Paeds Flashcards

1
Q

Mid-parental height

A

Girls:Mother+(father-13)/2 –> girls have to shorter than father

Boys: (Mother+13)+father/2

Biological mid parental height rang- +/- 7.5-8

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2
Q

Gastro- how long vomiting and how long diarrhea

A

Vomiting usually settles within a couple of days but diarrhoea can last up to 10 days.

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3
Q

Fluid bolus- Should we count that in our fluids equation

A

No you should not

Degree of dehydration (deficit)
plus
Maintenance fluid requirements
plus
Ongoing losses
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4
Q

Replacement of deficits- should be done fast in which kids and slow in which kids

A

Replacement may be rapid in most cases of gastroenteritis (best achieved by oral or nasogastric fluids), but should be slower in diabetic ketoacidosis and meningitis, and much slower in states of hypernatraemia (aim to rehydrate over 48 hours, the serum sodium should not fall by >1mmol/litre/hour).

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5
Q

What is the cause of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A

Lung surfactant deficiency disorder

is a lung disorder in infants that is caused by a deficiency of pulmonary surfactant.

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6
Q

Transient tachypnea of the newborn (wet lung disease)

  • can be made better
  • who gets it
  • treatment
A

Reversible respiratory disorder

Most commonly occurs in full-term neonates delivered by cesarean section. These infants often have fluid-filled lungs.

supportive care (e.g., supplemental oxygen, neutral thermal environment, adequate nutrition)

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7
Q

DDX for neonatal distress

A

1) Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome(NRDS)
2) TTPN
3) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
4) Pneumothorax
5) Meconium aspiration syndrome
6) Neonatal pneumonia

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8
Q

What is bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

chronic lung disease primarily found in premature infants exposed to prolonged mechanical ventilation and oxygen therapy for neonatal RDS

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9
Q

What is the cut off for corticosteroid administration is a fetus

A

35 weeks

Surfactant production occurs early, at around 20 weeks’ gestation. However, its distribution throughout the lungs begins around weeks 28–32 and does not reach sufficient concentration until week 35. Thus, any infant born before term is vulnerable to surfactant deficiency.

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10
Q

Failure to thrive kid who started losing weight just after introducing into solid food would be

A

Celiac disease until proven otherwise

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11
Q

What are some gastrointestinal symptoms of celiac disease

A
Chronic or recurring diarrhea
steatorrhea
Flatulence, abdominal bloating, and pain
Nausea/vomiting
Lack of appetite
Constipation (rarely)
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12
Q

What are some extraintestinal symptoms and associations with celiac disease

A

Malabsorption symptoms: fatigue, weight loss, vitamin deficiency, iron deficiency anemia, osteoporosis, hypocalcemia

In children: failure to thrive, growth failure, delayed puberty

Dermatologic associations: dermatitis herpetiformis

Neuropsychiatric symptoms: peripheral neuropathies (numbness, burning and tingling of the hands and feet) , headache, ataxia, depression, irritability

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13
Q

What are the screening test for celiacs and what other immunological tests should be done

A

Gold standard: IgA (anti‑)tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTG)

Quantitative IgA test: In the case of an IgA deficiency, patients are tested for IgG-based antibodies.

IgG deamidated gliadin peptide (DGP) indications: year less than 2 it is better

Anti-endomysial antibody (EMA)

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14
Q

What is the confirmatory and diagnostic test for celiac

A

Duodenal biopsy

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15
Q

State 3 characteristics of the duodenal biopsy in a patient with celiac disease

A

Villous atrophy
Crypt hyperplasia
Intraepithelial lymphocytic infiltration

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16
Q

What are the

1) screening test
2) diagnostic test
3) Follow up

A

Other blood: Folate, iron. Decreased with the involvement of duodenum

Screening-

IgA (anti‑)tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTG), IgG anti-deamidated gliadin antibody, also always do total IgA because of potentially associated IgA deficiency.

