AH1 Flashcards

1
Q

Red flags for pneumonia

A
RR>30 
systolic BP<90
O2 sats less than 92
acute onset of confusion 
Heart rate >100
Multilobar involvement of the chest
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2
Q

COPD-X

A
Confirm the diagnosis 
Optimise function 
prevent deterioration 
develop a plan of care
manage eXacerbations
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3
Q

What kind of rehabilitation is MUST with COPD

A

pulmonary rehabilitation- patient assessment, exercise training, education, behaviour change, nutritional intervention and psychosocial support

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4
Q

What co-morbid condition do we need to worry about in COPD

A

Osteoporosis- due to the medications and lack of activty and COPD presents in the elderly patient

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5
Q

Beck’s triad for cardiac tamponade

A

JVP distension
muffled heart sound
Hypotension

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6
Q

Carcinoid triad syndrome

A

Facial flushing
Diarrhea
Right-sided heart failure

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7
Q

Charcot’s triad of Multiple sclerosis

A

Nystagmus
Intention tremor
Scanning or staccato speech

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8
Q

Cushing’s triad for increased ICP

A

Hypertension(progressively increasing systolic pressure +/- widened pulse pressure)
Bradycardia
Irregular breathing

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9
Q

Mackler triad for Boerhaave syndrome

A

Rupture of the oesophagus during forceful emesis

  • vomiting
  • lower chest pain
  • subcutaneous emphysema
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10
Q

Which test for supraspinatus tendinopathy

A

Hawkins Kennedy test

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11
Q

What are the tests for a supraspinatus tear

A

Drop Arm test and empty can test

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12
Q

What is the test for dislocation or anterior shoulder instability

A

Apprehension and relocation test

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13
Q

walking on heel is done by L

A

L5

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14
Q

Walking on toes is done by

A

S1

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15
Q

Which drugs give steven-johnson syndrome

A

Ethosuximide, Carbamazepine and lamotrigine

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16
Q

All patients with suspected TIA should have stroke risk assessment, which may include the ABCD2 tool

A

age>60 years
BP-140/90
Clinica features- unilateral weakness(2 points), speech impairment without weakness(1 point)
Duration >60 minutes(2 points), 10-59 minutes(1 min)
Diabetes- 1 point

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17
Q

Which 3 organs are most likely to be damaged by emboli

A

Brain
Kidney
Spleen

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18
Q

3 complications of long-standing AF

A
  1. Acute left heart failure → pulmonary edema
  2. Thromboembolic events: stroke/TIA, renal infarct, splenic infarct, intestinal ischemia, acute limb ischemia
  3. Life-threatening ventricular tachycardia
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19
Q

What are 4 ECG characteristics of AF

A
  1. Irregularly irregular RR intervals
  2. P-waves are indiscernible
  3. Tachycardia
  4. Narrow QRS complex (< 0.12 seconds)
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20
Q

State some investigations for AF you would like to do and why

A
  1. Troponin levels: to rule out myocardial infarction
  2. D-dimer levels: if risk factors (e.g., DVT) or clinical features of pulmonary embolism are present
  3. Brain-natriuretic peptide (BNP): to rule out heart failure
    4.CBC: to identify anemia, infection
  4. TSH, fT4: to screen for hyperthyroidism
    6Serum electrolytes (Na+, K+, Mg2+, and Ca2+): to identify electrolyte imbalances
  5. BUN, serum creatinine: to identify chronic kidney disease
  6. Ethanol levels, digoxin levels and/or urine toxicology (e.g., cocaine, amphetamines)

ECHO for imaging

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21
Q

What are the general principles of treating AF(3)

A
  1. Correcting reversible causes and/or treatable conditions (e.g., hyperthyroidism, electrolyte imbalances)
  2. Controlling heart rate and/or rhythm
  3. Providing anticoagulation
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22
Q

Controlling heart rate in AF

  • what to do if they are stable
  • what to do if they are unstable
A

Unstable AF: emergent electrical cardioversion

Stable AF: rate control or rhythm control strategies to control AF and prevent long-term recurrence

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23
Q

What are the rate control methods for AF

A

Normally good for the ELDERLY patient

1st choice: beta blockers (esmolol, propanolol, metoprolol) OR nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (diltiazem, verapamil)

2nd choice: digoxin

3rd choice: amiodarone

If not working albative procedures

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24
Q

What is a prerequisite for cardioversion in a patient in AF

A

Anticoagulation

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25
Q

New-onset AF (< 48 hours) in patients with:
-Tell me what you would do for low risk
-for high-risk patient
and what’s your medication choices

A

Low thromboembolic risk (see CHA2DS2-VASc score below) → consider anticoagulation directly before or after cardioversion

High thromboembolic risk → start anticoagulation immediately before or after cardioversion

Anticoagulation options: IV heparin or LMWH, direct thrombin inhibitors (e.g., dabigatran), or factor Xa inhibitors (e.g., rivaroxaban, apixaban)

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26
Q

AF ≥ 48 hours in patients with:

-Stable vs unstable

A

Unstable AF (require urgent cardioversion): IV heparin or LMWH immediately before cardioversion followed by warfarin for up to 4 weeks after cardioversion

TEE to rule out atrial thrombi recommended if anticoagulation has not been administered at least 3 week prior to cardioversion

Stable AF (do not require urgent cardioversion): warfarin with bridging therapy for 3 weeks before and up to 4 weeks after cardioversion

Anticoagulation therapy should be considered in all patients who are about to undergo cardioversion.

