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Pathoma > Kidney and Urinary Tract > Flashcards

Kidney and Urinary Tract Flashcards

1
Q

What vessel does the horseshoe kidney get caught on?

A

IMA

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2
Q

How does the body compensate for unilateral renal agenesis? What does this do in later life?

A

hypertrophy of existing kidney

increases risk of renal failure

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3
Q

What are the two results of bilateral renal agenesis?

A

oligohydramnios

lung hypoplasia

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4
Q

Is PKD inherited or non-inherited?

A

inherited

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5
Q

Does PKD affect the kidneys unilaterally or bilaterally?

A

bilaterally

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6
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for juvenile PKD?

A

autosomal recessive

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7
Q

What are the components of the Potter Sequence?

A

lung hypoplasia

face deformities

extremity deformities

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8
Q

How does juvenile PKD present?

A

HTN and decreasing renal function

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9
Q

What GI tract disease can juvenile PKD present with? What two conditions can this lead to?

A

congenital hepatic fibrosis

portal HTN and hepatic cysts

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10
Q

What are two ways adult PKD often present?

A

HTN

hematuria

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11
Q

What two genes are defective during PKD?

A

APKD1

APKD2

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12
Q

What are three extra-renal presentations of adult PKD?

A

berry aneurysm

mitral valve prolapse

hepatic cysts

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13
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of Medullary Cystic Kidney disease?

A

autosomal dominant

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14
Q

What is the effect on the kidneys during Medullary Cystic Kidney Disease?

A

shrink

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15
Q

What laboratory marker for acute renal failure?

A

azotemia

BUN and creatinine

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16
Q

What gets reabsorbed more during acute renal failure?

A

BUN

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17
Q

What is the minimum ratio of BUN:Creatinine during prerenal azotemia?

A

at least > 15:1 BUN:creatinine

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18
Q

What causes Prerenal Azotemia?

A

decreased blood flow

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19
Q

What causes Postrenal azotemia?

A

obstruction

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20
Q

Does kidney function remain intact during Prerenal Azotemia?

A

yes

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21
Q

Does kidney function remain intact during Postrenal Azotemia?

A

yes

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22
Q

What is the definition of Acute Tubular Necrosis?

A

injury and necrosis of tubular epithelial cells

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23
Q

Why does Acute Tubular Necrosis decrease GFR?

A

necrotic cells plug tubule

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24
Q

What is observed in the urine during acute tubular necrosis? Why?

A

brown casts

necrotic cells plug tubule and assume shape of nephron

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25
Q

What happens to BUN during Acute Tubular Necrosis? Why? What does this do to the ratio?

A

decreased reabsorption of BUN

dysfunctional tubular epithelial cells

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26
Q

What happens to sodium during Acute Tubular Necrosis? What does this do to the FENa?

A

decreased reabsorption of sodium

FENa = >2%

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27
Q

What two portions of the nephron are most severely effected by ischemia?

A

PCT

MEDULLARY segment of TAL

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28
Q

What pathology usually preceedes the ischemia of Acute Tubular Necrosis?

A

prerenal azotemia

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29
Q

What portion of the nephron is most susceptible to toxic agents?

A

PCT

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30
Q

What type of antibiotic most often causes acute tubular necrosis?

A

aminoglycosides

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31
Q

What type of metal most often causes acute tubular necrosis?

A

lead

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32
Q

What type of endogenous toxin most often causes acute tubular necrosis?

A

myoglobinuria

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33
Q

What type of crystal forms in the urine because of ethylene glycol?

A

oxalate

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34
Q

What condition can produce urate that damages the kidney?

A

tumor lysis syndrome

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35
Q

What two methods are employed at the initiation of chemotherapy to prevent Acute Tubular Necrosis?

A

allopurinol and copious hydration

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36
Q

What are the four clinical features of Acute Tubular Necrosis often seen regardless of disease etiology?

A

oliguria with casts

hyperkalemia

increased BUN/creatinine

acidosis

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37
Q

Does Acute Tubular Necrosis cause metabolic acidosis or metabolic alkalosis?

A

metabolic acidosis

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38
Q

Is Acute Tubular Necrosis reversible or irreversible?

A

reversible

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39
Q

What type of reaction is Acute Interstitial Nephritis?

A

drug induced hypersensitivity

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40
Q

What two structures does Acute Interstitial Nephritis involve?

A

tubules and interstitium

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41
Q

What three drugs are known to cause Acute Interstitial Nephritis?

