Red Blood Cell Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What part of the body can be easily identifiable during anemia?

A

pale conjuctiva

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2
Q

What is the definition for anemia in men? Women?

A

men =

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3
Q

What is the definition for macrocytic anemia? Microcytic?

A

macro = > 100

micro =

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4
Q

What is the single contributing factor for a microcytic anemia?

A

deficient hemoglobin production

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5
Q

Why does microcytosis occur?

A

to keep Hb concentration in cells adequate

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6
Q

Where in the GI tract does absorption of iron occur?

A

Duodenum

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7
Q

What protein transports heme from Gi enterocytes into the blood?

A

Ferroportin

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8
Q

What protein transfers iron in the blood?

A

transferrin

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9
Q

What protein stores iron in cells?

A

ferritin

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10
Q

Which rxn describes how iron can generate free radicals?

A

Fenton

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11
Q

What two locations in the body is iron stored by ferritin?

A

liver and macrophages

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12
Q

What two diseases should always be ruled out when an elderly person presents with iron deficient anemia?

A

colonic polyps and gastric carcinoma

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13
Q

What two genus and species of worms can cause an iron deficiency anemia?

A

Necatur americanus

Ancylostoma duodenale

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14
Q

What type of surgery can cause iron deficient anemia?

A

gastrectomy

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15
Q

What two markers of iron are almost always in opposite to each other?

A

ferritin and TIBC

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16
Q

Pica is indicative of what deficiency?

A

iron

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17
Q

Koilonychia is indicative of deficiency of what mineral?

A

iron

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18
Q

What two metals can increase Free Erythrocyte Protoporphyrin?

A

lead or zinc

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19
Q

What causes Plummer-Vinson Syndrome?

A

Iron deficient anemia

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20
Q

What is the triad of Plummer-Vinson Syndrome?

A

iron deficient anemia, atrophic glossitis and esophageal webs

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21
Q

What cytokine mediates Anemia of Chronic Disease?

A

hepcidin

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22
Q

What two MOAs does hepcidin use to sequester iron?

A
  1. limiting iron release from macrophages

2. limiting producion of EPO

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23
Q

What molecule is deficient in sideroblastic anemia?

A

Protoporphyrin

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24
Q

ALA synthase works on what two products? What is needed as a cofactor for ALA Synthase

A

glycine and Succinyl-CoA

B6

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25
Q

What rxn is catalyzed by ALA dehydratase?

A

ALA to Porphobilinogen

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26
Q

What molecule does ferrochelatase attach iron to?

A

protoporphyrin

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27
Q

Where in the cell is heme synthesized?

A

mitochondria

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28
Q

If protoporphyrin is deficient, where does iron get trapped? Why?

A

mitochondria

Protoporphyrin is attached to iron in the mitochondria

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29
Q

Where in the cell do ringed sideroblasts accumulate?

A

around the nucleus

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30
Q

Sideroblastic anemia almost always involves what enzyme?

A

ALA synthase

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31
Q

What organelle does alchocol destroy? Can this lead to sideroblastic anemia?

A

mitochondria

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32
Q

What two enzymes of heme synthesis does lead impair?

A

ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase

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33
Q

What cofactor is required for heme synthesis? What drug can deplete this cofactor?

A

B6

isoniazid

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34
Q

During sideroblastic anemia, would ferritin increase or decrease? Why?

A

increase

iron cant leave mitochondria/cell

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35
Q

Carriers of the gene for thalassemia are protected agaist what exact species?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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36
Q

What globin chains are present in HbF?

A

two alpha

two gamma

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37
Q

What globin chains are present in HbA?

A

two alpha

two beta

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38
Q

What globin chains are present in HbA2?

A

two alpha

two delta

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39
Q

α-Thalassemia is usually caused by what type of mutation?

A

deletion

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40
Q

What chromosome are the genes for α-globin located?

A

16

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41
Q

What mutation is worse for offspring, cis or trans?

A

cis

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42
Q

What is a cis-deletion?

A

when both deletions occur on same chromosome

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43
Q

What population is cis-deletion seen?

A

Asians

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44
Q

What population is trans-deletion seen?

A

african

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45
Q

What is a trans deletion?

A

one deletion occurs on each chromosome

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46
Q

What form of hemoglobin is seen when three deletions occur? What chain would hemoglobin be primarily compsoed of in this situation?