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27
Q

Write down CHA2DS2-VASc score for

-Non-valvular AF- like what is the treatment, what are the indications for each of these treatments(medications)

A

Nonvalvular atrial fibrillation: The need for anticoagulation therapy is based on the CHA2DS2-VASc score
Score = 0: no anticoagulation
Score = 1: no anticoagulation OR treatment with oral anticoagulants

Score ≥ 2: oral anticoagulation with either warfarin or newer oral anticoagulants (dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban) - NOACs are avoided in patients with renal insufficiency

If warfarin is chosen then needed to monitor INR and has to be 2-3

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28
Q

Valvular AF and CHA2DS2-VASc score

A

Valvular atrial fibrillation: anticoagulation with warfarin is required regardless of the CHA2DS2-VASc score

The risk of stroke among patients with AF and mitral stenosis is 4 times greater than the risk of stroke with non-valvular stenosis.

A higher therapeutic range for INR of 2.5–3.5 is allowed. Dabigatran is not recommended among AF patients with a mechanical heart valve.

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29
Q

Acute management of AF

A

Mx dependant on Haemodynamic stability

  1. Haemodynamically unstable- Emergency electrical cardioversion
  2. Haemodynamically stable- Consider the risk of thromboembolism before cardioverting with either a drug or a direct current (DC) shock. Mx further dependent on duration of Afib (if in doubt mx as per >48 hours.
    - AFib lasting less than 48 hours –> low risk of acute thromboembolic complications–> Consider initial rate/rhythm control stratergy. If using rhythm control, ensure anticoagulation (LWMH) at the time of electrical cardioversion and continued long term depending on thromboembolic risk.
    - AFib lasting longer than 48 hours–> increased risk of developing a left atrial thrombus –> do not perform acute cardioversion unless left atrial thrombus has been excluded (using TOE, start anti-coag at time of cardioversion and continue for atleast 4 weeks), or the patient has had therapeutic anticoagulation for the previous 3 weeks. If not excluded/ no prior anti-coag- use rate control method.
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30
Q

Can I give antiplatelet therapy to reduce the risk of AF and reduce the risk of stroke from it

A

Recommendation: Antiplatelet therapy is not recommended for stroke prevention in Non-VAF patients, regardless of stroke risk.

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31
Q

1st choice drug for focal seizures

A

eTG states–> Carbamazepine(carbs are bad, that why you get rid of them first)

Lamotrigine–> cause he is a LAMO, that why he can only do focal control

and it causes SJS- cause its lame :P

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32
Q

1st choice of drug for generalized seizures

A

Valproate–> cause val means honour, they can do more

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33
Q

1st choice of drug for typical absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

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34
Q

What is Todd’s paralysis and when does it occur

A

Occurs in focal seziures/simple partial seizures

Todd’s paralysis: Postictal weakness or paralysis of the affected limb or facial muscles (for minutes or up to hours)

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35
Q

What is the difference between simple partial and complex seizures- focal seizures

A

Focal seizure with intact consciousness (simple partial seizures)

Focal seizure with impaired consciousness (complex partial seizures)

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36
Q

What is an aura in seizures

A

Can get it tonic-clonic seizures-prodromal

A class of symptoms present in ∼ 25% of patients with migraines. Characterized by paroxysmal, reversible, focal neurologic symptoms that typically precede migraine headaches and last up to one hour. Symptoms may be visual (e.g., flashing lights), motor (e.g., paresis), somatosensory (e.g., paresthesia), vestibular (e.g., dizziness), or vocal (e.g., aphasia).

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37
Q

What is Adam-stokes attack

A

A sudden loss of consciousness, usually without warning and lasting for a few seconds, due to an abnormal heart rhythm (especially complete atrioventricular block).

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38
Q

What is the important factoid that can differentiate seizure from syncope

A

Postictal disorientation is key to differentiating between seizures and syncope. Syncope may be accompanied by twitches; however, patients become completely reoriented after a few seconds!

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39
Q

What is the biggest complication with status epilepticus

A

Status epilepticus is a life‑threatening event! If not interrupted, it can lead to cerebral edema, a dangerous rise in body temperature, rhabdomyolysis, and cerebral cardiovascular failure!(death)

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40
Q

Traveller’s diarrhea

A

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)

May be exudative-inflammatory diarrhea or secretory diarrhea

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41
Q

Erythromycin

A

Erythromycin promotes emptying of the stomach, improving visibility during gastroscopy.

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42
Q

What are the 2 types of gastritis and what are the clinical features
-investigations

A

AMAG(Autoimmune destruction of the parietal cells)
Associated with major histocompatibility haplotypes HLA-B8 and HLA-DR3
Associated with other autoimmune diseases (e.g., autoimmune thyroiditis)

Autoantibodies against intrinsic factor → vitamin B12 deficiency → pernicious anemia

EMAG(Environmental metaplastic atrophic gastritis)
Helicobacter pylori infection (most important risk factor of atrophic gastritis overall) 
Dietary factors (e.g., N-nitroso compounds , alcohol intake, high salt intake)

Clinical features
Intensity of symptoms may be inconsistent and vary widely
Hematemesis (coffee-ground appearance or bright red in color), possibly melena
Epigastric pain is possible
Nausea, vomiting
Abdominal paresthesia and dyspepsia
IDA and Vitamin b12 deficiency

Ix
Vitamin B12 levels: decreased in AMAG
Serum gastrin levels: increased in AMAG
Serology : anti-intrinsic factor and anti-parietal cell antibodies

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43
Q

ALARMS symptoms of dyspepsia

A

ALARM Symptoms [mnemonic]

Anaemia (iron deficiency)
Loss of weight
Anorexia
Recent onset of progressive symptoms
Melaena/haematemesis
Swallowing difficulty

If dyspepsia and either >55yrs or ALARM Symptoms then ENDOSCOPY

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44
Q

What is the empirical therapy for GERD

A

If GERD is clinically suspected and there are no indications for endoscopy, empiric therapy – ranging from lifestyle modifications to a short trial with PPIs – should be initiated. A GERD diagnosis is assumed in patients who respond to this therapeutic regimen.