A

NSAIDs, penicillin and diuretics

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42
Q

What are the three presenting symptoms of Acute Interstitial Nephritis?

A

oliguria

fever

rash

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43
Q

What is the timeline for the development of Acute Interstitial Nephritis after insult?

A

days to weeks

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44
Q

What cell type is almost pathogonomic for Acute Inerstitial Nephritis if found in the urine?

A

Eosinophils

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45
Q

What can Acute Interstitial Nephritis progress to?

A

Renal Papillary Necrosis

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46
Q

What are the four causes of Renal Papillary Necrosis?

A

chronic Analgesic use

Diabetes mellitus

Sickle cell

Severe acute pyelonephritis

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47
Q

What is diagnostic criteria for nephrotic syndrome in terms or urine loss?

A

> 3.5 g/day

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48
Q

Why does nephrotic syndrome carry a risk for infection?

A

hypogammaglobulinemia

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49
Q

Why does nephrotic syndrome carry a risk for a hypercoaguable state?

A

loss of antithrombin III

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50
Q

How does the liver react to nephrotic syndrome regarding lipids and cholesterol?

A

hyperlipidemia

hypercholesterolemia

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51
Q

What disease does Minimal Change Disease cause? In what patient group?

A

nephrotic syndrome

children

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52
Q

What disease is Minimal Change Disease associated with? What is the rationale for this?

A

Hodgkins Lymphoma

cytokines cause effacement of podocytes

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53
Q

What happens to the foot processes during minimal change disease?

A

effacement

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54
Q

Why is Minimal Change Disease different than other types of nephrotic syndrome?

A

MCD only causes loss of albumin

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55
Q

Does Minimal Change Disease possess immmunofluoresence? If so, what color?

A

no

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56
Q

How is Minimal Change Disease treated?

A

steroids

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57
Q

What disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in Hispanics?

A

FSGS

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58
Q

What disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in African Americans?

A

FSGS

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59
Q

What are the three most common causes of FSGS?

A

HIV

sickle cell disease

heroin

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60
Q

What does the Focal of FSGS mean?

A

only some glomeruli are affected

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61
Q

What does the segmental of FSGS mean?

A

only certain parts of glomeruli are affected

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62
Q

What happens to the foot processes during FSGS?

A

effacement

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63
Q

Does FSGS possess immmunofluoresence? If so, what color?

A

no

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64
Q

What is the difference between FSGS and MCD regarding treatment?

A

FSGS doesn’t respond to steroids

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65
Q

What does FSGS progress to?

A

chronic renal failure

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66
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in Caucasian Adults?

A

Membranous Nephropathy

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67
Q

Regarding Membranous Nephropathy, what is observable upon microscopy?

A

thickening of glomerular basement membrane

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68
Q

Regarding Membranous Nephropathy, what drives the disease process?

A

immune complex deposition

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69
Q

Does Membranous Nephropathy respond to steroids?

A

no

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70
Q

What does Membranous Nephropathy often progress to?

A

chronic renal disease

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71
Q

What specific kidney pathology do HBV and HCV cause?

A

Membranous nephropathy

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72
Q

What specific kidney pathology do solid tumors produce?

A

membranous nephropathy

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73
Q

What specific nephritic syndrome does SLE produce? Nephrotic?

A

nephritic = DPGN

nephrotic = membranous nephropathy

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74
Q

What two drugs are known to cause Membranous Nephropathy?

A

NSAIDs and penicillamine

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75
Q

What process causes Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis?

A

immune complex deposition

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76
Q

Is Type I Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis subendothelial or intramembranous?

A

subendothelial

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77
Q

What are two strong associations of Type I Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis?

A

HBV and HCV

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78
Q

Is Type II Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis subendothelial or intramembranous?

A

intramembranous

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79
Q

What is the cause of Type II Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis associated with?

A

C3 convertase

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80
Q

What arteriole does DM effect more?

A

efferent

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81
Q

Why does DM cause microalbuminuria?

A

increased pressure of efferent arteriole pushes protein into urine

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82
Q

Diabetes Mellitus leads to sclerosis of what strucutre of the glomerulus? Leading to the formation of what structure?

A

sclerosis of the Mesangium

Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules

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83
Q

What organ is most commonly effected during Systemic Amyloidosis?

A

kidney

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84
Q

Where does Amyloid deposit in the kidney during Systemic Amyloidosis? Nephritic or nephrotic?

