Random review Q&A Flashcards

1
Q

Ectopic pregnancy, clinical features-signs and symptoms- just list them out

A
  • Absence of menses
  • Irregular vaginal bleeding (spotting)
  • Abdominal/shoulder tip pain
  • Cervical motion tenderness
  • Tachycardia and hypotension
  • Palpable adnexal mass (50% of women)
  • Absence of IUP on USS, with a positive β-hCG
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2
Q

Risk factors for ectopic pregnancy-5

A

Anatomic alteration of the fallopian tubes is the main cause of ectopic pregnancy. It may be due to:
A history of PID
Previous ectopic pregnancy
Past surgeries involving the fallopian tubes
Endometriosis
Exposure to DES (diethylstilbestrol) in utero
Bicornuate uterus

Non‑anatomical risk factors
Intrauterine device (IUD)
History of infertility
Hormone therapy

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3
Q

Signs and symptoms of ectopic

A

Patients usually present with signs and symptoms 4–6 weeks after their last menstrual period.

1) Lower abdominal pain and guarding
2) Vaginal bleeding
3) Signs of pregnancy: amenorrhea, nausea, breast tenderness, frequent urination
4) Tenderness in the area of the ectopic pregnancy
5) Cervical motion tenderness, closed cervix
6) Enlarged uterus
7) Interstitial pregnancies tend to present late, at 7–12 weeks of gestation, because of myometrial distensibility.

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4
Q

What are the 3 options for ectopic pregnancy

A

Expectant
Medical
Surgery

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5
Q

Indication for surgery
Procedure
Follow up after surgery

A
Haemodynamically unstable
• Signs of rupture
• Any β-hCG level
• Persistent excessive bleeding
• Heterotopic pregnancy

Laparoscopy method of choice
• Laparotomy if:
o Haemodynamically unstable
o Laparoscopy too difficult

• GP 14 days post-surgery
• If salpingo(s)tomy, weekly β-hCG
until negative
• If salpingectomy, urinary β-hCG
3 weeks after surgery
• USS if clinically indicated
• Optimal conception interval
unknown (0–3 months common)
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6
Q

Post-op care for ectopic

A
Give written information about:
• Management option chosen
• Expected bleeding/symptoms
• Resumption of menstruation
• Contraception
• Follow-up arrangements
General care considerations
• Review histopathology of POC
• If indicated, recommend RhD-Ig
• Analgesia as required
• Communicate information to other
care providers (e.g. GP)
• Early USS (5–6 weeks) in next
pregnancy
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7
Q

Indication for medical management of ectopic

A
Indications
• Haemodynamically stable
• No evidence of rupture
• No signs of active bleeding
• Normal FBC, ELFT

Indications
Uncomplicated ectopic pregnancies
Hemodynamic stability
β-hCG ≤ 5000 mlU/mL
No renal, hepatic, or hematologic diseases
No fetal heartbeat and ectopic mass size < 4 cm
Treatment of choice: methotrexate (MTX)

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8
Q

Peak Expiratory Flow(PEF)- things to do

why is it useful
how long

A

To perform a peak flow:

1) Stand up straight.
2) Make sure the indicator is at the bottom of the meter.
3) Take a deep breath, filling your lungs completely.
4) Place the mouthpiece in your mouth; lightly bite with your teeth, and close your lips on it.
5) Blast the air out as hard and as fast as possible in a single blow.
6) Record the number that appears on the meter.
7) Repeat these steps 3 times.
8) Record the highest of the 3 readings in an asthma diary. 9) This reading is your or your child’s peak flow.
10) Peak flow monitoring helps measure how much, and when, the airways are changing.

Each morning and evening, record the highest of three peak flows. Take a deep breath, seal your mouth tightly around the mouthpiece, then blow as hard
and as fast as you can. Check the number, re-set the pointer to zero, and repeat two more times.

To find your personal best peak flow, perform peak flows:

Twice a day for 2 weeks;
At the same time in the morning and in the early evening;
Before taking any inhalers, or as instructed by your caregiver.

https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/articles/4298-peak-flow-meter

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9
Q

Surgery in ectopics

A

Hemodynamic instability, impending rupture
Risk factors for rupture
Contraindications for MTX treatment: e.g., renal insufficiency
If conservative treatment is unsuccessful

Laparoscopic removal
1) Salpingostomy (tube‑conserving operation)
Risk of persistent ectopic pregnancy
Patients with unruptured tubal pregnancy who do not meet the criteria for conservative treatment

2) Salpingectomy (not function-preserving)
Ruptured tube, heavy bleeding, large ectopic mass
If the patient does not desire future pregnancies → bilateral salpingectomy

