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zzzPHARMACOLOGY > Ratio 3rd Shifting Even > Flashcards

Ratio 3rd Shifting Even Flashcards

1
Q

DOC for N. meningitidis meningitis but will not eliminate carrier state

A

Penicillin

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2
Q

DOC for MRSA,

A

Vancomycin

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3
Q

A 20 year old student was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis probably due to Streptococcus pneumonia. The most appropriate empiric antibiotic therapy considering its efficacy against this pathogen and good penetration into the BBB achieving therapeutic concentration in the CSF?

A

Ceftriaxone

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4
Q

Drug that can be used to eliminate the carrier state of N. meningitidis meningitis

A

Rifampicin, Ciprofloxacin, Ceftriaxone

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5
Q

the DOC for meningitis as a substitute for beta lactams if there is hypersensitivity to beta lactam

A

chloramphenicol

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6
Q

Concentration dependent antibiotics

these are given as single large daily dose

A

SAD MFKr - sad muderfuker?

Streptogramins (dalfopristin quinupristin), aminoglycosides, daptomycin, metronidazole, fluoroquinolones, ketolides (telithromycin)

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7
Q

time dependent antibiotics

requires continuous IV infusion

A

CLAM TV

Clindamycin, linezolid, All beta lactams, macrolides, tetracycline, vancomycin

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8
Q

gene mutation in Rifampicin vs Streptomycin resistance

A

Rifampicin: rpoB

Streptomycin: rpsL, Rrs

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9
Q

A 30 year old patient with latent TB was started in isoniazid. The antibacterial effect of this drug most likely is mediated by the inhibition of the synthesis of what molecule?

A

Mycolic acid

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10
Q

Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase is the MOA of which anti-TB drug?

A

Rifampicin

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11
Q

similarity of linezolid and ethambutol

A

both can cause optic neuritis

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12
Q

A 13 y/o taking unrecalled antibiotic presents with respiratory paralysis. This patient may have been given very high doses of:

A

Gentamicin

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13
Q

A 34 year old female with Rheumatic Heart Disease was admitted for treatment of infective enterococcal endocarditis/ In the past she had severe anaphylactic reaction to Penicillin G. The best drug to give is:

A

Enterococcal endocarditis: vancomycin plus gentamicin

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14
Q

most associated antibiotic with colitis

A

Clindamycin

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15
Q

Although PPIs have a very short half life, their acid suppression effect lasts for 24 hours because of this reason:

A

Inactivation of the HK atpase is irreversible

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16
Q

Anti-emetic with the MOA of:

  1. Centrally acting D2 antagonist
  2. 5HT3 receptor antagonist
  3. Muscarinic receptor antagonist
A
  1. Metoclopramide
  2. Ondansetron
  3. Scopolammine
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17
Q

only macrolide wherein bioavailability is not affected by food intake

A

Clarithromycin

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18
Q

What laxatives have the ff side effects:

  1. Bloating and flatus formation
  2. Melanosis coli
  3. Vitamin D and E deficiency
A
  1. Lactulose
  2. Senna
  3. Mineral oil
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19
Q

DOC for flukes

A

praziquantel - almost always

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20
Q

drugs that can cause Mazzotti reaction

A

DEC
Ivermectin
Praziquantel

21
Q

Treatment in a PREGNANT patient with:

  1. Uncomplicated chloroquine-sensitive
  2. Uncomplicated chloroquine-resistant:
  3. Uncomplicated falciparum (2nd and 3rd trim)
  4. Uncomplicated P. vivax and ovale:
  5. Severe malaria (1st trim)
  6. Severe malaria (2nd & 3rd trim):
A
  1. Chloroquine
  2. Quinine (oral) + Clindamycin
  3. ACT (Arthemter Based Combination Therapy)
  4. Weekly Chloroquine prophylaxis until delivery and breastfeeding, then if G6PD levels are normal switch to Primaquine
  5. IV Quinine + Clinda
  6. IV/IM Artemether
22
Q

Prophylaxis in a PREGNANT patient with:

  1. Chloroquine-sensitive
  2. Chloroquine-resistant
  3. Malaria-endemic areas
A
  1. Chloroquine
  2. Mefloquine
  3. FDC Sulfadoxine-Pyrimethamine
23
Q

A traveler consulted you for drug prophylaxis prior to going to Thailand, known to be HIGHLY endemic for multi-drug resistant falciparum malaria. The most appropriate drug is:

A

Doxycycline

24
Q

acts by inhibiting neuraminidase leading to clumping of newly released influenza virus

A

Oseltamivir and Zanamivir

25
Q

drug that selectively inhibits viral DNA synthesis

A

Acyclovir

26
Q

Drug that is indicated for acyclovir resistant HSV and VZV in immunocompromised individuals

A

Foscarnet

27
Q

Drugs that prevent the vertical transmission of HIV

A

Zidovudine and Nevirapine

28
Q

Drug that prevents vertical transmission of HBV when given in that last 4 weeks of gestation

A

Lamivudine

29
Q

A 28 y/o HIV (+) patient who is being treated with multiple drugs, develops breast hypertrophy, central adiposity, and insulin resistance. If these changes are related to his drug treatment, this drug belongs to what group of antiretroviral drugs?