Diagnosis- Duodenal biopsy- showing intraepithelial lymphocytes and villis blunting/atrophy

Monitoring- Repeat anti-body testing, can take 12 months for Ab levels to normalise, intestinal healing can take up to two years, therefore, repeat duodenal biopsy should now be performed following at least 12 months of gluten-free diet

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17
Q

Celiac disease
-Acute management(follow up)-within 6 weeks

-Long-term management

A

1) Join celiac organization
2) Visiting a dieticians
3) Family screening
4) Bone density scan
5) Screening for other genetically associated conditions

After 6 months
1) repeat coeliac serology blood tests

after 12 months

1) repeat blood
2) Duodenal biopsy

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18
Q

Red Flags of failure of thrive(FTT)

A

1) Signs of abuse or neglect
2) Poor carer understanding e.g. non-English speaking, intellectual disability
3) Signs of family vulnerability e.g. drug and alcohol abuse, domestic violence, social isolation, no family support
4) Signs of poor attachment
5) Parental mental health issues
6) Already/previously case managed by child protection services
7) Did not attend or cancelled previous appointment/s
8) Signs of dehydration
9) Signs of malnutrition or significant illness

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19
Q

What are the 5 causes of poor growth

A

1) Inadequate caloric intake/retention
2) Psychosocial factors
3) Inadequate absorption
4) Excessive caloric utilization
5) Other Medical Causes

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20
Q

What are the inadequate absorption causes of FTT we should think about-3

A

Coeliac disease

1) Chronic liver disease
2) Pancreatic insufficiency eg. Cystic fibrosis
3) Chronic diarrhoea
4) Cow milk protein intolerance

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21
Q

correct for prematurity (<37 weeks) until how long

How do you do it

A

until 24 months of age

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22
Q

Down syndrome features

A

Face: round face, flat nasal bridge, up slanted palpebral fissures and protruding tongue

Flat occiput

Hand- single palmar(siamese crease), clindodactyl

Foot–> wide “sandal” gap between 1st and 2nd toe

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23
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome diagnostic criteria

-what are the three sentinel features of the face

A

Prenatal alcohol exposure

Face: 3 sentinel features:

1) Smooth philtrum
2) Thin upper lip
3) Short palpebral fissure

Impairment in neurodevelopment: cognition, attention, memory and coordination

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24
Q

Predn dose for asthma

A

1mg/kg for asthma

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25
Q

Failure to thrive question for psychological issues

A

Has it ever been hard to take care of your child recent?

any financial problems? issues at home? your feel like not bonding with the baby as you use to?

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26
Q

Febrile seizures new guidelines for simple

A

<10 minutes is a simple febrile seizure

6 months-5 years

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27
Q

Burst therapy

A

3 doses in 1 hour

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28
Q

3 most sensitive parameters for dehydration-CRT

A

C-CRT
R-RR
T-tissue turgor

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29
Q

Fluid deficit equation that is the fluid loss for the whole day

A

Dehydration % x weight in kg x 10

Need to divide this by 24hr

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30
Q

How is trial of fluids in ED include

A

Aim for 10-20 mls/kg fluid over 1 hour of ORS

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31
Q

What fluid for bolus
maintenance
DKA

A

Bolus: 0.9% normal saline

Maintenace- 0.9% normal saline+ dextrose 5%

0.9% sodium chloride +/- potassium

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32
Q

The definite initial episode of ARF

A

2 major
OR
1 major and 2 minor manifestations

plus evidence of a preceding GAS infection

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33
Q

The definite recurrent episode of ARF in a patient with known
past ARF or RHD

A

2 major or
1 major and 1 minor or
3 minor manifestations

plus evidence of a preceding GAS infection

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34
Q

Major criteria in ARF in the high-risk group

A

1) Carditis (INCLUDING subclinical evidence of rheumatic valvulitis on echocardiogram)
2) Polyarthritis†† or aseptic mono-arthritis or polyarthralgia
3) Chorea
4) Erythema marginatum¶
5 )Subcutaneous nodules

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35
Q

Minor criteria in ARF in the high-risk group

A

1) Monoarthralgia
2) Fever‡‡
3) ESR ≥30 mm/h or CRP ≥30 mg/L
4) Prolonged P-R interval on ECG§§

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36
Q

Major criteria in ARF in all other groups

A

1) Carditis (EXCLUIDNG subclinical evidence of rheumatic valvulitis on echocardiogram)
2) Polyarthritis††
3) Chorea
4) Erythema marginatum
5) Subcutaneous nodule

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37
Q

Minor criteria in ARF in all other groups

A

Fever

Polyarthralgia or aseptic monoarthritis

ESR ≥30 mm/h or CRP ≥30 mg/L

Prolonged P-R interval on ECG

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38
Q

Mnemic for ARF/RHD- JONES and CAFE PAL

A

Look at google image

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39
Q

Recommended antibiotic regimens for secondary prevention

A

BPG, benzathine penicillin G; im, intramuscular.