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10
Q

PSYCHIATRIC FUNCTIONAL ENQUIRY: MOAPS

A

M: mood (depression vs euthymia vs mania)
O: organic/substance use, medical illness
A: anxiety (worries, compulsions, obsessions)
P: psychotic symptoms (hallucinations, delusions)
S: safety (risk of suicide: ideation, plan, means)

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11
Q

What is the DERMIS acronym? (definition of Borderline PD)

A

D: defence mechanisms(i.e. splitting, projecting anger onto all those around them)
E: ego strength lacking, can’t put off instant gratification
R: relationship difficulties
M: mood instability
I: impulsivity
S: ense of self disrupted, suicidality, self harm

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12
Q

Why is it that the negative symptoms are often the most disabling symptoms in the long term picture of schizophrenia?

A

These are not easily controlled, as anti-psychotic treat the +ve symptoms only.

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13
Q

When is clozapine contraindicated?-5

A
Previous cardiomyopathy
Blood dyscrasias (any pathological condition of blood)
Neutropenia
Severe renal impairment
Liver failure
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14
Q

How do you manage NMS?

A
  1. Stop any agents that are thought to be causing
  2. IV fluids (flush out the CK MM and prevent acute kidney injury)
  3. O2
  4. Dantrolene to relieve rigidity
  5. Anti-pyretics to cool down

…so just think of the symptoms, and how you would individually manage that

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15
Q

What are some differentials for serotonin syndrome?

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Substance abuse (cocaine/stimulants)
Infections (sepsis, meningitis)
Malignant hyperthermia

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16
Q

What benzodiazepines bypass the liver and therefore are safer to give without knowing liver function?

A

LOT
Lorazepam
Oxazepam
Temazepam

Imagine it these benzo are alot for the liver to handle so they bypass it

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17
Q

What is a major distinguishing clinical finding that you have in serotonin syndrome and not in neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Hyper-reflexia - otherwise it is very similar.

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18
Q

What is the comparison of the therapeutic window of sodium valproate and lithium?

A

Sodium valproate has a wide therapeutic window - meaning that accidental overdose is uncommon

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19
Q

What diagnoses are important to exclude/consider in somebody presenting with symptoms of panic attack? (Particularly if it is a 1st presentation)

A

ARDS/pneumonia
PE
Asthma
Diabetic ketoacidosis (kussmaul breathing)

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20
Q

What is a common SSRI used in anxiety?

A

Escitalopram

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21
Q

What are examples of things that can bring about an adjustment disorder?

What other condition should you keep in mind with Adjustment disorder

A

Relationship breakdown/divorce
Becoming a parent
Leaving home

Screen for depression and suicide as well

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22
Q

What is the biggest risk with re-feeding syndrome?

A

Cardiac decompensation, metabolic increase not tolerated by the heart leading to tachycardia and oedema

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23
Q

What is the mechanism of action of EtOH?

A

Potentiates GABA-A transmission (depressant), increased dopamine in mesolimbic pathway (addictive component)

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24
Q

There are 4 stages of alcohol withdrawal, what are they?

A

1: ‘shakes’, sweating, cramps, diarrhoea, cramps
2: Seizures (<48 hours)
3. Hallucinations (at 48 hours)
4. DT’s, confusion, delusions, autonomic hyperactivity

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25
Q

When do you give benzos in alcohol withdrawal?

A

When there is symptomatic withdrawal - i.e. according to the CIWA score

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26
Q

Why is antibiotic therapy not recommended in children with bloody diarrhoea without fever?

A

If caused by EHEC can lead to haemolytic uremic syndrome

Avoid use of antibiotics and antimotility agents in suspected infection with enterohemorrhagic E. coli, as these agents may increase the likelihood of HUS.

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27
Q

Please discuss the mechanism of citalopram

A

An SSRI

Block SERT at presynaptic terminal to increase 5-HT at the synaptic cleft.

This increases post synpatic response to serotonin. However, by activating autoreceptors on the presynaptic cleft, it can lead to negative feedback, thus worsening the symptoms iniitally. However, these downregulate eventually, and the response improves.

Note this mechanism is the same for tolerance, except observed on the post synaptic membrane

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28
Q

Foetal and Maternal complications of GDM

A

Foetal:

 Birth trauma (obstructed vaginal delivery)
 increased need for c-section
 Macrosomia, organomegaly, polycythaemia,
jaundice
 Hyperinsulinaemia
 Shoulder dystocia
 Neonatal hypoglycaemia
 Increased need for premature delivery
 ARDS
 Increased need to c-section
 IUFD
 LONG-TERM  impaired glucose tolerance,
T2DM, obesity
Maternal
Miscarriage
 Preeclampsia
 Infection
 Induction of labour
 Trauma
 C-section
 PPH
 Increased risk of T2DM + HTN
 Increased risk of hypoglycaemia
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29
Q

Types of rectal prolapse?