A

mesangium

nephrotic syndrome

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85
Q

What stain is used for Systemic Amyloidosis?

A

congo red

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86
Q

Does Systemic Amyloidosis fluoresce? If so, what color?

A

apple green

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87
Q

What are the two main disease processes of nephritic syndrome?

A

glomerular inflammation and bleeding

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88
Q

How much protein per day is found in the urine during Nephritic Syndrome?

A

less than 3.5 grams

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89
Q

What two symptoms of nephritic syndrome would be evident during a physical?

A

periorbital edema

HTN

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90
Q

What is found in the urine of patients with nephritic syndrome?

A

RBC casts

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91
Q

What deposits in the kidney during Nephritic Syndrome?

A

immune complex

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92
Q

What does immune complex deposition in the kidney attract during Nephritic Syndrome? What cell is activated?

A

C5a

neutrophils

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93
Q

What group of bacteria are known to cause post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

Group A β-hemolytic

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94
Q

What specific protein of the Group A β-hemolytic strep mediates the damage?

A

M-protein

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95
Q

How long after infection does post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis often present?

A

2-3 weeks

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96
Q

What are four common presenting symptoms for a patient with post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

hematuria

oliguria

HTN

periorbital edema

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97
Q

What mediates the damage during post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis? Fluoresce?

A

immune complex deposition

yes

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98
Q

What is Rapidly Progressing Glomerulonephritis?

A

nephritic syndrome that progresses to renal failure in weeks to months

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99
Q

In what disease do crescents appear on the glomeruli?

A

rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis

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100
Q

What are the crescents of Rapidly Progressing Glomerulonephritis composed of? Where are these found?

A

macrophages and fibrin

Bowmans capsule

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101
Q

Where is IgA found during Berger disease?

A

mesangium

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102
Q

What type of infection usually preceedes the renal symptoms of Berger Disease?

A

mucosal

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103
Q

Does Berger Disease fluoresce?

A

yes

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104
Q

What type of collagen is defective during Alport Syndrome?

A

type IV

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105
Q

What are the three common presenting symptoms of Alport Syndrome?

A

hematuria

sensory hearing loss

visual disturbances

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106
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Alport Syndrome?

A

X-linked

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107
Q

What enzyme is present in the urine of a patient with Cystitis?

A

leukocyte esterase

108
Q

What metabolite is present in the urine of a patient with Cystitis?

A

nitrites

109
Q

How many bacteria has to be present in to confirm a Dx of cystitis?

A

greater than 100,000

110
Q

What bacteria is the most common cause of cystitis?

A

E. coli

111
Q

What bacteria gives urine an alkalinity with a ammonia scent?

A

Proteus mirabilis

112
Q

Other than E. coli, what bacteria is known to infect young, sexually active women?

A

S. saprophyticus

113
Q

Other than E.coli/Proteus mirabilis/S. saprophyticus, what other two bacteria is known to cause cystitis?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Enterococcus faecalis

114
Q

If a sterile cystitis is detected, what two bacteria are the most likely cause? Where does this suggest the infection is located?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis

urethritis

115
Q

What type of cast is preset in the urine with a patient with pyelonephritis?

A

WBC casts

116
Q

What are the three most common bacterial cause of pyelonephritis?

A

E. coli

Enterococcus faecalis

Klebsiella

117
Q

What are the two causes of Chronic Pyelonephritis?

A

vesicoureteral reflux

obstruction

118
Q

What type of scarring does the vesicoureteral reflex lead to?

A

cortical scarring

119
Q

What disease produces ‘Thyroidization’ of the kidney?

A

Chronic Pyelonephritis

120
Q

Why does Chronic Pyelonephritis produce ‘Thyroidization’ of the kidney?

A

eosinophilic protein material

121
Q

What heart condition can uremia lead to?

A

fibrinous pericarditis

122
Q

What part of the coagulation cascade can uremia interfere with?

A

platelet function

123
Q

Does chronic renal failure result in hyperkalemia or hypokalemia?

A

hyperkalemia

124
Q

Does Chronic Renal Failure result in metabolic acidosis or alkalosis?

A

acidosis

125
Q

Does chronic renal failure cause hypocalcemia or hypercalcemia? Why?

A

hypo

last step of vitamin D synthesis occurs in healthy kidney

126
Q

Which Vitamin D hydroxylation rxn takes place in the kidney?