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45
Q

What are some side effects of PPIs

A

Clostridium difficile infection
pneumonia
decreased serum vitamin B12 concentration (long-term use >2 years)
chronic kidney disease
fracture (long-term use); for patients at risk of osteoporosis and taking PPIs long term (>1 year), consider daily calcium intake and vitamin D status

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46
Q

Vitamin B12 deficiency and neurological damage- what are they

A

Patients with vitamin B12 deficiency present with signs of symmetrical damage to large sensory fibres

  1. decreased vibration sense
  2. decreased proprioception
  3. paresthesias
  4. hyporeflexia
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47
Q

What are the 2 main functions of Vitamin b12/cobalamin

A
  1. An essential role in enzymatic reactions responsible for red blood cell (RBC) formation
  2. Proper myelination of the nervous system
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48
Q

What is the main cause of vitamin b12 deficiency and state some others causes

A

Pernicious anemia: most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency

Atrophic gastritis (e.g., secondary to H. pylori infection)
Gastrectomy
↓ Reduced uptake of IF-vitamin B12 complex in terminal ileum: e.g., Crohn’s disease, celiac disease, pancreatic insufficiency, surgical resection of the ileum

Other causes
Malnutrition: e.g., chronic alcoholism, anorexia nervosa, or strict vegan diets

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49
Q

What is the triad of condition to look out for if you have pernicious anaemia

A

Associated with other autoimmune diseases (e.g., hypothyroidism, vitiligo)

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50
Q

What is your ddx for polyneuropathies

A

Diabetic polyneuropathy- affects all kinds of nerve
Vitamin B12 deficiency-only large sensory fibres
Alcoholic polyneuropathy- Does not affect the autonomic fibers
Guillain-Barré syndrome
Exposure to lead, dapsone, amiodarone, or vincristine
Uremia
Vasculitis

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51
Q

Out of all the polyneuropathies, why does vitamin b12 have a positive Romberg’s test

A

Due to subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Only affects the Large sensory fibers.

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52
Q

Vanish DDT- Cerebellar signs in the neuro exam

A
vertigo
ataxia- during the gait, the patient will fall onto the side of the lesion 
nystagmus
intention tremor
staccato speech
hypotonia
dysmetria
dysdiadochokinesia
titubation.
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53
Q

Romberg’s test is a test of

A

proprioception

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54
Q

I say(Related to liver) you say

  • pANCA
  • anti-smooth antibodies
  • Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA)
A

PSC
Autoimmune hepatitis
PBC(affects women and women need a lot of energy-mitochondrial to do household and they are more introverted so they are only in the intrahepatic ducts)

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55
Q

What is the test used to check for albuminuria/proteinuria(mean the same thing cause the main protein peed out is albumin)

-what do you need to tell the patient

A

urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (urine ACR).

Need first void urine

If this is not possible, your doctor can still do the test on a sample of urine collected at any time during the day (called a spot random sample).

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56
Q

State the kidney function stage

A
1 ≥90 
2 60-89
3a 45-59
3b 30-44
4 15-29
5 <15 or on dialysis
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57
Q

State the albuminuria stages and what is the unit

A

Normal
(urine ACR mg/mmol)
Male: < 2.5
Female: < 3.5

Microalbuminuria
(urine ACR mg/mmol)
Male: < 2.5 -25
Female: < 3.5-35

Macroalbuminuria
(urine ACR mg/mmol)
Male: > 25
Female: > 35

24 hour urine collection – the “gold standard”

Most patients with CKD are morelikely to DIE from CVD than get kidney failure

Proteinuria is not just a disease marker,
it influences disease progression

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58
Q

Mnemonic for indications for dialysis: A-E-I-O-U

A
Acidosis
Electrolyte abnormalities (hyperkalemia)
Ingestion (of toxins)
Overload (fluid)
Uremic symptoms

Metabolic acidosis of pH < 7.1
Hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia
Toxic substances (e.g., lithium, toxic alcohols)
Refractory fluid overload
Signs of uremia, including pericarditis, encephalopathy, and asterixis on exam

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59
Q

Complications of Nephrotic Syndrome(5)

A
  • Edema
  • Malnutrition
  • Hypercoagulability
  • Hyperlipidemia
  • Increased risk of infection
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60
Q

What is included in the haemolytic screen

A

Common laboratory findings, such as elevated indirect bilirubin and lactate dehydrogenase, reticulocytosis, and decreased haptoglobin levels. The Coombs test helps to distinguish autoimmune (positive Coombs test) from non-autoimmune anemias (negative Coombs test).