4 weekly, or 3 weekly for selected groups

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40
Q

Innocent Murmurs

Hallmarks: 7’s inoSSents

A
  1. Soft
  2. S1 and S2 Normal (Heart sounds normal)
  3. Symptomless
  4. Systolic
  5. Short
  6. Standing / sitting may vary (change with posture) 7. Special Tests Normal (ECG/CXR/ECHO normal)

…also commonly Left sternal edge ( no radiation)

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41
Q

Acyanotic murmurs

A

VSD > PDA > ASD

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42
Q

Most Common CHD

A

VSD

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43
Q

Continuous Machinery murmur

-treatment

A

PDA

  • Indomethecin to close the PDA
  • Prostaglandin E keeps PDA open (for TGA’s)
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44
Q

TOF- 4 features

CXR shows

A

Pulmonary stenosis (causing Large VSD),
Right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH). Overriding aorta.
VSD
Ejection systolic murmur – left the sternal edge

CXR – the boot-shaped heart. ECHO (increased right
ventricular size).

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45
Q

Down syndrome children are increased risk of-3

A
Increased risk of:
–  Duodenal Atresia
–  Squint
–  Hypothyroidism
–  Leukaemia
–  Hirschprung’s disease –  Deafness
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46
Q

Kawasaki disease affects which vessel

A

Small and medium

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47
Q

Causes of stridor

A
  • Croup,
  • Epiglottitis,
  • Anaphylaxis,
  • Laryngomalacia,
  • Foreign body inhalation
  • Bacterial tracheitis,
  • Smoke inhalation
  • Obstructive Malignancy.
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48
Q

4D of epiglottitis

-treatment

A

Dysphagia
Dysphonia(hot potato voice)
Distress
Drooling

IV Antibiotics
Empiric therapy: third-generation cephalosporin

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49
Q

Outline the management of asthma

  • in mild
  • moderate
  • severe

asthmatic patient

A

Look at Queensland children hospital guideline

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50
Q

Risk factors for severe asthma- what kind of questions would you ask

A

1) previous admissions to ICU
2) Past Hx of anaphylaxis
3) Multiple episodes

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51
Q

When can child roll over

A

3-6 months

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52
Q

What are the development facets we are looking at

A
Gross motor skills
Fine motor skills
Language skills
Social development and cognition
Vision and hearing
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53
Q

2 core features in the ASD criteria and give examples

A

Persistent impairment in communication and social interaction (inability to form relationships, abnormal language development, reduced empathy, difficulties in adjusting behaviour to social situations, and poor eye contact)

Restricted, stereotyped patterns of behaviour, interests, and activities (e.g., hand flapping, excessive touching/smelling, lining up toys, adverse response to sounds, and echolalia)

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54
Q

What kind of pointing do ASD kids have

A

Protoimperative pointing than protodeclerative pointing

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55
Q

What are conditions need to be ruled out with GERD

A

Chronic reflux due to diseases of neuro disorders such as Cerebral Palsy
Chronic lung disease of prematurity

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56
Q

Pyloric stenosis electrolyte distrubance

A

Hypokalaemic Hypochloraemic Metabolic alkalosis =low plamsa K+ due to vomit

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57
Q

What other condition can look like Gastro

A

DKA

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58
Q

Red flags of gastroenteritis

A

1) severe abdominal pain or abdominal signs
2) persistent diarrhoea (> 10 days)
3) blood in stool
4) very unwell appearance
5) bilious (green) vomit
6) vomiting without diarrhoea

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59
Q

DDx for child with a limp and give sentence

A

1) Transient synovitis
2) Perthe’s disease
3) SUFE
4) Septic arthritis
5) JIA
6) Fracture/Trauma
7) NAI
8) Osgood-Schlatter disease
9) DDH

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60
Q

DDX for non-epileptic seizures

A

1) Febrile convulsions
2) metabolic
3) head trauma–> could be a reflex anoxic seizure?
4) meningitis/ encephalitis
5) toxins/poisons–> did you see him ingesting something usual before this happened?

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61
Q

Reflex Anoxic seizures/Pallid breath holding

A

Non-epileptic, syncope due to sudden drop in cerebral perfusion due to shock eg. bump to head, falling over etc. May go pale. Rapid recovery.