A

HbH

β-chain tetramers

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47
Q

What form of Hb is seen when four genes are deleted? What form of Hb is seen?

A

Hb Barts

gamma-chain tetramers

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48
Q

What type of mutation gives rise to β-thalassemia?

A

point mutation

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49
Q

In what two populations is β-thalassemia seen?

A

africans and mediterranean descent

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50
Q

On what chromosome are β-globin present?

A

16

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51
Q

What type of RBCs would a β-thalassemia minor produce?

A

target cells

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52
Q

Why does β-thalassemia major damage RBCs?

A

α-globin chains precipitate and destroy RBCs

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53
Q

β-thalassemia major will produce what types of changes on X-ray?

A

crew-cut skull

abnormal facial bones

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54
Q

What virus do individuals with β-thalassemia major have a greater risk of being infected with?

A

Parvovirus B19

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55
Q

Lack of what two nutrients can cause a megaloblastic anemia?

A

folate or B12

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56
Q

What does THF transfer to cobalamin?

A

methyl group

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57
Q

Other than RBCs and neutrophils, what other cell type can become hypersegmented?

A

rapidly dividing epithelial cells (intestine)

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58
Q

Where in the GI tract is folate absorbed?

A

jejunum

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59
Q

What protein from the salivary gland binds B12?

A

R-binder

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60
Q

What enzyme detaches B12 from R-binder?

A

PANCREATIC proteases

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61
Q

What organism can cause B12 deficiency? In what food is this organism found?

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

fish

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62
Q

What molecule impairs myelin synthesis?

A

methylmalonic acid

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63
Q

During anemia, what will the reticulocyte count rise to?

A

> 3%

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64
Q

What equation is used to correct reticulocyte count?

A

(Hct/45)(reticulocyte count)

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65
Q

What does a reticulocyte count greater than 3% indicate? What does this suggest?

A

good marrow response

peripheral destruction

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66
Q

What does a reticulocyte count lower than 3% indicate? What does this suggest?

A

poor marrow reponse

underproduction of RBCs

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67
Q

Where does extravascular hemolysis occur?

A

Reticuloendothelial system

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68
Q

What is heme broken down into by the RES?

A

iron and protoporphyrin

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69
Q

Where does intravascular hemolysis occur?

A

vessels

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70
Q

During hemoglobinemia, how does iron accumulate in the kidney?

A

Hemosiderin

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71
Q

What does hemosidinuria happen?

A

renal tubular cells with hemosiderin are shed

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72
Q

What three major proteins are defective resulting in hereditary spherocytosis?

A

ankyrin, spectrin and band 3

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73
Q

What type of cell is seen during hereditary spherocytosis?

A

spherocytes

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74
Q

Why does splenomegaly result during hereditary spherocytosis?

A

spherocytes get trapped in splenic sinusoids

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75
Q

What is lost in spherocytes?

A

central pallor

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76
Q

Does RDW increase or decrease during hereditary spherocytosis?

A

increase

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77
Q

Does MCHC increase or decrease during hereditary spherocytosis? Why?

A

increase

spherocytes shrink and [Hb] increases

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78
Q

What is the treatment for hereditary spherocytosis?

A

splenectomy

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79
Q

Does Sickle Cell Anemia affect the α or β chain of Hb? What amino acid substitution takes place?

A

β-chain

glutamate to valine

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80
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia protects against what species of bug that can cause malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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81
Q

What three driving factors can cause sickling?

A

hypoxemia, acidosis, dehydration

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82
Q

What form of Hb is protective against HbS? When do sickle cell patients usually present?

A

HbF

6 months

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83
Q

What is the treatment of SSA? Why?

A

hydroxyurea

increases HbF

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84
Q

What is a common presenting sign in infants with sickle cell anemia? Why?

A

Dactylitis

vaso-occlusive infarct in bone

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85
Q

Patients with SSA are at an increased risk of developing an infection caused by what? Why?

A

encapsulated organisms

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86
Q

Osteomyelitis in patients with SSA is caused by what organism primarily?

A

Salmonella paratyhphi

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87
Q

What is the most common cause of death in adults with sickle cell anemia? What often precipitates this disease?

A

acute chest syndrome

pneumonia

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88
Q

What specific type of kidney damage occurs in SSA?

A

renal papillary necrosis

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89
Q

What type of genetic anomaly occurs in Sickle Cell Trait?