Increased

  1. absolute reticulocyte count
  2. LDH (elevation is more pronounced in intravascular haemolysis)
  3. Indirect Bilirubin (i.e. unconjugated)
    - Plasma free haemoglobin (PFHb)

Decreased
5. Haptoglobin (intravascular haemolysis)

Urine
Haemoglobin
Haemosiderin (useful in the diagnosis of intravascular haemolysis)

Blood film- look at spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency

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61
Q

Native valve endocarditis-Triple therapy

A

Gentamycin IV
Benzylpenicillin IV
Fluclocaxillin IV(MSSA better)
if MRSA–> change flucloxacillin to Vancomycin IV

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62
Q

Prosthetic valve endocarditis-Triple therapy

A

Gentamycin IV
Benzylpenicillin IV
Vancomycin IV

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63
Q

DDX for angina-4

A
  1. Anaemia
  2. Aortic stenosis
  3. Thyrotoxicosis
  4. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
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64
Q

Which heart failure does not show improvement with drugs

A

HFpEF–> Diastolic heart failure

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65
Q

What are some causes of heart failure

A
  1. Coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction
  2. Arterial hypertension
  3. Valvular heart disease
  4. Diabetes mellitus (diabetic cardiomyopathy)
  5. Renal disease
  6. Infiltrative diseases (e.g., hemochromatosis, amyloidosis)
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66
Q

What are some clinical features for heart failure-5

A
SOB
Nocturia 
Fatigue
Tachycardia
Heart sounds--> S3/S4
Pulus alternans
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67
Q

What are the three main causes of heart failure

A

Hypertension
T2DM
CAD

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68
Q

Chronic compensated CHF definition

A

clinically compensated CHF; the patient has signs of CHF on echocardiography but is asymptomatic or symptomatic and stable

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69
Q

Acute decompensated CHF definition

A

Acute decompensated CHF: sudden deterioration of CHF or new onset of severe CHF due to an acute cardiac condition (e.g., myocardial infarction)

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70
Q

Why use CXR in heart failure

A

Useful diagnostic tool to evaluate a patient with dyspnea and differentiate CHF from pulmonary disease

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71
Q

State some lifestyle modification for heart failure patients

A

Salt restriction (< 3 g/day)
Fluid restriction in patients with edema and/or hyponatremia
Weight loss and exercise
Cessation of smoking and alcohol consumption
Immunization: pneumococcal vaccine and seasonal influenza vaccine

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72
Q

Contraindicated in acute decompensated heart failure!- which drug

A

Beta-blockers

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73
Q

Digoxin is contraindicated in HF when there is

A

Contraindicated in severe AV block

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74
Q

Which three drugs are contraindicated in HF

A
  1. NSAIDs
    Worsen renal perfusion
    Reduce the effect of diuretics
    May trigger acute cardiac decompensation
  2. Calcium channel blockers (verapamil and diltiazem): negative inotropic effect; worsen symptoms and prognosis
  3. Thiazolidinediones: promote the progression of CHF (↑ fluid retention and edema) and increase the hospitalization rate
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75
Q

4 ddx for pericarditis

A
  1. ACS
  2. Myocarditis
  3. PE
  4. Pericarditis fluid accumulation–> Beck’s triad–> muffled sounds, JVP distension and hypotension
76
Q

What are 2 invasive procedures for heart failure

A

Implantable cardiac defibrillator (ICD): prevents sudden cardiac death
Primary prophylaxis indications
CHF with EF < 35% and prior myocardial infarction/CHD
Increased risk of life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias
Secondary prophylaxis indications: the history of sudden cardiac arrest, ventricular flutter, or ventricular fibrillation

Cardiac resynchronization therapy (biventricular pacemaker): improves cardiac function
Indications: CHF with EF < 35%, dilated cardiomyopathy, and left bundle branch block
Can be combined with an ICD

Device Therapy

  • ICD (Internal cardac debrillator)

Primary pevention, EF < 30-25%
Secondary-Hx of sustained ventricular arrythmias or sudden cardiac death

  • Cardiac Resynchronization

Used in patients w/ a conduction delay, meaning ventricle contract at different times.
This foorces all walls of the heart to contract at the same time

  • QRS 140
  • EF < 35%
  • NYHA 11-1V
  • Optimal medical treatment
77
Q

What are some causes for Acute decompensated heart failure

A

Cardiac decompensation is the most common reason for hospital admissions and is the most important complication of congestive heart failure.

Exacerbation of congestive heart failure (e.g., through pneumonia, anemia, volume overload, medication noncompliance)
Acute myocardial infarction
Atrial fibrillation, severe bradycardia, and other arrhythmias
Myocarditis
Hypertensive crisis
Pulmonary embolism
Pericardial tamponade
Aortic dissection
Cardiotoxic substances
Renal failure
Cardiodepressant medication (e.g., beta blockers, CCBs)

78
Q

Management of ADHF can be remembered with “LMNOP”:

A

: L = Lasix (furosemide), M = Morphine, N = Nitrates, O= Oxygen, P = Position (with elevated upper body).

Hemodynamic stabilization: inotropes (e.g., dobutamine) in case of systolic dysfunction

79
Q

Benzo and delirium? What should we do?

A

Benzodiazepines are deliriogenic. Do not treat delirious patients with benzodiazepines unless the delirium is due to alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal, in which case haloperidol is contraindicated because it lowers the seizure threshold!