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62
Q

Reflex Anoxic seizures/Pallid breath-holding

A

Non-epileptic, syncope due to sudden drop in cerebral perfusion due to shock eg. bump to head, falling over etc. May go pale. Rapid recovery.

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63
Q

5 important rashes you need to be aware of in paeds

A

1) Measles
2) Rubella
3) Mumps
4) Chickenpox
5) Erythema infectiousum/ fifth disease/slapped cheek syndrome
6) Scarlet fever

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64
Q

Cleft lip and palate- definition

  • what maternal factors causes this?
  • surgical repair
  • what MDT is needed
  • what sequence is associated and triad does it have
A

Failure of the fusion of frontonasal and maxillary processes

-mother taking ANTICONVULSANTS

6-12 month for the palate
1st week-3 month for lip

Most will need speech therapy

Pierre Robin sequence:
micrognathia, glossoptosis, and airway obstruction.

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65
Q

Neural tube defects

  • tell the three types
  • tell me features about each one
A

Look at that slide on the paeds review folder

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66
Q

Causes of obesity in children- what are the 4 categories you need to explore

A

Environmental
Hormonal
Genetic
Medications

Environmental

1) Excess energy intake
2) Decreased activity levels

Hormone problems

1) Under functioning thyroid
2) Problems with the production of growth hormone
3) High steroid levels
4) PCOS
5) Other hormonal problems

Medications

1) Behaviour-related medications (such as antidepressants
2) Medications for fits and seizures
3) Steroids

Genetic syndromes

1) Prader-Willi syndrome
2) Other genetic syndromes-turner syndrome

Intertrigo
OSA- due to fat- how is his sleep?

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67
Q

What are the baseline tests and other tests to consider in an obese child

A

Baseline:

1) Blood lipids
2) Liver function tests
3) FBC-> general health, anaemia, infections

Consider the following when clinically indicated

1) Blood sugar and insulin levels/OGTT
2) Hormone function, such as thyroid hormone levels
3) Vitamin and nutrient levels (such as Iron, vitamin D, Vitamin B12)

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68
Q

Causes of a child who has short stature but steady growth before centile

A
Constitutional(familial)short stature
Maturational delay 
Turner's syndrome 
IUGR
Skeletal dysplasia(Rare)--> achondroplasia
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69
Q

Causes of a child who is shortfall off in growth across centile(losing height)= so failure to thrive with losing height

A
Chronic illness- Crohn's disease and chronic renal insufficiency 
Acquired hypothyroidism
Cushing's
Growth deficiency 
Psychosocial
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70
Q

5210 RULE for obese children

A

5- at least 5 fruits or vegetables per day
2- no more than 2 hrs screen time per day(<2 years old no screen time)
1- 1hour physical activity
0-No sweetened drinks

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71
Q

Overweight percentiles

A

85th to 95th

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72
Q

Obese percentiles

A

> 95th

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73
Q

BMI calculation

A

Kg/m2

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74
Q

In a simple febrile seizure, once the seizure has terminated, the aim of the assessment is to

A

determine the cause of the fever

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75
Q

In an afebrile seizures(seizure) what should be looked at in the past medical history

A

Past history – previous seizures and anti-seizure medication (management plan if in place), neurological comorbidity (e.g. VP shunt, structural brain abnormality) renal failure (hypertensive encephalopathy), endocrinopathy (electrolyte disturbance)

evidence of underlying cause that may require additional specific emergency management. Underlying causes include:
hypoglycaemia
electrolyte disturbances
meningitis
drug/toxin overdose
trauma
stroke and intracranial haemorrhage
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76
Q

In seizure child, what other system history is very important(besides neuro)

A

CARDIO

Ask about:

aura, focal features
level of awareness
recent trauma, consider non-accidental injury
focality of limb or eye movement
post-ictal phase/hemiparesis
Relevant past history

Family history of seizures or cardiac disorders/sudden death
History suggestive of absence seizures or myoclonic jerks, nocturnal events
Developmental history

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77
Q

DDx for seizure-4 as given for RCH

A

1) Arrhythmia
2) Breath-holding spell (episode occurs when the child is crying)
3) Vasovagal syncope with anoxic seizure (postural change, preceded by dizziness and nausea)
4) Non-epileptic paroxysmal disorder