A

Type one and two. One is just the mucosa protruding past the external anal sphincter. This is more common in children. Two is complete, and involves the full thickness of the wall. and is broken up like this:

First degree: Prolapse includes the mucocutaneous junction.

2nd: Without involvement of the mucocutaneous junction
3rd: Prolapse is internal, concealed or occult. This is otherwise known as an internal intussusception.

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30
Q

What is Hartmann’s Pocuh

A

This is the junction of the neck of the gallbladder and the cystic duck. THis is where stones fall to be stuck.

Gallstones may lodge in it

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31
Q

What are some risk factors for gallstones you learnt today?

A

Terminal ileum dmaage, weight loss (learnt why: rapid weight loss leads to excess mobilisation of cholesterol and biliary stassis), TPN (due to impaired gallbladder emptying). I would also imagine dehydration is a risk factor. Remember oestrogen slows the transit of bile in the biliary system which is the pathogenesis of cholestasis in pregnancy.

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32
Q

The patient has a post operative fever,and pain in the RUQ after a cholecystectomy. What is the diagnosis unitl proven otherwise?

A

Bile duct injury

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33
Q

What is post cholecystectomy syndrome?

A

Sphincter of Oddi dysfunction. It’s a persistence or recurrence of pain after the cholecystectomy. Alternative explanations include post op adhesions.

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34
Q

Role of USS and CT in pancreatitis?

A

Role of US is to rule out gallstones, and is commonly used in the first episode of pancreatitis. CT is to assess any complications such as a pseudocyst and to measure the extent of the necrosis. CT best done around the 72 hour mark otherwise it’s known to underestimate the extent of the disease.

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35
Q

how do we divide the management of acute pancreatitis? Describe the steps involved?

A

→ Treatment with acute pancreatitis is directed four ways: general, local, complications and cause
- General
o Treat fluid loss
• If severe: careful fluid replacement with central venous pressure measurement may be necessary
• Monitor urine output: IDC
o Oxygen, Analgesia
o PPI
o AWS, thiamine
o NBM
o Nutrition- initially fast the patient, enteral nutrition has now been shown to prevent mucosal barrier breakdown and abscess formation → NG feeds if severe
- Local
o There is no specific treatment for the pancreatic inflammation
• Therefore treatment is directed at minimising the progression of the disease and preventing complications
o Antibiotics: imipenem
• Only if they have an infection, not just because they are febrile
• Prophylaxis not shown to be effective
o ERCP
• Early ERCP (<72 hours) versus conservative management extensively studies
• Benefit in cholangitis and obstructive jaundice but there has been conflicting evidence in the remainder of acute pancreatitis
o Laparoscopic cholecystectomy recommended during same admission for all groups
o Necrosectomy
• Indications
• Infected necrosis with septic complications
• Sterile necrosis with progressive deterioration
• Surgical intervention within first 2 weeks carries high mortality
- Complications
o Surgical intervention in pancreatitis is reserved for the treatment of complications and in gallstone pancreatitis for the treatment of the cause
o Severe pancreatitis with infected necrosis: Debriding necrosed tissue necessary
• As seen on a CT or the presence of organisms in tissue that as been aspirated from the pancreas following a percutaneous radiologically guided needle approach
o Pseudocysts: treated via percutaneous or endoscopic techniques or open surgery
o Abscess drainage → percutaneous or open
- Cause
o Gallstones: Cholecystectomy, ERCP

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36
Q

Blood supply of the thyroid gland

A

Superior thyroid artery is from the external cartoid, the inferior thyroid artery is from the subclavian artery.

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37
Q

Discuss the diabetes cycle of care. What is included in a primary care management plan for T2DM?

A

Look up guideline

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38
Q

GAD features in DSM?

A

1) Excessive worry or anixety for most days for more than 6 months which patient finds difficult to control
2) Needs three or more REMDIS features
Restlessness
Easy fatigue
Muscle tension
Difficulty concentrating/ distractibility
Irritability
Sleep disturbance

Causes significant impairment.

Not better explaned by another medical or psyche thin.

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39
Q

Describe refeeding syndrome?

A

Refeeding ysndrome is when we have a low phosphate level in the body. There is a low amount intracellularly, because a lot of this is shunted to the serum to bring the levels back up. However, when we give insulin, it cannot be compensated, and all the phosphate is driven intracellularly (we get an exacerbated insulin response with long term starvation). Thus, we get hypophosphataemia. Please note that we can also get hypokalaemia with this

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40
Q

Mechanism of SSRI’s

A

4 ways it works. It inihibits pre ysnaptic uptake of serotonin. And postsynaptic. First step.