A

1-alpha-hydroxylation

127
Q

Other than vitamin D synthesis, why can chronic renal failure produce hypocalcemia?

A

excessive phosphate can sequester calcium

128
Q

ESRD increases the liklihood of what kidney cancer?

A

renal cell carcinoma

129
Q

What is the most common benign tumor of the kidney?

A

Angiomyolipoma

130
Q

What type of growth is an angiomyolipoma?

A

Hamartoma

131
Q

Presence of what other diseases increases the liklihood of an angiomyolipoma being present?

A

Tuberous Sclerosis

132
Q

What is the composition of the two most common kidneys stones in adults?

A

calcium oxalate

calcium phosphate

133
Q

Does Crohns or UC produce kidney stones?

A

Crohns

134
Q

What is the treatment of a calcium kidney stone?

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

135
Q

Urease positive organisms produce what type of kidney stone?

A

Ammonium magnesium phosphate

136
Q

Which two bugs are known to produce Ammonium Magnesium Phosphate stones?

A

Proteus vulgaris

Klebsiella

137
Q

What is the only type of kidney stone that is radiolucent?

A

uric acid

138
Q

What type of climates can predispose an individual to developing a uric acid stone?

A

hot and arid

139
Q

WIll uric acid stone precipitate at a high or low pH?

A

low

140
Q

What drug is given to alkalize the urine during uric acid nephrolithiasis?

A

potassium bicarbonate

141
Q

In what age group are cystine kidney stones most often seen?

A

children

142
Q

What is the most common sign of Renal Cell Carcinoma?

A

hematuria

143
Q

Renal Cell Carcinoma commonly involves the loss of what tumor suppressor gene?

A

VHL

144
Q

What chromosome is VHL located on? Arm?

A

3p

145
Q

Which two cytokines are increased when VHL is mutated?

A

IGF-1 and HIF

146
Q

What type of protein is VHL?

A

E3 ubiquitin ligase

147
Q

What three proteins does HIF usually sequester?

A

VEGF and PDGF and EPO

148
Q

What patient population do sporadic renal cell carcinomas often arise?

A

older, males

149
Q

What is the major risk factor for the development of sporadic renal cell carcinoma? Where in the kidney?

A

smoking

upper pole

150
Q

Are sporadic renal cell carcinomas unilateral or bilateral?

A

bilateral

151
Q

Where in the kidney do renal cell carcinomas often arise?

A

upper pole

152
Q

Are hereditary RCCs often unilateral or bilateral?

A

bilateral

153
Q

In what population do hereditary RCCs often arise?

A

young adults

154
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for VHL Disease?

A

autosomal dominant

155
Q

What two cancers most commonly arise due to VHL Disease?

A

hemangioblastoma of cerebellum

renal cell carcinoma

156
Q

What type of spread does renal cell carcinoma prefer?

A

hematogenous

157
Q

What two locations does renal cell carcinoma prefer to spread via a hematogenous route?

A

lung and bone

158
Q

What lymph node does RCC like to spread to?

A

retroperitoneal

159
Q

What type of cell is a Wilms tumor composed of?

A

blastema

160
Q

What are the two most common presenting symptoms in a Wilms tumor?

A

hematuria and HTN

161
Q

What is the W of WAGR Syndrome?

A

Wilms Tumor

162
Q

What is the A of WAGR Syndrome?

A

Aniridia

163
Q

What is the G of WAGR Syndrome?

A

genital abnormalities

164
Q

What is the R of WAGR Syndrome?

A

mental/motor Retardation

165
Q

What gene is often deleted during WAGR Syndrome? What is the specific chromosomal location of this gene?

A

WT1

11p13

166
Q

What are the three symptoms of Denys-Drash Syndrome?

A

Wilms tumor

progressive renal failure

male pseudo-hermaphroditism

167
Q

What defective gene is Denys Drash associated with?

A

WT1

168
Q

What gene is defective in Beckwith-Wiedemann?

A

WT2

169
Q

What are the symptoms of Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome?

A

wilms tumor

neonatal hypoglycemia

muscular hemihypertrophy

organomegaly

170
Q

What organ is particularly large during Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome?

A

tongue

171
Q

What is the main risk factor for the development of a transitional cell carcinoma?

A

smoking

172
Q

What type of cancer does naphthylamine cause?

A

transitional cell carcinoma

173
Q

What type of cancer do azo dyes cause?