A

one mutated chain

one normal chain

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90
Q

Where in the body do RBCs with sickle cell trait actually sickle? Why does this happen? What two things can this lead to?

A

renal medulla

severe hypoxia of renal medulla

inability to concentrate urine and microscopic hematuria

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91
Q

What drug is used to screen sickle cell trait? What does this drug cause?

A

Metabisulfite

HbS to sickle

92
Q

What amino acid substitute is present HbC?

A

Glutamate to Lysine

93
Q

What type of Hb can produce crystals in the blood?

A

HbC

94
Q

What protein is missing during PNH? This makes RBCs particularly susceptible to destruction by what?

A

GPI anchor

complement

95
Q

What protein attached to GPI is missing during PNH? What is the normal function of this protein?

A

DAF

inhibits C3 convertase

96
Q

Why does PNH happen at night?

A

acidosis = activate complement

97
Q

What two tests can be used to screen for PNH?

A

sucrose test

acidify serum

98
Q

The main cause of death of PNH is what? What three locations?

A

massive thrombus

hepatic, portal or cerebral

99
Q

What leukemia can PNH lead to? Why?

A

AML

mutations in myeloid stem cell

100
Q

What causes the thrombus in PNH?

A

lysed platelets

101
Q

What two diseases can arise due to PNH?

A

iron deficient anemia

AML

102
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of G6PDase deficiency?

A

X-linked recessive

103
Q

G6PDase deficiency can be protective against what?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

104
Q

Is the african variant of G6PDase deficiency mild or severe?

A

african = mild

105
Q

Is the mediterranean variant of G6PDase deficiency mild or severe?

A

severe

106
Q

How does Hb precipitate during G6PDase? How does this manifest in RBCs?

A

Heinz bodies

bite cells

107
Q

What group of antibacterials can cause RBC oxidative stress?

A

Sulfa drugs

108
Q

What are the two classic presentations G6PDase will present with? Why?

A

back pain and hemoglobinuria

Hb is nephrotoxic

109
Q

What isotype of Ab is present in the warm agglutinin test? What type of RBC is produced?

A

IgG

Spherocytes

110
Q

What two diseases can cause a positive warm-agglutinin test?

A

SLE and CLL

111
Q

What two drugs can cause a positive warm-agglutinin test?

A

penicillin and cephalosporin

112
Q

What drug may bind directly to the RBC cell membrane and produce a cold agglutinin test?

A

penicillin

113
Q

What drug may cause the body to produce autoantibodies that can give a positive cold agglutinin test?

A

methyldopa

114
Q

What molecule serves as an opsonin in the spleen during Immune hemolytic anemia?

A

C3b

115
Q

What two infectious agents can cause a positive cold-agglutinin test?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Mononucleosis

116
Q

What does direct Coombs test detect? What two antibodies added to the reaction?

A

antibodies against RBCs

anti-IgG or anti-complement

117
Q

What four disease states can cause microangiopathic hemolytis anemia?

A

TTP, HUS, DIC, HELLP

118
Q

What is HELLP?

A

Hemolysis Elevated Liver Enzymes & Low Platelets

119
Q

What type of RBC is produced during microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?

A

Schistocytes

120
Q

Aortic stenosis can cause what sort of RBC to form? What disease does this happening fall under the umbrella of?

A

schistocytes

Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia

121
Q

What two systems get infected by malaria?

A

RBCs and liver

122
Q

What genus of mosquitos transmits malaria?

A

Anopheles

123
Q

What species produces fever every other day?

A

vivax and ovale

124
Q

What species produces fever every day?

A

falciparum

125
Q

What cells of the kidneys produce EPO?

A

peritubular interstitial cells

126
Q

What virus can produce anemia? Why?

A

Parvovirus B19

infects erythroid precursors

127
Q

What three cell types are deficient during aplastic anemia?

A

anemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia

128
Q

What invades the bone marrow during aplastic anemia?

A

fatty infiltrate

129
Q

What are the three treatments of aplastic anemia?

A

EPO, G-CSG and GM-CSF

130
Q

What does myelophthistic mean?

A

displacement of bone marrow

131
Q

What two tissues store iron? What protein?

A

liver and bone marrow macrophages

ferritin

132
Q

What fraction of transferritin is bound to iron?

A

1/3

133
Q

TIBC measures what iron carrying protein?

A

transferrin

134
Q

Why can gastrectomy cause iron deficient anemia?