2: Increases serotonin in the synaptic cleft. More serotonin to bind to post synaptic receptors.
3: increased binding at post synapse. this is the antidepressant effect. Pre synaptic receptors get downregulated.
4: Post synaptic receptors also become downregulated which is when side effects decrease.

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41
Q

What are some symptoms aside from cardiac and respiratory symptoms in congenital heart defects? Note remember that they can get a cardiac wheeze

A
Failure to thrive
Poor feeding
Developmental delay
Diaphoresis
Easily fatigued
Poor exercise tolerance
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42
Q

You know the management of Kawasaki. Why do we delay the MMR vaccine by 3-6 months?

A

2% rate of recurrence is something I also need to remember.

We delay it because the immunoglobulins can reduce the effectiveness of the MMR vaccine.

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43
Q

What is Nokolsky sign? What other features are typical of SSSS

How do differentiate from TENS?

A

When you rub the skin it disintegrates.

They will be in a lot of pain, and they won’t like being in contact with Mum.

It starts as exudation and crusting, which progresses to wrinkling, bullae formation and the exfoliation.

TENS will have mucosal involvement (they have eye involvement). Also note SSSS does not scar because it’s only the epidermis.

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44
Q

Discuss the clinical features of HSP

A

Palpable purpura with arthritis, arthralgia, abdo pain and / or renal involvement (haematuria, proteinuria, HTN)
Pulmonary + neuro involvement are both rare but may be life threatening if present.

PAAR

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45
Q

HSP and abdominal pain

A

Remember the abdo pain is in intussuseption.

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46
Q

How would you manage the HSP

A

Depends if there is mild or moderate/ severe pain.

Mild: subcut oedema managed by bed rest + elevation of the affected area. Paracetamol and NSAID’s.

Mod/ severe: glucocorticoids reduce the duration of joint pain and abdo pain. No impact on long term kidneys.

If there is significant renal, pulmonary, neurological or abdo comp, refer to paeds and consider admission.

Follow up is referral to the GP or paediatrician to identify subsequent renal involvement, monitoring for HTN, proteinuria or macroscopic haematuria.

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47
Q

In symptoms/sign is seen in delirium tremens, however not see in the minor, major and seizure stages of alcohol withdrawal

A

FEVER

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48
Q

Down syndrome causes in the chromosomal, what are 2 processes in the chromosome

A

1) Non-disjunction-90%

2) Balanced Robertsonian translocation

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49
Q

scaphoid abdomen and respiratory distress in an infant

A

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

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50
Q

What are the other names for erythema infectiousum

A

Fifth disease/parvovirus/slapped cheek syndrome

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51
Q

What Ix is the most important test for urinary incontinence

A

Post-voidal residual volume(PVRV)–> normally after peeing 50ml of urine is left in the bladder

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52
Q

Urge incontinence- what is the drug

A

Oxybutynin- anticholinergic

Helps to calm the overactive bladder- detrusor muscle overactivity

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53
Q

Overflow incontinence

-what happens

A

Urinary retention

Need a catheter
PVRV- high

Men–> due to BPH

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54
Q

The child presents with bloody diarrhea + NO FEVER

parents say he ate some funny

Diagnosis?

  • what should you avoid
  • what do you see on the blood film
A

HUS

Abx should be avoided in HUS
treatment is IV fluids, conservative management
RBC transfusion if needed
Dialysis if renal failure

On blood film, you will see schistocytes due to the Shiga toxins effects

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55
Q

PID think?

A

Ectopic

Do a beta-hCG as well

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56
Q

Needle decompression of pneumothorax- a landmark for insertion

A

2nd intercoastal space, midclavicular line

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57
Q

SAH- what kind of CT would you do

A

NON-contrast

Blood appears white
Contrast appears white

So do a NON-CONTRAST

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58
Q

SAH are given CCB why?

A

Vasospasm of the blood vessels

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59
Q

Acute pancreatitis criteria

A

Ranson’s criteria

Treatment-
IV fluid, NBM and morphine

Low-fat diet after getting well

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60
Q

The renal stone best test?