Also on examination look for
Full neurological examination looking for any abnormal neurological findings, signs of meningitis or raised intracranial pressure

Cardiovascular examination including BP and look for any signs that suggest an underlying cause e.g. neurocutaneous stigmata, microcephaly

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78
Q

Red for a seizure child

A
  1. Head injury with delayed seizure
  2. Developmental delay or regression
  3. Headache prior to the seizure
  4. Bleeding disorder, anticoagulation therapy
  5. Drug/alcohol use
  6. Focal signs
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79
Q

Pre-term baby: corrected age formula

A

Corrected age = Actual age - number of weeks premature

It is recommended to correct age for prematurity for children born before 37 weeks until the age of 2 years

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80
Q

When plotting the growth chart what is the age you use- corrected or actual

A

Corrected

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81
Q

What areas are you looking for in a febrile child

A
Colour 
Activity 
Respiratory 
Circulation and hydration
Neurological
Others
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82
Q

Febrile child- Infants ≤ 28 days corrected age- 3 steps you must do

A

Should be assessed promptly and discussed with a senior doctor
FBE, CRP, blood culture, urine (SPA), LP ± CXR
Admit for empiric antibiotic

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83
Q

Which type of febrile child should not undergo a LP

A

LP should not be performed in a child with the impaired conscious state, focal neurological signs impaired coagulation or haemodynamic instability (see Lumbar puncture). In this circumstance, treatment for meningitis/encephalitis can be commenced and an LP can be performed when the patient is stable and there are no other contraindications present.

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84
Q

Septic children may present with cold shock features

-which children get it

A

cold shock characterised by a narrow pulse pressure and prolonged capillary refill. The underlying haemodynamic abnormality is septic myocardial dysfunction, which is more common in infants and neonates.

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85
Q

Septic children may present with warm shock features

-which children get it

A

warm shock characterised by a wide pulse pressure and rapid capillary refill. The underlying haemodynamic abnormality is vasoplegia, which is more common in older children and adolescents.

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86
Q

Which vasopressor drug for cold shock

A

Adrenaline

87
Q

Which vasopressor drug for warm shock

A

Noradrenaline

88
Q

Shock what blood test should be done

A

CRP and LACTATE

89
Q

2 signs of encephalitis

A

1) altered conscious state

2) focal neurological signs

90
Q

Abx for meningitis- less than 2 months

A

Cefotaxime+ Benzylpenicillin

nil steroids

91
Q

Abx for meningitis- more than 2 months

A

Ceftriaxone+Dexamethasone

92
Q

Treatment for encephalitis

A

Aciclovir

93
Q

Why use steroids in meningitis

A

Current evidence suggests that steroids may reduce the risk of hearing loss in bacterial meningitis.

Steroids are not recommended in neonates due to concern regarding effects on neurodevelopment.

94
Q

What follow-up is needed for children who had meningitis

A

Audiology

All children with bacterial meningitis should have a formal audiology assessment 6-8 weeks after discharge (earlier if there are concerns regarding hearing).

95
Q

The life-threatening complication in DKA

A

Cerebral oedema

96
Q

Potassium levels are ok in this DKA, we don’t need to worry right?

A

Children with DKA are depleted in total body potassium regardless of the initial serum potassium level.

When you administer Insulin the potassium gonna get shifted so it is not the true value represented there

97
Q

Biochemical criteria for DKA

A

1) Serum glucose >11 mmol/L
2) Venous pH <7.3 or Bicarbonate <15mmol/L
3) Presence of ketonaemia/ketonuria

Physically they don’t look unwell at first and BANG they are deteriorating

98
Q

What should we be careful in DKA children when the assessment of hydration is done

A

The degree of dehydration is often over-estimated in DKA, this may be compounded by peripheral shutdown due to acidosis.

Excessive fluid replacement may increase the risk of cerebral oedema.

99
Q

The following bloods are part of a diagnostic workup for first presentation T1DM:

A

1) Insulin antibodies, GAD antibodies, ZnT8 antibodies
2) celiac screen (total IgA, anti-gliadin Ab, tissue transglutaminase Ab)
3) TSH and fT4.

100
Q

DKA state what bloods you would order

A

1) Serum glucose
2) Urea, creatinine and electrolytes (sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium, phosphate).
3) Venous gas (including bicarbonate).
4) FBE (haematocrit may be elevated as a marker of dehydration, WCC may be elevated as a stress response).
5) Blood ketones (bedside test, normal <0.6mmol/L).

