Endo Pharma Flashcards

1
Q

mechanism of action of thioamides (PTU, methimazole)

A

blocks thyroid peroxidase enzyme interfering directly with the synthesis of thyroid hormones

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2
Q

some advantage of methimazole over PTU in the treatment of hyperthyroidism

A

higher oral bioavailability and longer duration of action

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3
Q

serious toxicity associated with methimazole

A

agranulocytosis

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4
Q

action of saturated solution of potassium or Lugol’s solution in hyperthyroidism

A

inhibits thyroid hormone release

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5
Q

benefit of giving Lugol’s solution prior to surgery of thyroid

A

reduces the size and vascularity of thyroid gland

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6
Q

iodides cannot be used long term for the treatment of hyperthyroidism because of this effect

A

Jod-Basedow

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7
Q

when taking this drug for osteoporosis ,the patient should remain upright position for 30 min to prevent esophageal ulceration

A

bisphosophonates (alendronate ,etc)

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8
Q

the glucose lowering effect of this anti-DM drug requires functioning beta cells

A

sulfonylurea

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9
Q

anti DM drug that increases risk for bladder cancer

A

Pioglitazone ( a TZD)

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10
Q

anti DM drug with possible adverse effect of CHF

A

thiazolidinedione

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11
Q

what is the reason why DPP4 inhibitors do not cause hypoglycemia

A

MOA is glucose dependent stimulation of insulin secretion. kumbaga it would not function pag walang pagkain sa tiyan

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12
Q

Estrogen can decrease total thyroid hormone level because it can increase binding of thyroxine to thyroid binding globulin. True or false

A

False. It can INCREASE….

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13
Q

anti-thyroid DOC for pregnant women

A

PTU

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14
Q

anti-thyroid DOC for thyroid storm

A

PTU

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15
Q

in most patients, methimazole is preferred over PTU because of this adverse effect of PTU

A

severe hepatitis

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16
Q

if agranulocytosis occurs in a patient being given methimazole, it would be wise to shift to PTU. True or false

A

False. shift to other drug class dapat. because giving PTU might cause a cross reaction. pareho kasi silang thioamides.

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17
Q

around how long will the radioactive iodine take effect

A

6-12 weeks. implication: wag agad mag request ng thyroid function test. hintayin umepekto ang gamot

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18
Q

DOC for hypothyroidism

A

Levothyroxine

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19
Q

this anti-thyroid drug can be given for protection of thyroid against fallout in the event of nuclear accident

A

iodide (lugol’s solution)

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20
Q

what is the MOA of beta blockers that is useful for treating hyperthyroidism

A

it blocks peripheral effects of thyroid hormone and it blocks the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

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21
Q

what is the MOA of prednisone that is useful for treating hyperthyroidism

A

blocks the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

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22
Q

what is the MOA of lithium that is useful for treating hyperthyroidism

A

blocks the release of thyroid hormone

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23
Q

this is a major problem with the use of hormonal replacement tx for the prevention and tx of osteoporosis

A

venous thromboembolism

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24
Q

what agent used for osteoporosis acts as both anti-resorptive and bone forming agent

A

strontium ranelate

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25
Q

anti-osteoporotic drug associated with risk of osteosarcoma

A

teriparatide

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26
Q

anti-osteoporotic drug associated with risk of decreased renal function

A

bisphosphonates

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27
Q

anti-osteoporotic drug associated with risk of infection

A

denosumab

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28
Q

fpr patients with osteoporosis with renal insufficiency, what anti-osteoporotic agent would be best

A

denosumab because it does not require renal dose adjustment

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29
Q

anti-osteoporotic agent that promotes bone healing only (not anti resorptive)

A

teriparatide

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30
Q

anti-thyroid drug that can cause cutis aplasia (congenital malformation)

A

Methimazole

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31
Q

anti-osteoporotic drug with adverse effect of osteonecrosis of jaw and subtrochanteric fracture

A

denosumab and bisphosphonates

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32
Q

why should denosumab not be used together with bisphosphonates

A

both can cause osteonecrosis of jaw and subtrochanteric fracture as adverse effects

33
Q

DOC for osteoporosis in general

A

bisphosphonates

34
Q

DOC for severe hypocalcemic tetany

A

calcium gluconate IV

35
Q

net effect of PTH vs Vitamin D vs Calcitonin on calcium and phosphate level

A

PTH increases calcium and decreases phosphate. VITAMIN D increases both. CALCITONIN decreases both.