-which drug can be given

A

CT scan

NOT X-RAY

Thiazide diuretic can help- reabsorption of calcium in the urine

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61
Q

What happens to the estrogen and FSH during ovarian failure

A

Can because of amenorrhea
and seen in MENOPAUSE

FSH is increased due to the negative feedback mechanisms

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62
Q

Typical facial features of Down’s

A

1) upward slanting palpebral fissures, epicanthus
2) small oral cavity with a large tongue: protruding
3) a flattened nose

63
Q

5 A’s of Down syndrome

A

Advanced maternal age, duodenal Atresia, Atrioventricular septal defect, AML/ALL, Alzheimer disease

64
Q

Complications of giant cell arteritis

A

1) Blindness
2) Aortic dissection
3) Aortic aneurysms

65
Q

Complications of giant cell arteritis

A

1) Blindness
2) Aortic dissection
3) Aortic aneurysms

Permanent vision loss: ∼ 20–30% if giant cell arteritis is left untreated

Cerebral ischemia (e.g., transient ischemic attack and stroke): < 2% of cases

Aortic aneurysm and/or dissection: ∼ 10–20% of patients

66
Q

Acute complication of pancreatitis

A

ARDS

67
Q

What is the difference between cardioversion and defibrillation?

A

Cardioversion: energy delivered synchronized to QRS complex that minimizes likelihood of shock occurring during repolarization
*** DO NOT do in Vfib

vs

Defibrillation: unsychronized: random in cycle shock
- indicated in Vfib

68
Q

Beck’s triad

A

HYPOtension
Distended neck veins
muffled heart sounds

69
Q

Bacteria causes of endocarditis

  1. valves/ catheters/ implanted devices
  2. drug users
  3. dental work
  4. nosocomial UTIs
  5. Colon carcinoma, inflammatory bowel
A
  1. Staph Aureus: implanted devices/ valves + IV DRUG USE
  2. Viridans strep: dental work, respiratory tract incision/ biopsy
  3. Epidermis: same as aureus but no IVD
  4. Enterococci: nosocomial UTI
  5. Strep gallolyticus/ bovis= GI
  6. Fungi: immunocompromised, catheters, prolonged AB
70
Q

What mood stabilizer can cause pancreatitis

A

Sodium valproate

71
Q

+ pain with straight leg raise

A

herniated disc

72
Q

What is the most common lung cancer in patients exposed to asbestos?

A

Bronchogenic adenocarcinoma

73
Q

Dumping syndrome

A

Late complication of gastric bypass surgery

  • rapid onset OSMOTIC diarrhea after ingestion of carb-heavy meals
  • hx of travel/ immunosuppression
74
Q

What is a common sequelae of gastrectomy?

A

B12 deficiency: due to IF deficiency

  • shiny tongue, pale palmar crease
  • impaired DNA synthesis
  • due to increased immature megaloblasts produced–> jaundice, increased LDH, increased unconjugated billi
75
Q

What is a common sequela of gastrectomy?

A

B12 deficiency: due to IF deficiency

  • shiny tongue, pale palmar crease
  • impaired DNA synthesis
  • due to increased immature megaloblasts produced–> jaundice, increased LDH, increased unconjugated billi
76
Q

Which glaucoma is an emergency

A

Acute angle

77
Q

Schilling test for vitamin b12 deficiency

A

If there is IF factor deficiency

78
Q

Remember what vitamin deficiency is highly associated with fat malabsorption

A

Vitamin K deficiency

KADE

79
Q

Why is vitamin k deficiency dangerous is neonates

A

Vitamin K deficiency–> haemorrhagic disease of the newborn

80
Q

Why is vitamin k deficiency dangerous is neonates

A

Vitamin K deficiency–> haemorrhagic disease of the newborn

Hence we give Vitamin K needles
Breast milk is deficient in vitamin K

81
Q

Beta 1 and beta 2 receptors are located in

A

1- heart( 1 heart)

2- lungs(2 lungs)

82
Q

Acute pyelonephritis eTG treatment(mild)

A

For empirical therapy of nonsevere pyelonephritis in adults while awaiting the results of investigations, use:

amoxicillin+clavulanate

For adults with penicillin hypersensitivity, use: ciprofloxacin

83
Q

CVD claudication relief- which drug

A

Cilostazol is an antiplatelet drug and a vasodilator.

Antiplalete drugs are given as well- aspirin and clopidogrel

84
Q

Alzheimer’s disease is widely recognized by the 5 A’s which include

A

Amnesia, Anomia, Apraxia, Agnosia, and Aphasia.

Anomia is the inability to remember names of everyday objects.

Agnosia is characterized as the inability to recognize a familiar object, tastes, sounds, and other sensations.

Apraxia causes patients with this disorder to have difficulty with skilled movements and/or speech.