Urine
Dipstick for ketones, glucose and FWT
Culture if clinical suspicion of UTI

Consider ECG if potassium results will be delayed

101
Q

The 4 goals of treatment of DKA

A
  1. Correct dehydration
  2. Reverse ketosis, correct acidosis and glucose
  3. Monitor for complications of DKA and its treatment: Cerebral oedema, hypo/hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia
  4. Identify and treat any precipitating cause
102
Q

ECG DKA what you worried about

A

ECG changes related to potassium levels

hyperkalaemia: peaked T waves, widened QRS
hypokalaemia: flattened or inverted T waves, ST depression, PR prolongation).

103
Q

DKA question: what should you state according to Dr.Yates

A

Always follow the local DKA protocol

If rural setting: call someone who is an expert in peads DKA management

104
Q

What is the cut-off to add potassium to fluid or not

A

Add 40mmol/L potassium chloride to this fluid if the serum potassium ≤ 5.5mmol/L and the child is passing urine.
If anuric or serum potassium >5.5 mmol/L, do not add potassium to the fluids until this has resolved.

105
Q

Treatment for cerebral oedema in DKA

A

Nurse head up
Reduce fluid infusion rate by one-third
Give mannitol immediately if cerebral oedema suspected – do NOT wait for cerebral imaging.
Discuss with consultant on call and liaise with intensive care or paediatric retrieval service to discuss transfer.

106
Q

If the child becomes hypoglycemia in DKA

A

A BGL of <4.0mmol/L should be treated with additional glucose as below.

Do NOT discontinue the insulin infusion.

107
Q

Signs of increased work of breathing/child with respiratory distress

A

1) Retraction
(intercostal, suprasternal, costal margin)

2) Paradoxical abdominal breathing
3) Accessory muscle use

Nasal flaring
Sternomastoid contraction (head bobbing)
Forward posture

4) ALOC

108
Q

2 conditions for wheeze

A

Asthma and bronchiolitis

109
Q

2 conditions for stridor

A

Croup and Upper Airway Obstruction

110
Q

Croup treatment

A

Dex/Pred and consider adrenaline

111
Q

Signs of deterioration and indications for urgent intervention are: in resp distress(3)

A

1) Hypoxia - worried, unsettled appearance, restlessness.
2) Fatigue or decreasing conscious state.
3) Increasing work of breathing.

112
Q

A harsh, barking cough in a febrile, miserable, but otherwise well child suggests

A

Croup

113
Q

Absent cough with low pitched expiratory stridor (often snoring) and drooling suggest.

A

epiglottitis.

114
Q

Sudden onset in an otherwise well child with coughing, choking and aphonia suggests an

A

inhaled foreign body.

115
Q

Swelling of face and tongue, wheeze or urticarial rash suggests

A

Anaphylaxis

116
Q

High Fever
Hyperextension of neck
Dysphagia, pooling of secretions in throat

A

epiglottitis

retropharyngeal / peritonsillar abscess

Note: There is a high degree of overlap in clinical presentation between epiglottitis, bacterial tracheitis and upper airway abscess.

117
Q

“Toxic” appearing child

Markedly tender trachea

A

bacterial tracheitis

118
Q

Upper airway obstruction of a kid management

A

Allow child to settle quietly on parent’s lap in the position the child feels most comfortable.

DONOT DO ANYTHING TO IRRITATE THE CHILD(MINIMAL HANDLING)

Observe closely with minimal interference.

Treat specific cause - refer to Croup, Anaphylaxis and Foreign Body in the Airway guidelines.

Call PICU if worsening or severe obstruction.

Oxygen may be given while awaiting definitive treatment. This can be falsely reassuring because a child with quite severe obstruction may look pink in oxygen.