36
Q

alendronate, ibandronate, zolendronic acid are examples of

A

bisphosphonates

37
Q

example of selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)

A

raloxifene

38
Q

only IV form of bisphosphonate

A

zolendronic acid or zolendronate

39
Q

MOA of this anti-osteoporotic drug is preventing RANKL to bind to RaNKL receptor leading to osteoclast inhibition . This drug is also a human monoclonal antibody

A

Denosumab

40
Q

This hormone found in pancreatic islets of langerhan modulate appetite and regulate gastric emptying

A

amyloid polypeptide (amylin)

41
Q

glucagon is an inhibitor of insulin secretion. true or false

A

False. Glucagon STIMULATES insulin secretion. on the other hand, insulin INHIBITS glucagon. Ang selfish ng insulin noh

42
Q

preferred route of insulin administration for patient that are hypotensive

A

Insulin should be administered intravenously in patient with poor blood flow / hypotensive. Usually, insulin is given subcutaneously

43
Q

sulfonylurea that can cause dilutional hyponatremia

A

chlorpropamide (an old gen sulfonylurea)

44
Q

this sulfonylurea has no active metabolite drug being excreted thru the kidneys

A

glipizide

45
Q

thiazolidinediones have this pancreatic sparing effect and will decrease insulin requirement due to this action

A

improve GLUT 4 expression in muscle and adipose

46
Q

main mechanism for the glucose lowering effect of metformin

A

decrease hepatic glucose output

47
Q

examples of rapid acting insulin

A

lispro, aspart, glulisine (walang LAG kasi rapid)

48
Q

examples of long acting insulin

A

detemir, degludec, glargine (think of glalalalaalalaglargine. matagal mag gargle ganun. to differentiate it from glulisine)

49
Q

rapid acting insulin appearance in solution

A

clear

50
Q

this specific insulin is in an acidic solution that when injected subcutaneously will form stable aggregates…

A

glargine. kaya siya long acting

51
Q

true or false. insulin is used for emergency treatment of hypokalemia.

A

false. for hyPERkalemia dapat

52
Q

insulin is composed of what 2 polypeptides

A

A chain (21AA) and B chain (30AA)

53
Q

this glucose transporter is insulin mediated and facilitates glucose uptake from muscles and adipose tissue

A

GLUT 4

54
Q

what is the only type of insulin that can be given intravenously

A

short acting insulin (regular insulin)

55
Q

due to its acidic pH, this long acting insulin should not be mixed with short acting or rapid acting insulin

A

insulin glargine

56
Q

Glibenclamide, glipizide, gliclazide, glimepiride are examples of

A

sulfonylureas (starts with gli-“)

57
Q

which sulfonylureas are safe in px with renal problems (because they are not renally excreted)

A

glipizide and gliclazide

58
Q

what sulfonylurea causes disulfiram like reactions and dilutional hyponatremia

A

chlorpropamide (old gen sulfonylurea)

59
Q

repaglinide and nateglinide are examples of

A

rapid acting prandial insulin secretagogues

60
Q

anti-diabetic agents that stimulate insulin release by closing K channels in beta cells

A

sulfonyureas and glinides

61
Q

example of biguanide

A

metformin

62
Q

acarbose and voglibose are examples of

A

alpha glucosidase inhibitor

63
Q

sitagliptin, saxagliptin, vildagliptin, linagliptin are examples of

A

DPP4 inhibitors

64
Q

pioglitazone and rosiglitazone are examples of

A

thiazolidinediones

65
Q

coleveselam is an example of

A

bile acid sequestrant

66
Q

canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin are examples of

A

SGLT2 inhibitors

67
Q

exenatide and liraglutide are examples of

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

68
Q

pramlintide is an example of

A

amylin mimetic

69
Q

anti diabetic drug class that decrease hepatic glucose output

A

biguanides (metformin)

70
Q

anti diabetic drug class that inhibits intestinal glucosidase enzyme and delays CHO absorption

A

alpha glucosidase inhibitor ( -bose)

71
Q

anti diabetic drug class that inhibits the enzyme that degrades GLP1

A

DPP4 inihibitors ( -gliptin)

72
Q

anti diabetic drug class that are PPAR gamma agonist, increases number of GLUT 4 transporters in muscle and adipose tissue

A

thiazolidinediones (-glitazone)

73
Q

anti diabetic drug class that binds bile acid in intestinal tract

A

bile acid sequestrant (colesevelam)

74
Q

anti diabetic drug class that inhibits a specific transporter in the proximal tubule and thus there will be excretion of glucose in the urine

A

SGLT2 inhibitors (-gliflozin)

75
Q

anti diabetic drug class that activates GLP1 receptor

A

GLP1 receptor agonist (-tide)

76
Q

first line therapy for mild to moderate type 2 DM

A

metformin

77
Q

anti diabetic drug that can cause lactic acidosis

A

metformin

78
Q

preferred treatment for patient with hypoglycemia

A

glucose 15-20g

79
Q

treatment for hypoglycemia in unconscious patients

A

IV glucose or glucagon IM/SC