Alternative: atypical antipsychotics (e.g., olanzapine)

80
Q

What is the treatment for acute pericarditis and constrictive pericarditis

A

Often self-limiting and resolves within approximately 2-6 weeks–>

  1. treat the underlying cause
  2. Restricted physical activity
  3. NSAIDs + colchicine(alleviate symptoms, reduce the rate of recurrence)

Constrictive–> treat the underlying the cause, symptomatic therapy and pericardiectomy

Complications–>

1) constrictive pericarditis
2) cardiac tamponade

81
Q

Pink frothy sputum

A

Pulmonary edema

82
Q

Acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema

-what are the common symptoms

A
It is a medical emergency
dyspnea
cough
pink frothy sputum 
anxiety 
chest pain
83
Q

Acute pulmonary edema- CXR what do you see

A

ABCDE of heart failure

84
Q

Neuropathic arthropathy in T2D, another name is

A

Charcot joints

85
Q

What are the common findings on Ix shared by haemolysis

A

elevated indirect bilirubin and lactate dehydrogenase, reticulocytosis, and decreased haptoglobin levels.

86
Q

What is Coomb’s test used to detect

A
The autoimmune (positive Coombs test)
 Non-autoimmune anemias (negative Coombs test).
87
Q

What is the difference between intravascular and extravascular haemolysis

A

intra-vascular haemolysis occurs inside the blood vessels

extra-vascular haemolysis occurs in other parts of the body (e.g. spleen)

causes may overlap and haemoglobin from extravascular haemolysis may still enter the circulation

88
Q

What are some causes of cold autoimmune haemolysis

A

Etiology: mostly IgM antibodies (bound to erythrocytes) that can cause both intravascular and extravascular hemolysis

Primary
Idiopathic (esp. in the elderly)

Secondary
Mycoplasma or EBV infection
Malignancy (e.g. non-Hodgkin lymphoma, chronic lymphocytic leukemia)

89
Q

Heinz bodies

A

oxidative stress in G6PD deficiency
liver disease
thalassemia
splenectomy

90
Q

2 surgical procedures for hernia repair

A

Open vs lap

Surgical mesh repair (hernioplasty)
Surgical hernia repair (herniorrhaphy)

91
Q

What is Courvoisier sign

A

Enlarged gallbladder and painless jaundice

Painless jaundice (a nontender gallbladder) is the most common initial symptom of pancreatic cancer but usually doesn’t occur when the primary tumor is located in the tail or body of the pancreas.

This will only happen if its the head

92
Q

What is the main cause of HCC

State some other causes of HCC

A

Liver cirrhosis

Chronic hepatitis B or C virus infection 
Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) 
Hemochromatosis
Wilson's disease
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
Alfatoxins
93
Q

HCC blood test is

A

AFP

94
Q

Mirizzi syndrome

A

Gallstones in the cystic duct or Hartmann pouch of the gallbladder obstruct the common hepatic duct or common bile duct.

Symptoms resemble those of choledocholithiasis.
Can also lead to cholecystocholedochal fistula

95
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia

A

Receptive problem/cannot understand words others are saying, hence its alot WORK(W for W–> Wernicke’s)

Receptive

Inability to understand words(alot of words)

Can speak fine, but does not respond properly to questioned being asked

96
Q

Broca’s aphasia

A

Non-fluent aphasia
Expressive aphasia

Cannot find words

BEE are unable to say

97
Q

DKA in adults- what should the ketones been

A

0.6 -1.5 - moderate risk of DKA

greater than 1.5 definitely suspicious of DKA-High risk

98
Q

Criteria for DKA in adults

A

DKA = pH<7.35
HCO3<15
and mAG and ketones>1.
BGL may be normal or elevated–> CAN BE NORMAL

99
Q

Which patients are a higher risk of cerebral oedema in DKA

A

Young patients

100
Q

Cerebral oedema, what actions must be taken

A

How to take action:
• Monitoring for signs of cerebral oedema should start
from the time of admission and continue up to at least
24 hours after admission
• If there is suspicion of cerebral oedema or the patient
is not improving within 4 hours of admission, call the
consultant
• Undertake CT scan to confi rm fi ndings
• Consider ICU (an indication for checking arterial blood
gases)
• Consider IV mannitol (100mL of 20% over 20 minutes)
or dexamethasone 8mg (b

101
Q

What is the Osmolality calculation

A

Osmolality = 2 x (serum sodium + serum potassium) + glucose + urea

102
Q

What is the screening, diagnostic test and monitoring celiac disease(according to eTG)

A

Screening-

IgA (anti‑)tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTG), IgG anti-deamidated gliadin antibody, also always do total IgA because of potentially associated IgA deficiency.

Diagnosis- Duodenal biopsy- showing intra epithelial lymphocytes and villis blunting/atrophy

Monitoring- Repeat anti-body testing, can take 12 months for Ab levels to normalise, intestinal healing can take up to two years, therefore, repeat duodenal biopsy should now be performed following at least 12 months of gluten-free diet

103
Q

What are some clinical consequences of decompensated cirrhosis

A
Portal hypertension
Ascites
Hepatic encephalopathy
Coagulopathy
Hepatorenal syndrome
104
Q

Features of cardiac hemochromatosis

A

1) Cardiomyopathy (restrictive or dilated)
2) Cardiac arrhythmias: paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (most common), sinus node dysfunction, complete AV block, atrial and ventricular tachyarrythmias, and sudden cardiac death
3) Congestive heart failure

In combination with diabetes mellitus, bronze-coloured skin pigmentation is also referred to as “bronze diabetes.”