85
Q

COPD can have what on FBC

A

Hct increase, PCV due to increase EPO production

86
Q

Pernicious anemia

  • what are the two antibodies
  • Associated with autoimmune
  • Increase the risk of ______ cancer
A

Antiparietal cell antibodies: target gastric parietal cells

Causes ↓ acid production and atrophic gastritis
↓ Intrinsic factor production → ↓ vitamin B12 absorption in terminal ileum

Anti-IF antibodies: bind intrinsic factor and block the vitamin B12 binding site

Associated with other autoimmune diseases (e.g., hypothyroidism, vitiligo)

Increases the risk of gastric cancer

87
Q

Always consider vitamin_______ deficiency when evaluating patients with dementia!

A

B12

88
Q

The triad of clinical findings occurring in HUS consists of

A

1 ) Low platelets (i.e., thrombocytopenia)
Petechiae, purpura
Mucosal bleeding
Prolonged bleeding after minor cuts

2) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Fatigue, dyspnea, and pallor
Jaundice

3) Impaired renal function
Hematuria, proteinuria
Oliguria, anuria

89
Q

In which condition is ESR important(Dr. Poorinima) said this

A

Temporal arteritis

90
Q

2 types of stroke

A

1) Brain ischemia- nearly 70%- local thrombosis or embolization
2) Haemorrhage- ICH and SAH

Make sure you ask in any OSCE to ask about the history about both–> subarachnoid features

91
Q

Most common cause of ICH and SAH

A

Hypertension

92
Q

What are some history question/clinical evaluation of a stroke

A

 Sudden development of focal neurological sign/symptom
 FAST( face, arms and speech and Time is brain)
 Usually U/L arm, leg weakness, or U/L Sensory symptoms
 Decrease vision in one eye (esp. amaurosis fugax)
 Sudden confusion, difficulty in understanding or speech
 Sudden problem with coordination, walking, dizziness
 Sudden onset of headache-Thunderclap headache

93
Q

HISTORY TAKING- MIMICS OF TIAs/STROKES-5

A
 Migraines with aura
 Seizures-Todd’s Palsy
 Hypoglycemia/HHS as well( MAKE SURE TO DO BSL--> can definitely mimic hypoglycemia)
 Syncope
 TGA
 Demyelination-MS
 Conversion disorder
94
Q

TIA risk assessment - score is what?

why should we do this score?

A

ABCD2 score

Estimates the risk of stroke after a suspected transient ischemic attack (TIA).

Age- >60
BP-140/90
Clinical features of the TIA
Duration-< 10 min, 10-60, 60+
Diabetes
95
Q

Post-herpetic neuralgia

A

They have allodynia and hyper-analgesia

Gabapentin
Amitriptyline(TCA)

96
Q

OSCE about stroke, what will you say

-outline the management pathway

A

Follow the stroke pathway in the hospital

TIME IS BRAIN
Assess immediately if eligible for reperfusion
 Time of onset/last seen well
 Imp- Time window for IV thrombolysis- 4.5hrs
 Urgent CT head –
1. To rule out bleed
2. Well-formed infarct

97
Q

Time window period for IV thrombolysis is

A

4.5 hours

98
Q

Whats the agent for IV THROMBOLYSIS

A

Agent- tPA (Recombinant Tissue Plasminogen activator/alteplase)

99
Q

Contraindications for IV thrombolysis/TPA-there is a alot, tell me 5

A

5 to remember-

1) active bleeding diathesis at the time
2) recent surgery(2 weeks)
3) severe uncontrolled HTN( can use anti-HTN)
4) ICH, SAH
5) Current anticoagulant use with an INR >1.7

 ICH,SAH
 Presence of well formed infarct
 Recent (within 3months) intracranial or intraspinal surgery or serious head trauma;
 Presence of intracranial conditions that may increase the risk of bleeding (eg, AVM, Tumors,
Aneurysm)
 Known bleeding diathesis
 Severe uncontrolled hypertension
 Active internal bleeding
 Infective endocarditis
 Stroke known or suspected to be associated with aortic arch dissection
Major surgery within 2weeks
 GI or urinary tract hemorrhage within 3weeks
 Glucose level <50 or >400mg/dL
 Platelet count <100,000/mm3
 Current anticoagulant use with an INR >1.7
 Therapeutic doses of LMWH received within 24hours
 Current use of a NOACs with evidence of anticoagulant effect by laboratory tests
such as aPTT, INR, ECT, TT, or appropriate factor Xa activity assay

100
Q

People with _______ should have their swallowing screened within 4hours of arrival at the hospital and before being given any oral food, fluid or medication

A

People with acute stroke should have their swallowing screened within 4hours of
arrival at hospital and before being given any oral food, fluid or medication

101
Q

DVT prophylaxis with a stroke patient who are immobile?

A

In immobile stroke patients, intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC) is recommended over routine care to reduce the risk of DVT.

