 800’-2 SM
  • Nonstandard Alternate
45
Q

If a flight must divert to its alternate, what weather minimums apply?

A

Approach plate minimums.

46
Q

What must be considered when planning a flight in a 2-engine jet from KLAX to KDEN crossing the Rocky Mountains?

A

The flight may need a drift-down alternate.

47
Q

Who do you file a flight plan with?

48
Q

How early can you file a flight plan?

A

As early as you want, but at least 30 minutes prior to flight.

49
Q

How long will ATC keep the flight plan in their system?

50
Q

If your aircraft is delayed on the ground for more than two hours, what do you do?

A

Amend the flight plan for a new departure airport.

51
Q

If a flight takes off from KDFW but must turn back for a medical emergency, does the dispatcher have to create a new dispatch release?

52
Q

Who is considered a High Minimum Captain?

A

A Captain with less than 100 hours in type.

53
Q

What are the landing minimums for a High Minimum Captain at Origin and Destination airports?

A

Add 100 feet to the ceiling and 1/2 mile to the visibility of the approach plate minimums.

54
Q

What are the landing minimums for a High Minimum Captain at an alternate destination?

A

Approach Plate Minimums, BUT no less than 300 ft + 1SM.