105
Q

Cerebral ring enhancing lesions (mnemonic)

DR MAGIC

A

M: metastasis
A: abscess
G: glioblastoma
I: infarct (subacute phase), inflammatory - neurocysticercosis (NCC), tuberculoma
C: contusion
D: demyelinating disease (the classically incomplete rim of enhancement)
R: radiation necrosis or resolving hematoma

106
Q

What are the common causes-3 of cirrhosis

A

Alcoholic liver disease, Hepatitis C, and NASH are the most common causes of cirrhosis

107
Q

List out of conditions which can cause cirrhosis

A

Hepatotoxicity
Long-standing alcohol abuse (one of the two most common causes of chronic liver disease in the USA)
acetaminophen
Ingesting aflatoxin created by Aspergillus

Inflammation
(Chronic) viral hepatitis B, C, and D ; Chronic hepatitis C is now the most common cause of cirrhosis in the US
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Autoimmune hepatitis
Metabolic disorders
Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis
Hemochromatosis
Wilson's disease
Alpha‑1 antitrypsin deficiency
Hepatic vein congestion or vascular anomalies
Budd-Chiari syndrome
108
Q

What classification is used for cirrhosis severity classification

A

Child-Pugh score

109
Q

What is the treatment for ascites(eTG)

A

1st Spironolactone, add frusemide if spironolactone alone is inadequate

Spironolactone and furosemide to manage ascites and edema in patients with hypoalbuminemia

110
Q

What are intervention procedures that can be done for cirrhosis

A

TIPS (transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt) to lower portal pressure
Surgery: A liver transplant is the only curative option in advanced liver disease.

111
Q

List out some complications of cirrhosis

A
Portal hypertension
Hepatic encephalopathy
Hepatorenal syndrome
Portal vein thrombosis
Pulmonary complications of portal hypertension
112
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy

-clinical manifestation

A

Hepatic encephalopathy (HE) is defined as fluctuations in mental status and cognitive function in the presence of severe liver disease.

  • Disturbances of consciousness, ranging from mild confusion to coma
  • Multiple neurological and psychiatric disturbances like:
    1) Asterixis
    2) Memory loss
    3) Disoriented, socially aberrant behaviour
    4) Muscle rigidity

Elevated ammonia

113
Q

Treatment of encephalopathy

A

Lactulose: synthetic disaccharide laxative

First-line treatment for HE

114
Q

What is the treatment of choice for diabetes inspidius(centra)

A

Desmopressin, a synthetic ADH analog, is the treatment of choice in central DI.

115
Q

Which form of diabetes inspidius is more common

A

Central

nephrogenic is rare

116
Q

DI- what test can confirm it

A

Water deprivation test

117
Q

Which drugs cause hyperprolactinemia

A

Dopamine antagonists:
Antiemetics: metoclopramide
Antipsychotics (e.g., haloperidol, risperidone)

118
Q

What are 2 causes of physiological hyperprolactinemia

A

Pregnancy and lactation

119
Q

What chemical in the brain inhibit prolactin

A

Dopamine

120
Q

What is the treatment of choice for hyperprolactinemia

A

Dopamine agonists (treatment of choice): bromocriptine, cabergoline

121
Q

“CUSHINGOID” is the acronym for side effects of corticosteroids:

A
C = Cataracts
U = Ulcers
S = Striae/Skin thinning
H = Hypertension/Hirsutism/Hyperglycemia
I = Infections
N = Necrosis (of femoral head)
G = Glucose elevation
O = Osteoporosis/Obesity
I = Immunosuppression
D = Depression/Diabetes
122
Q

State cause clinical features of Cushing’s syndrome

A
Skin
Thin, easily bruisable skin with stretch marks (classically purple abdominal striae) and/or ecchymoses
Flushing of the face
Hirsutism
Acne

Neuropsychological: lethargy, depression, sleep disturbance, psychosis

Musculoskeletal
Osteopenia; osteoporosis; pathological fractures; avascular necrosis of the femoral head
Muscle atrophy/weakness

123
Q

What is the most common clinical feature seen by Cushing’s syndrome

A

Secondary hypertension

124
Q

Which hormone is high in Cushing’s

A

Cortisol

125
Q

Conn syndrome is

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism

It is typically due to adrenal hyperplasia or adrenal adenoma.

126
Q

What is the most common clinical feature of Conn syndrome

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism is one of the common causes of secondary hypertension.

Drug treatment HTN

127
Q

What is the confirmatory test and best initial test for phaeochromocytoma

A

Best initial test: metanephrines in plasma (high sensitivity)
Confirmatory test: metanephrines and catecholamines in 24-hour urine(high specificity)

128
Q

CAH one disease or many

A

Many

All forms of CAH are characterized by low levels of cortisol, high levels of ACTH, and adrenal hyperplasia.

129
Q

What is the most common cause of CAH and what do you see in those kinds of patients

A

The most common form of CAH, which is caused by a deficiency of 21β-hydroxylase, presents with

1) hypotension
2) ambiguous genitalia
3) and virilization (in the female genotype)
4) and/or precocious puberty (in both males and females

130
Q

What is Addison’s disease

A

Primary adrenal insufficiency

131
Q

What is the difference between secondary and tertiary Addison’s disease

A

Secondary adrenal insufficiency is the result of decreased production of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) and tertiary adrenal insufficiency is the result of decreased production of CRH (corticotropin-releasing hormone) by the hypothalamus.

132
Q

What is adrenal haemorrhage

A

Waterhouse‑Friderichsen syndrome

133
Q

The most common cause of Addison’s disease is

A

Autoimmune adrenalitis

134
Q

Out of the 1,2,3 adrenal insufficiency

A

Secondary and tertiary adrenal insufficiency are far more common than primary adrenal insufficiency!

135
Q

Primary adrenal insufficiency Pigments the skin. Secondary adrenal insufficiency Spares the skin. Tertiary adrenal insufficiency is due to Treatment (cortisol).