102
Q

Pulsus parodoxus
= fall in systemic arterial pressure by >10 during inspiration
can be seen in ACCC- 4 which are

A

Asthma
COPD
Croup
Cardiac tamponade

103
Q

Idiopathic intracranial HTN

  • who gets it
  • clinical features
  • what can be seen on neuro exam
  • what is the single drug can be given to cure it
A

overweight women of childbearing age
Sx: headache, transient vision loss, pulsatile tinnitus, diplopia
PE: Papilledema, peripheral visual field defect, CN 6 palsy
Diagnosis: MRI +/_ MRV
*** LP with high opening pressure

TX: stop offending meds, weight loss
+ acetazolamide

104
Q

2 medications that can trigger asthma

A

1) Aspirin

2) Non-selective beta blockers

105
Q

Treatment of choice for PBC

A

UDS

106
Q

Parietal lobe hemorrhage in setting of Alzheimer’s

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy(CAA)- mentioned in stroke lecture

  • # 1 cause of spontaneous lobar hemorrhage in >60 yo
  • beta amyloid deposition (associated with Alzheimers)
107
Q

which disease do you see chondrocalcinosis in?

A

Hemochromatosis

Pseudogout

108
Q

treatment of Idiopathic intracranial hypertension(IIH)

A

Acetazolamide

- inhibits choroid plexus carbonic anhydrase

109
Q

What is the main side effect of antithyroid drugs?

A

Agranulocytosis

Methimazole: 1st trimester teratogen
PTU: hepatic failure, ANCA vasculitis

110
Q

Nerve root compression by herniated disc

  • guy moving heavy boxes, feels a pop
    • straight leg raise
A

Lumbosacral radiculopathy (sciatica)

Tx: NSAIDs

111
Q

Nerve root compression by herniated disc

  • guy moving heavy boxes, feels a pop
    • straight leg raise

diagnosis and treatment

A

Lumbosacral radiculopathy (sciatica)

Tx: NSAIDs

112
Q

Guillan Barre Syndrome treatment

A

IVIG

113
Q

UMN/ pyramidal/ horticospinal tract disease

A

pronator drift u-world

114
Q

4 T’s score of HITT

A

Thrombocytopenia
Timing of platelet count fall
Thrombosis or other sequence
Other cause of thrombocytopenia

115
Q

Menier’s disease triad-SVT

A

Sensorineural hearing loss
Vertigo
Tinnitus

116
Q

Kernig’s sign

A

Patient is supine
Hip is flexed
Knee cannot be extended

117
Q

Brudzinski sign

A

Neck rigidity sign

When the neck is flexed
automatically the knees and thighs are brought together

118
Q

Treatment for glaucoma

A

Damage to the optic nerve
Intraocular pressure–> do an ocular tonometry

1) Timolol( beta-blocker eye drops)
2) Pilocarpine
3) Mannitol–> osmotic diuretic

119
Q

Neurological symptoms of vitamin b12 deficiency

A

1) weakness of extremities
2) Positional and vibrating sensations
3) Gait ataxia

–> all these three will result in subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord

120
Q

Polycystic kidney disease + bleeding in the brain think

A

Rupture of cerebral(berry) aneurysms cause it can cause SAH

121
Q
  1. 3 most common causative organisms of sore throat in adult male
  2. 4 other organisms you would consider
A

a. Group A streptococcus
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Fusobacterium necrophorum

a. Syphilis
b. HIV
c. Chlamydia/gonorrhoea
d. Mycoplasma tuberculosis and M. avium complex
e. A long list of weird and wonderful names

122
Q

4 must rule out condition in a child who is unwell

A

1) UTI
2) GERD
3) otitis media
4) Meningitis
5) Raised ICP

123
Q

Why vomiting in lithium?

A

Uremic symptoms–> vomiting

124
Q

Pink frothy sputum like cough

A

Pulmonary edema–> probably due to cardiogenic(L sided heart failure)

125
Q

Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children

A

Idiopathic nephrotic syndrome

126
Q

How long after C-section is VBAC indicated

A

18 months

127
Q

SSSS treatment- everything

A

IV antibiotics
Penicillinase-resistant penicillins are the drug of choice: nafcillin, oxacillin
In areas with high community-acquired MRSA prevalence (or in patients who do not respond to treatment): vancomycin

Supportive care
Fluid rehydration as indicated
Supportive skincare: emollients, covering denuded areas
NSAIDs as indicated for pain and fever

128
Q

Fat kid with joint problems get

A

SUFE

129
Q

The person with celiacs what do they need to be screened for

A

Osteoporosis

130
Q

Cullen’s and Grey Turner’s sign pathophysiology

A

Cullen’s – pancreatic enzymes tracked along falciform ligament and digested subcut tissues around umbilicus

Grey Turners – subcut tracking of inflammatory, peripancreatic exudate from pancreatic area of retroperitoneum.