A

loss of acid producing cells

acids maintains iron in Fe2+

Fe3+ is not absorbed

135
Q

What is the first mechanism the body employs to generate iron in an iron deficient anemia?

A

release iron stores

136
Q

What is the second mechanism the body employs to generate iron in an iron deficient anemia?

A

serum iron is used

137
Q

What is the third mechanism the body employs to generate iron in an iron deficient anemia?

A

normocytic anemia (fewer RBCs)

138
Q

What is the fourth mechanism the body employs to generate iron in an iron deficient anemia?

A

microcytic anemia

139
Q

Does a microcytic anemia have an increased RDW?

A

yes

140
Q

What does low ferritin cause higher TIBC?

A

liver senses low ferritin and increases production of transferrin

141
Q

What a microcytic anemia have an increased or dcreased FEP?

A

increased

142
Q

What drug is used to treat iron deficiency anemia?

A

ferrous sulfate

143
Q

What three symptoms does a patient with Plummer Vinson Syndrome present with?

A

anemia, dysphagia and beefy red tongue

144
Q

What are the two causes of ACD?

A

inflammation and cancer

145
Q

Why does ACD cause TIBC to go down?

A

liver senses high ferritin and inhibits production of transferrin

146
Q

Would ACD cause increased or decreased FEP?

A

increased

147
Q

What cell do bone marrow macrophages hand iron off to?

A

erythroblasts

148
Q

What is a good treatment of ACD in cancer pt’s?

A

EPO

149
Q

What happens if one alpha-chain allele is deleted?

A

nothing

150
Q

How many alleles are deleted during a cis or trans alpha-thalessemia?

A

two

151
Q

Which is worse, cis or trans? Why?

A

cis

passing of severe thalassemia to offspring

152
Q

How many genes are deleted if alpha-thalassemia is detected in the fetus?

A

all four

153
Q

What chromosome is β-globin on?

A

eleven

154
Q

What is the key isolated finding in β-thalassemia minor?

A

isolated increase in HbA2

155
Q

Does β-thalassemia major produce symptoms in the fetus? Why?

A

no

HbF predominates

156
Q

What type of globin tetramer is present during β-thalassemia major?

A

alpha tetramer

157
Q

What four locations will undergo hematopoiesis during β-thalassemia major?

A

skull

facial bones

spleen

liver

158
Q

What type of cell does B19 infect?

A

erythroid progenitors

159
Q

How does folate enter the body?

A

THF

160
Q

What develops faster, folate or B12 deficiency?

A

folate

161
Q

Where is R-binder produced?

A

salivary gland

162
Q

Where is B12 found?

A

animal proteins

163
Q

What could produce a B12 deficiency, Crohns or U.C.?

A

Crohn’s

164
Q

What color are parietal cells?

A

pink

165
Q

Where in the GI tract does Diphyllobothrium latum damage?

A

distal ileum

166
Q

What are the three presentations of B12 deficiency?

A

Macrocytic anemia

Subacute combined degeneration

glossitis

167
Q

What B12 related substance damages the spinal cord? What structure is disturbed?

A

methylmalonic acid

myelin

168
Q

What color is the nucleus of reticulocytes? Why?

A

blue-ish

residual RNA

169
Q

What are the two etiologies of normocytic anemia?

A

peripheral destruction or underproduction

170
Q

What is the normal reticulocyte count?

A

1-2%

171
Q

What is the formula for correcting reticulocyte count?

A

(RC Count) (Hct/45)

172
Q

What three organs compose the RES?

A

macrophages of spleen, liver and lymph nodes

173
Q

What is globin broken into ?

A

amino acids

174
Q

The levels of what will drop during intravascular hemolysis?

A

Haptoglobin

175
Q

What starts appearing in RBC during splenectomy? What are these made of? Why?

A

howell-jolly bodies

fragments of remnant RBC nuclear material

spleen

176
Q

When RBCs sickle, what chemical change is this called?

A

polymerization

177
Q

Why can SSA result in extra-vascular hemolysis?

A

spleen removes deformed cells

178
Q

Why can SSA lead to intravascular hemolysis?

A

sickled RBCs can lyse

179
Q

Does sickle cell trait possess target cells?

A

no

180
Q

Does PNH result as an acquired mutation or congenital mutation?

A

acquired

181
Q

A mutation in what type of stem cell gives rise to PNH? What cell types are depleted during PNH?