A

transitional cell carcinoma

174
Q

What drug can cause transitional cell carcinoma?

A

cyclophosphamide

175
Q

What is the most common presentation of a transitonal/urothelial tumor? What are the two types?

A

painless hematuria

flat and papillary

176
Q

What type of transitional cell epithelium is associated with a p53 mutation?

A

flat

177
Q

What are the three risk factors for the development of squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder?

A

chronic cystitis

Schistosoma haemotobia

chronic nephrolithiasis

178
Q

From what structure does adenocarcinoma in the bladder arise? Where in the bladder?

A

from a urachal remnant

at the dome

179
Q

What invades the parenchyma during Dysplastic Kidney?

A

cartilage

180
Q

When does dysplatic kidney form?

A

in utero

181
Q

Where in the kidney are the cysts during Medullary Cystic Kidney Disease located?

A

medullary collecting ducts

182
Q

What are the main cause of Prerenal Azotemia?

A

decreased blood flow to kidney

183
Q

What does Acute Tubular Necrosis do to urine osmolality?

A

> 500 mOsm

184
Q

What type of kidney pathology would be created by radiocontrast dye?

A

acute tubular necrosis

185
Q

Which nephrotic syndrome is associated with normal glomeruli on H and E stain?

A

Minimal change disease

186
Q

Why does MCD not fluoresce?

A

no immune complex deposition

187
Q

What process drives MCD?

A

cytokine release

188
Q

If MCD doesnt respond to steroids, what disease will it likely progress to?

A

FSGS

189
Q

What four causes may Membranous Nephropathy be associated with?

A

HBV/HCV

SLE

solid tumors

190
Q

Does membranous nephropathy fluoresce?

A

yes

191
Q

What type of immunofluorescence pattern does Membranous Nephropathy possess?

A

granular

192
Q

Where in the nephron do immune complexes deposit during membranous nephropathy?

A

sub-epithelial

193
Q

Does Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis fluoresce?

A

yes

194
Q

What cell proliferates during Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis? What sort of appearance does this take on?

A

Mesangial

‘tram-track’

195
Q

Which type of Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis has more Tram Tracks?

A

Type I

196
Q

What antibody is present during Type II Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis?

A

C3 Nephritic Factor

197
Q

What is the function of C3 Nephritic Factor?

A

stabilizes C3 convertase

198
Q

Does Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis produce nephritic syndrome, nephrotic syndrome or both?

A

both

199
Q

What part of the glomerulus undergoes NES first?

A

vascular basement membrane

200
Q

What type of renal disease is PSGN?

A

nephritic

201
Q

What is the treatment for PSGN?

A

supportive

202
Q

How often do children with PSGN progress to chronic renal failure?

A

1%

203
Q

How often do adults with PSGN progress to chronic renal failure? What is this disease called?

A

25%

rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

204
Q

What are the three types of Immunofluorescence in the glomerulus?

A

Linear

Granular

Negative IF (pauci-immune)

205
Q

What disease is linear glomerular fluorescence indicative of? What specific renal disease?

A

Goodpasture Syndrome

RPGN

206
Q

What is an auto-antibody formed against during Goodpasture Sydrome?

A

type four collagen

207
Q

In what two organs does Goodpasture Syndrome manifest itself?

A

against collagen in kidneys and lungs

208
Q

How would a patient with Goodpastures syndrome present regarding their lungs?

A

Hemoptysis

209
Q

How would a patient with Goodpastures syndrome present regarding their kidneys?

A

Hematuria

210
Q

What patient population is clasically effected by Goodpastures Syndrome?

A

young, adult males

211
Q

What causes granular immunofluorescence?

A

immune complex deposition

212
Q

What is the most common kidney disease caused by SLE?

A

diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

213
Q

SLE with nephrotic syndrome is due to what disease?

A

membranous nephropathy

214
Q

What are the two main differences in presentation between Wegeners Granulomatosis and Goodpasture Syndrome?

A

Wegeners involves nasopharynx

c-ANCA

215
Q

When does IgA Nephropathy most commonly present? How?

A

childhood

hematuria with casts

216
Q

Would IgA Nephropathy fluoresce?

A

yes

217
Q

What is the most common mode of inheritance for Alport Syndrome?

A

X-linked

218
Q

What type of scarring pattern is characteristic of VUR?

A

scarring at upper and lower poles

219
Q

What shape of caliculi is associated with Proteus or Klebsiella?