131
Q

4 reasons for Cullen’s sign and grey turner’s sign

A

1) Ruptured AAA
2) acute pancreatitis
3) ruptured ectopic
4) bleeding from blunt abdominal trauma

132
Q

Why do you get ascites with pancreatitis?

A

Pancreatic ascites occurs when pancreatic secretions collect in the peritoneum as a result of a pancreatic duct injury

133
Q

Best time to operate when pregnant

A

2nd trimester if needed

like if there is cholecystitis

134
Q

Umbilical hernia

A

 Most children with an umbilical hernia require no intervention. As the baby is only 3 weeks old,
may expect to initially increase in size (does for the first few months) but & >90% close by 2 years.

 Manually reduce

 Can have surgery & >2 due to cosmetic reasons, also note increased incarceration risk as adult.

135
Q

4 causes of undescended testes

A

1) Idiopathic/unknown cause
2) Premature baby
3) Hormonal
4) environmental–> smoking and drug exposure

136
Q

Phimosis

  • cause
  • treatment
A

Balanitis – inflammation of the glans penis
–> Other
o Scar tissue in distal foreskin – preventing retraction (trying to forcibly retract)
o Congenital

Topical steroid creams 0.05% betamethasone cream  used twice daily for 2-4 weeeks
o Gently retract foreskin without causing discomfort – apply thick layer
 Soaking in warm bath – slowly retract
 Surgical
o Circumcision
o Dorsal slit

137
Q

*6 signs of SOL on examination- girl who is complaining of headaches

Aunty has brain tumor

A
Ophthalmoscope – papilledema
 Myosis – fixed dilated pupil
 Nystagmus
 Meningism
 Nuchal rigidity
 Weakness/changes in sensation
138
Q

4 key features of heart failure you would ask parents about

A

Failure to thrive
Short and frequent feeds
Diaphoresis
Increased respiratory effort

139
Q

4 features of heart failure in children

A
Vital signs
Dysmorphic features
Heart sounds--> S3/S4
hepatomegaly 
Odema
Femoral pulses
140
Q

Myelomeningocele- what formation
HAS

which protein can be increased prenatal

A

Hydrocephalus
Arnold Chiari II malformation–> cerebellum tonsillation through the foramen magnum
Scoliosis

141
Q

Celiac disease causes what kind of anaemia

A

Celiac disease can cause damage to the small intestine with iron, folate, and vitamin b12 are absorbed

142
Q

What supplements should be given for celiac disease

A

Gluten free diet

Folate and vitamin b12 supplements
iron
vitamin D and calcium as well

Celiac disease can cause damage to the small intestine with iron, folate, and vitamin b12 are absorbed

143
Q

3 types of therapies in lung cancer

A

Immunotherapy
Targeted therapy
Chemotherapy

144
Q

Aromatase inhibitor- the biggest side effect

A

Bone mineral density decrease

145
Q

What are the side effect of immunotherapy(lung cancer)

  • what is the treatment
  • what is the 2 biggest side effects we are worried about
A

High dose steroid or Infliximab

Colitis
Thyroid

146
Q
  1. CD10 phenotype
  2. Auer rods
  3. Philadelphia Chromosome
A

ALL

AML

CML

147
Q

Conn’s sydrome-what do you get

A

2/3 caused by aldosterone secreting adenoma. Hypertensive with low potassium

148
Q

GPMP and TCA

A

GP management plan- gives you 5 visit

review the GPMP in 6 months

149
Q

What is the MHTP

A

Mental health treatment plan

10 individual sessions

after 6 reviews with GP and then you get the next 4

150
Q

Macrovascular complication- ABC

microvascular complications

A

A- HbA1C
B-BP- 130/80
C- cholesterol

CVD, PVD and stroke-macro

Mirco–> eyes, kidney and feet

151
Q

Diabetic distress questionnaire is called what?

A

PAID tool or DDS2

diabetes distress screening scale

152
Q

What are the components of MMSE-

ORAL-CR

A
Orientation 
Registration
Attention 
Language 
Calculation 
Recall

Less than 24 is concerning

Less than 12- SEVERE dementia

153
Q

Digoxin MoA

-how does help in Atrial fibrillation

A

Digoxin binds to and inhibits the sodium/potassium-ATPase (sodium pump) within the plasma membrane of cardiac myocytes. This inhibition increases the intracellular sodium content which in turn increases the intracellular calcium content which leads to increased cardiac contractility–> IONOTROPE

AF–> increase vagal stimulation–> decrease in SA and AV node conduction–> helps in AF

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