A

PP
SS
TT
Just a mnemonic-know it I guess

136
Q

What are the electrolyte disturbances in Addison’s disease

A

Hyponatremia
Hyperkalemia
Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
Hypoglycemia

137
Q

Blood test for Addison’s

A

Morning serum cortisol

ACTH stimulation test

138
Q

Treatment for adrenal insufficiency

A

Glucocorticoid replacement therapy with hydrocortisone is required in all forms of adrenal insufficiency!

139
Q

Adrenal crisis

  • causes
  • clinical features
A

1) Stress (e.g., infection, trauma, surgery) in a patient with underlying adrenal insufficiency
2) Sudden discontinuation of glucocorticoids after prolonged glucocorticoid therapy

clinical features

1) Hypotension, shock
2) Impaired consciousness
3) Fever
4) Vomiting, diarrhea
5) Severe abdominal pain (which resembles peritonitis)
6) Hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis

140
Q

The 5 S’s of adrenal crisis treatment are

A

Salt: 0.9% saline, Sugar: 50% dextrose, Steroids: 100 mg hydrocortisone IV every 8 hours, Support: normal saline to correct hypotension and electrolyte abnormalities, Search for the underlying disorder

Adrenal crisis can be life-threatening. Therefore, treatment with high doses of hydrocortisone should be started immediately without waiting for diagnostic confirmation of hypocortisolism!

141
Q

Which hyperglycemia state/emergency will present with more volume depletion

A

HHS

HHS patients, in contrast to those with DKA, will present with more extreme volume depletion

142
Q

What are 3 clinical features in DKA you don’t see in HHS

Signs and symptoms specific to DK

A

1) Rapid onset (< 24 h) in contrast to HHS
2) Abdominal pain
3) Fruity odour on the breath; from exhaled acetone
4) Hyperventilation: Kussmaul respirations: deep breaths at a normal respiratory rate

DKA is quite insidious however HHS is developed over days

143
Q

Why is there hypovolemia in DKA

A

Insulin deficiency → hyperglycemia → hyperosmolality → osmotic diuresis and loss of electrolytes → hypovolemia

144
Q

DKA criteria in eTG

A

DKA - eTg

  1. ph <7.3
  2. Serum bicarbonate <15 mmol/l
  3. Aniom gap >12 mmol/l
  4. Elevated blood ketone/positive urine ketone
  5. Blood glucose > 14 mmol/l/ Can be normal too
145
Q

Treatment of DKA

A

Treat DKA with normal saline and regular insulin.

Fluid replacement (and regular monitoring of volume status)
Isotonic saline solution (0.9% sodium chloride)
Insulin (and hourly serum glucose monitoring until stable)
low-dose insulin therapy with IV regular insulin

146
Q

What is the treatment of HHS

A

HSS Managment eTg
1. Aggressive fluid replacement with 0.9% sodium chloride- Isotonic saline

  1. Insulin only if BSL stops dropping after fluid replacement(if hyperglycemia is still NOT settled down, then you give Insulin)
  2. Potassium replacement is independent of patient circumstance
  3. HSS patients are at a very high risk of arterial and venous thrombosis, therefore use anti-coagulant prophylaxis.
147
Q

What prophylaxis needs to be given in HHS patients

A

HSS patients are at a very high risk of arterial and venous thrombosis, therefore use anti-coagulant prophylaxis.

148
Q

State 2 complications of hyperglycemia emergencies

A

Cerebral edema and cardiac arrhythmias

149
Q

Which two complications of hypothyroidism are fatal

A

Myxedema coma and myxedematous heart disease

150
Q

State 2 common drugs that cause hypothyroidism as a side effect

A

Lithium and amiodarone

151
Q

The most common cause of hypothyroidism in iodine-rich nation

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

152
Q

Abnormal menstrual cycle (esp. secondary amenorrhea or menorrhagia)

–> why in hypothyroidism and state similar symptoms because of this cause

A

Hyperprolactinemia: prolactin production is stimulated by TRH → increased prolactin suppresses LH, FSH, GnRH, and testosterone secretion; also stimulates breast tissue growth

Symptoms of hyperprolactinemia–>
Abnormal menstrual cycle (esp. secondary amenorrhea or menorrhagia)
Galactorrhea
Decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, delayed ejaculation, and infertility in men

153
Q

Which thyroiditis painful

A

Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (De Quervain)

154
Q

DDx for hypothyroidism

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis
Postpartum thyroiditis
Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (De Quervain) Congenital hypothyroidism
Riedel thyroiditis

155
Q

Which antibodies are detected against autoimmune hypothyroidism

A

Tg Ab (thyroglobulin) and TPO Ab (thyroid peroxidase): detectable in most patients with autoimmune hypothyroidism

156
Q

Tell me a obstetric cause of hyperthyroidism

A

Gestational trophoblastic disease(GTD)

β-hCG-mediated hyperthyroidism (hydatidiform mole, choriocarcinoma)

High levels of beta-HCG mimic thyroid hormone so yeah

157
Q

DDX for hyperthyroidism

A

Neuropsychiatric symptoms: anxiety/panic disorders
Hyperadrenergic symptoms: intoxication with anticholinergics; cocaine/amphetamine abuse; withdrawal syndromes
Weight loss: diabetes mellitus, malignancy
Cardiac symptoms: congestive cardiac failure

Graves disease
Toxic multinodular goitre
Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (de Quervain thyroiditis)
Subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis (silent thyroiditis)
Iodine-induced hyperthyroidism
Exogenous hyperthyroidism or factitious hyperthyroidism

158
Q

Symptomatic therapy of thyrotoxicosis

A

Beta-blockers provide immediate control of symptoms.