A

staghorn

220
Q

Scarring at the upper and lower pole during Chronic Pyelonephritis is indicative of what disease happening?

A

vesicouretal reflex

221
Q

What can produce a staghorn caliculi in a child?

A

cystinuria

222
Q

How are cystine kidney stones treated?

A

hydration and alkalinization of urine

223
Q

What is often the first metabolite to increase during chronic renal failure?

A

uremia

224
Q

What specific cells of the kidney produce EPO?

A

renal peritubular interstitial cells

225
Q

What are our common cytokines does RCC often produce that can cause a paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

EPO/renin/PTHrP/ACTH

226
Q

A transitional cell carcinoma develops by which two pathways?

A

flat and papillary

227
Q

Which type of renal cell carcinoma develops as a high grade tumor?

A

flat

228
Q

Other than a urachal remnant, what are the other two methods by which an adenocarcinoma can develop in the bladder?

A

cystitis glandularis

bladder exstrophy

229
Q

What is cystitis glandularis?

A

columnar metaplasia of bladder in response to chronic inflammation

230
Q

What develops during Dysplastic Kidney?

A

cysts

231
Q

Is dysplastic kidney usually unilateral or bilateral?

A

unilateral

232
Q

Where in the kidney does PKD produce cysts?

A

cortex and medulla

233
Q

Does Medullary Cystic Kidney Disease produce an enlarged or shrunken kidney?

A

shrunken

234
Q

What are the two types of Acute Tubular Necrosis?

A

ischemic and nephrotoxic

235
Q

What molecule may be present in the cells of the proximal tubule cells during minimal change disease?

A

lipid

236
Q

Does PSGN fluoresce?

A

yes

237
Q

Does ESRD produce shrunken or enlarged kidneys?

A

shrunken

238
Q

What develops in the kidney during dialysis? What does this increase the chance of?

A

cysts

RCC

239
Q

What type of kidney stone does Crohns often present with? Why?

A

oxalate

Crohns increases the reabsorption of oxalate crystals

240
Q

According to Sattar, who is most likely to present with a bladder squamous cell carcinoma caused by Schistosoma haemotobium?

A

Egyptian male

241
Q

What causes the Potter sequence to appear?

A

oligohydramnios

242
Q

Long-term use of which two drugs can cause Renal Papillary Necrosis?

A

aspirin and phenacetin

243
Q

What type of kidney disease is Focal Segmental Glomerularsclerosis?

A

nephrotic

244
Q

What is the appearance of Membranous Nephopathy on EM?

A

spike and dome

245
Q

Does strep cause a nephritic or nephrotic syndrome?

A

nephritic

246
Q

What is the age and sex of the classic patient that presents with Goodpasture Syndrome?

A

young adult males

247
Q

What chromosome is WT1 located on?

A

11p13

248
Q

Phenacetin is associated with what type of cancer?

A

transitional cell carcinoma

249
Q

What chromosome is WT2 located?

A

11p15.5

250
Q

Where in the bladder does cystitis glandularis often arise?

A

trigone

251
Q

Which three disease would have negative fluorescence yet still cause Rapidly Progressing Glomerulonephritis?

A

Wegener

Microscopic Polyangiitis

Churg Strauss

252
Q

Is dysplastic kidney inherited or non-inherited?

A

non-inherited

253
Q

Are there low or high levels of C3 during Type Two MPGN?

A

low

254
Q

Is nephritic or nephrotic hypercellular?

A

nephritic

255
Q

Where are the deposits during PSGN?

A

subepithelial

256
Q

What disease can PSGN progress to in adults?

A

RPGN

257
Q

What two things happen to the GBM during Alport Disease?

A

thin and split

258
Q

What cells of the kidney produce Epo?

A

renal peritubular interstitial cells

259
Q

What three hormones can RCC produce?

A

Epo

renin

PTHrp

ACTH

260
Q

What is the most common variant of RCC?

A

clear cell

261
Q

Where chromosome is WT2 located on?

A

11p15.5

262
Q

Is BUN reabsorbed?

A

yes

263
Q

Is creatinine reabsorbed?

A

no

264
Q

If minimal chage disease doesnt respond to steroids, what disease may it progress to?

A

FSGS

265
Q

How long after mucosal infection does Berger Disease present?

A

few days

266
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

cant mineralize osteoid made by osteoblasts

267
Q

What is the color of RCC on gross appearance?

A

yellow

Pathoma (19 decks)

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