A

myeloid

RBCs, WBCs and platelets

182
Q

What is the Tx for Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia? Why does this work?

A

IV immunogloblin

splenic macrophages eat Ig instead of coated RBCs

183
Q

What surgery is used for Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia?

A

splenectomy

184
Q

Does IgG mediated hemolytic anemia involve intravascular or extravascular hemolysis? Why?

A

Extravascular

IgG binds RBCs in relatively warm central body regions

185
Q

Does IgM mediated hemolytic anemia involve intravascular or extravascular hemolysis? Why?

A

intravascular

IgM binds RBCs in the relatively cool areas of the extremities

186
Q

What protein binds to an IgM coated RBC? What does this protein serve to do in the spleen?

A

fixes complement

acts as opsonin for splenic macrophages

187
Q

What does the Indirect Coombs test detect?

A

presence of auto-antibodies

188
Q

What is the first stage of Iron deficient anemia? What are the lab values?

A

storage iron is depleted

↓ ferritin and ↑ TIBC

189
Q

What is the second stage of Iron deficient anemia?

A

serum iron is depleted

190
Q

What is the third stage of Iron deficient anemia?

A

normocytic anemia

191
Q

What is the fourth stage of Iron deficient anemia?

A

microcytic anemia

192
Q

In what two locations are β-thalassemia mutations prevalent?

A

promoter and splice site

193
Q

What does β+ mean during a β-thalassemia?

A

decreased production

194
Q

When does β-thalassemia major arise? Why?

A

a few months after birth

depletion of HbF

195
Q

How many lobes must a hypersegmented neutrophil have?

A

five or more

196
Q

What drug can cause a macrocytic anemia?

A

5-FU

197
Q

During a folate deficiency, what are the levels of homocysteine? MMA?

A

high homocysteine

normal MMA

198
Q

Where in the GI tract does B12 bind intrinsic factor?

A

small bowel

199
Q

What part of the GI tract is most often damaged during Crohn’s disease?

A

ileum

200
Q

What is the serum marker for extravascular hemolysis?

A

Unconjugated bilirubin

201
Q

What is the serum marker for intravascular hemolysis?

A

hemoglobin

202
Q

Howell-Jolly boides are indicative of what procedure?

A

Splenectomy

203
Q

Is HbS an extravascular or intravascular hemolysis?

A

extra

204
Q

Other than sickled cells, what would be present on a blood smear in a patient with sickle cell anemia? Why?

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

autosplenectomy b/c of sickled cell damage

205
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of HbC?

A

autosomal recessive

206
Q

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria is a defect in what cell type?

A

Myeloid

207
Q

Does PNH result in intravascular or extravascular hemolysis?

A

intravascular

208
Q

Why can PNH cause a massive fibrosis?

A

lysed plateletes release contents into blood

209
Q

During Immune Hemolytic Anemia, does IgM or IgG fix complement? Cold or Warm?

A

IgM

cold

210
Q

Is heme or non-heme iron more easily absorbed?

A

heme

211
Q

TIBC indirectly measures what protein?

A

transferrin

212
Q

Which two enzymes of heme synthesis are housed in the mitochondria?

A

ALA synthase

Ferrochelatase

213
Q

What is Methylmalonic Acid converted into?

A

Succinyl-CoA

214
Q

Does Sickle Cell Trait have any HbF on electrophoresis?

A

no

215
Q

Does Sickle Cell Disease have any HbA on electrophoresis?

A

no

216
Q

What happens to the kidneys during PNH?

A

hemosiderin accumulation

217
Q

What is a Myelophthisic Process?

A

process that replaces bone marrow

218
Q

What can anemia do to ones heart especially in the presence of pre-existing heart disease?

A

angina

219
Q

What two groups of people are more likely to develop a folate deficiency?

A

alcoholics and elderly

220
Q

Is glossitis due to folate or B12 deficiency?

A

folate

221
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of SSA?

A

AR

222
Q

What swells during Dactylitis? How old?

A

hands and feet

six months

223
Q

What CD molecule is DAF?

A

CD55

224
Q

What particular oxidative molecule are RBCs exposed to?

A

H2O2

225
Q

What is reduced during G6PDase Deficiency?

A

G6PD half life

226
Q

What would be seen on blood smear during Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia?

A

spherocytes

227
Q

What does the fever during malaria correlate with?

A

RBC lysis