159
Q

There are currently three effective initial treatment options for Graves disease

A

Antithyroid drugs
Radioactive iodine ablation
surgery.

160
Q

Hyperthyroidism-pre-op consultation what is an important thing to state

and then post-op

A

Antithyroid drugs and beta-blockers are given preoperatively for at least 4–8 weeks–> To reduce the intraoperative risk of thyroid storm

Postprocedural care
Management of calcium levels: measurement of serum calcium and intact parathyroid hormone levels
Weaning of beta-blockers

161
Q

How to prevent thyroid storm prior to surgery

A

Pretreatment with beta-blockers, antithyroid drugs, and potassium iodide has drastically decreased the incidence of thyroid storm in patients undergoing surgery.

162
Q

Hyperthyroidism in pregnancy

-pathophysiology

A

Hyperthyroidism is rare in pregnancy (< 0.5% of cases).
Etiology: Graves disease and β-hCG-mediated hyperthyroidism are the most common causes.
β-hCG molecule has a similar structure to that of the TSH molecule.
β-hCG binds to TSH receptors of the thyroid gland → thyroid stimulation → hyperthyroidism

163
Q

If hyperthyroidism during pregnancy, what should you suspect

A

Suspect a molar pregnancy or choriocarcinoma if severe hyperthyroidism manifests during pregnancy!

164
Q

TSH receptor antibodies (TRAb) present

A

Graves disease

165
Q

Thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPOAb) present in

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

166
Q

Thyroglobulin antibodies (TgAb)

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

167
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism-clinical features-there is a mnemonic

A

“Stones, bones, abdominal groans, thrones, and psychiatric overtones!”

stones-Nephrolithiasis, nephrocalcinosis
bones-Bone, muscle, and joint pain
abdominal groans–> gastric ulcers
thrones- constipation
psychiatric overtones-depression, fatigue, anxiety, sleep disorders

168
Q

The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism

A

Postoperative: (most common cause of hypoparathyroidism in adults): secondary to thyroidectomy, parathyroidectomy, or radical neck dissection

second-most common-autoimmune

169
Q

Chvostek sign

A

hypocalcemia → hyperexcitable nerves → tapping the facial nerve on the cheek → contraction of facial muscles

170
Q

Trousseau sign

A

inflate BP cuff → allow for occlusion of brachial artery for a few minutes → carpal spasm

171
Q

MEN 1: 3 “P”s

A

Parathyroid, Pancreas, Pituitary gland

172
Q

MEN 2A: 1 “M”, 2 “P”s

A

Medullary thyroid carcinoma, Pheochromocytoma, Parathyroid

173
Q

MEN 2B: 2 “M”s, 1 “P”

A

Medullary thyroid carcinoma, Marfanoid habitus/Multiple neuromas, Pheochromocytoma

174
Q

DUMBBELLS

A

Used for cholinergic overdose

Diarrhoea.
Urination.
Miosis/muscle weakness.
Bronchorrhea.
Bradycardia.
Emesis.
Lacrimation.
Salivation/sweating.
175
Q

Anticholinergic mnemonic

A

Blind as a bat (mydriasis)
mad as a hatter (delirium)
red as a beet (flushing)
hot as a hare (hyperthermia)
dry as a bone (decreased secretions and dry skin)
the bowel and bladder lose their tone (urinary retention and paralytic ileus)
and the heart runs alone (tachycardia).”

176
Q

Triad of septic arthritis

A

The classical triad of fever, joint pain, and restricted range of motion

177
Q

Gonococcal arthritis

A

Gonococcal arthritis is the most common form of arthritis in sexually active young adults! In a young, sexually active adult presenting with classic symptoms of septic arthritis, the gonococcal infection must be ruled out!

178
Q

Further management for arthritis

A

Tailor antibiotics to gram stain, culture and susceptibility results when available (see table below)
Continue antibiotic therapy at least ≥ 2 weeks
Continue serial drainage as needed
Immobilization + NSAIDs for pain relief and to reduce inflammation
Follow-up: Physiotherapy should be initiated early to prevent contracture of both the joint and its capsule

179
Q

Most common complaint of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

Upper respiratory manifestations (i.e., purulent, sometimes bloody discharge; chronic nasopharyngeal infections; saddle nose deformity) are the most common chief complaints!

180
Q

Triad for Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

GPA triad: necrotizing vasculitis of small arteries, upper/lower respiratory tract manifestations, and glomerulonephritis!

181
Q

Define shock

What are the types of shock

A

Shock is a life-threatening circulatory disorder that leads to tissue hypoxia and a disturbance in microcirculation.

The causes for inadequate organ perfusion may differ, but they all ultimately result in tissue hypoxia:
Loss of intravascular fluid → hypovolemic shock
Inability of the heart to circulate blood → cardiogenic shock
Redistribution of body fluid → distributive shock

182
Q

Haemorrhagic shock is a

-what is it divided into

A

Hypovolemic shock

Hemorrhagic fluid loss and non-Hemorrhagic fluid loss

183
Q

Cardiogenic shock is divided into

A

Non-obstructive cardiogenic shock

Obstructive cardiogenic shock

184
Q

Cardiogenic shock with pulmonary edema, should you administer fluids for resus

A

Unlike other causes of shock the administration of intravenous fluids in most cases of cardiogenic shock would worsen cardiogenic pulmonary edema!

185
Q

Types of distributive shock

A

Septic shock (most common)
Neurogenic shock
Anaphylactic shock