A

NRTIs

30
Q

anti HBV drug that can cause flu-like syndrome (fever, chills, and muscle aches)

A

interferon alfa

31
Q

A patient with Hepatitis B and co-infected with HIV is best treated with:

A

Lamivudine

32
Q

antifungal drug that can cause

  1. menstrual irregularities
  2. shake and bake syndrome (chills and fever)
A
  1. Ketoconazole

2. Amphotericin B

33
Q

the most common cause of Clostridium difficile toxin-mediated diarrhea (Pseudomembranous colitis or toxic megacolon)

A

Clindamycin

34
Q

DOC for:

  1. atypical pneumonia
  2. Diphteria
  3. Pertussis
  4. Ricketssia infection
  5. Cholera
A
  1. Erythromycin
  2. Erythromycin
  3. Erythromycin
  4. Doxycycline
  5. Doxycline
35
Q

T.L., 20 y/o with leukemia and on her 3rd cycle of chemotherapy is suspected of having febrile neutropenia. The most appropriate monotherapy for her is:

A

Meropenem

36
Q

anti-MRSA antibiotic that functions by disrupting the cell membrane function by binding to the D-ala-D-ala terminus

A

Daptomycin

37
Q

mnemonic for antibiotic that are protein synthesis inhibitors

A

AT (30s) CELLS (50s) - protein synthesis inhibitors

Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines

Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin (Macrolides)
Lincosamides
Linezolid
Streptogramins
38
Q

The primary mechanism of resistance of Strep. Pneumoniae to beta lactam antibiotics is:

A

Beta-lactams act at PBP (penicillin binding protein) to inhibit transpeptidation/cross linking of peptidoglycan units. Resistance occurs when PBP of the bacteria evolve/transform to PBP2a wherein B-lactams can no longer bind

39
Q

Hypersensitivity, jaundice, GI intolerance and thrombocytopenia are side effects of which first line anti-TB agent?

A

Rifampicin

40
Q

A 30 y/o woman of childbearing potential, currently on contraceptive pills was discovered to have sputum (+) PTB. You are about to start anti-TB treatment but wary of possible drug interaction. Which of the anti-TB drugs is most likely to interact with the oral medication and pose a risk of decreased protective efficacy against pregnancy VERSUS drug that will prolong the effect of drug she is currently taking and cause toxicity

A

Rifampicin is an enzyme inducer hence it catalyzes the metabolism of other drugs which are metabolized by the CYP450 system. Here, contraceptive pills might be metabolized much more rapidly leading to decreased protective efficacy

In contrast, Isoniazid is an enzyme inhibitor, with opposite effects as to Rifampicin which might predispose an individual to prolonged therapeutic effect of drugs or toxicity

41
Q

standard triple vs quadruple therapy for PPI

A

Standard “triple therapy” (BID for 14 days):

Proton Pump Inhibitors
Clarithromycin
Amoxicillin or Metronidazole

Quadruple therapy:

Proton Pump Inhibitors
Bismuth subsalicylate
Tetracycline
Metronidazole

42
Q

Small amounts of atropine is added to one of these antidiarrheal agents to discourage overdosage thus preventing opioid dependence:

A

Diphenoxylate - crosses the BBB —> CNS effects and opioid dependence

43
Q

Role of somatostatin vs beta blocker in variceal bleeding

A

Somatostatin -> ACTIVE BLEEDING

Beta Blocker -> PROPHYLAXIS

44
Q

The half-life of this anti-malarial drug is longer in patients with severe malaria than in healthy individual:

A

Plasma level, protein binding, half-life of quinine depend on severity of malaria (severe = higher: due to increased alpha-1-acid glycoprotein)

45
Q
  1. Causes paralysis of the parasite by depolarizing neuromuscular synapse causing the release of acetylcholine and inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
  2. Inhibit microtubule polymerization by binding to the parasite‟s beta-tubulin
  3. Increase permeability of trematode and cestode cell
    membranes to calcium causing spastic paralysis
  4. Paralysis of parasite by intensifying GABA-mediated transmission of signals in the parasite‟s peripheral nerves
A
  1. Pyrantel pamoate
  2. Mebendazole
  3. Praziquantel
  4. Ivermectin
46
Q

Anti TB meds with the ff ADR:

  1. peripheral neuropathy, hepatitis
  2. hyperuricemia, hepatitis
  3. discoloration of body fluids
  4. retrobulbar neuritis
A
  1. Isoniazid
  2. Pyrazinamide
  3. Rifampicin
  4. Ethambutol
47
Q

laxative that causes direct stimulation of the ENS leading to colonic fluid and electrolyte secretion

VERSUS
Hydrolyzed in the upper small intestine to a colonic irritant that stimulates intestinal motility

A
  1. Senna

2. Castor oil

48
Q

Antibiotics that cause QTc prolongation

A

Levofloxacin

Erythromycin

3rd gen FQs (Levo, Moxi, Gati, Gemi)

49
Q

apart from Gray Baby syndrome, what is another ADR of chlorampencol

A

Aplastic anemia

zzzPHARMACOLOGY (10 decks)

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