Intravenous access should be deferred - upsetting the child can cause increasing obstruction.(***)

119
Q

Minimal handling is particularly important in:

A

Respiratory conditions, such as croup, asthma

120
Q

How do you calculate amount dehydrate(% which is a deficit in the formula)

A

Previous weight(baseline weight)-current weight/previous weight x100

121
Q

Gastroenteritis-should we do rapid resus or just trial of fluids

A

Trial of fluid is ideal cause everybody gets gastro and if the child is able to tolerate the fluids orally it is good

If severe then we are worried and then rapid NGT resus can be done

122
Q

When should insulin be administered in DKA

- what is insulin going to do in DKA

A

1-2 hours after the commencement of IV fluid therapy

Insulin therapy is required to normalize the BGLand suppress lipolysis and ketogenesis- however in moderate and severe DKA, insulin IV is required

123
Q

Hypoglycemia in kids

A

< or equal to 2.6mmol/L

ABCDEFG

124
Q

If breathing holding spell is suspected/ or lets say febrile convulsion, what needs to be ruled out

A

Iron deficiency needs to be ruled out

125
Q

What big 3 needs to be ruled out in a seizure in kids

A

1) Trauma
2) Intracranial infection
3) Hypoglycemia

126
Q

When is a preventer warranted in asthmatic

A

> 6 attacks per year

127
Q

“Complicated pneumonia” occurs when there is a complication such as

A

parapneumonic effusion, empyema, lung abscess, or necrotising pneumonia.

128
Q

Should we do blood test and other investigations for pneumonia in children

A

Blood tests and microbiological investigations are NOT recommended for routine use in the diagnosis and management of CAP.

129
Q

CPAP in a child examination findings-5

A

hypoxaemia ( <92%) on pulse oximetry

crackles and bronchial breathing on auscultation

the elevated respiratory rate for age

chest wall indrawing, retractions, grunting, nasal flaring
apnoea

absent breath sounds and a dull percussion note suggest a pleural effusion

130
Q

DDX for acute asthma

A
Inhaled FB
GERD
DKA
Pneumonia
Croup
Anaphylaxis
131
Q

MDI dose for asthma in QLD

A

<20kg: 6 puffs

>20kg: 12 puffs

132
Q

Pred dose for asthma

A

1mg/kg

133
Q

Hypothermia or temp instability can be a sign of _____ in a febrile child

A

SBI

134
Q

When should I do a CXR in a child with pneumonia

-should I do other investigations too?

A

If they are been admitted then you can consider doing it

Investigations including CXR, are NOT recommended for routine use in the diagnosis and management of CAP, particularly in those with mild disease who are expected to be managed as an outpatient. A CXR (posteroanterior view) is recommended for patients who require admission or if severe or complicated pneumonia is suspected.

135
Q

Initial management for pneumonia inpatient

A

Admission to hospital is required for

  • oxygenation
  • fluid therapy or
  • moderate to severe work of breathing.

Check oxygen saturation and provide supplemental oxygen if saturations are ≤92%. Administer oxygen to maintain saturations >92%.

If giving NG or IV fluids as maintenance therapy limit fluids to ½ or ⅔ of normal maintenance fluids to avoid fluid overload.

Advice regarding antibiotic management is summarised in the algorithm below. There is good evidence showing the equivalence of oral amoxicillin and IV benzylpenicillin.

136
Q

If hospital admission is not required, what should be done

A

Discharge on oral amoxicillin TDS x5

137
Q

When is pneumonia considered severe

A

Severe pneumonia should be considered if:

There are clinical features of pneumonia and 2 or more of the following:
Severe respiratory distress
Severe hypoxaemia or cyanosis
Marked tachycardia
Altered mental state

OR

There are clinical features of pneumonia with empyema

138
Q

The most important parameters in the assessment of the severity of acute childhood asthma are:

A

general appearance/mental state and;

work of breathing (accessory muscle use, recession)

139
Q

Severe asthma protocol- RCH

A

Involve senior staff.

Oxygen as above

Salbutamol-burst therapy–> another burst–>

Ipratropium-1 dose every 20 minutes for 1 hour only.

oral pred- 1mg/kg

consider other agents if not improving
Aminophylline
Magnesium sulfate

if signs of anapylaxis-
Consider Adrenaline. 0.01mL/kg of 1:1000 (maximum 0.5mL) intramuscular, into lateral thigh which should be repeated after 5 minutes if the child is not improving.

140
Q

Definiton of anaphylaxis

A

Anaphylaxis is a multi-system allergic reaction characterised by:
SKIN+ (resp/cardio/gastro OR acute onset of hypotension/bronchospasm)

RCH
1) Any acute onset illness with typical skin features (urticarial rash or erythema/flushing, and/or angioedema),
PLUS
(2) Involvement of respiratory and/or cardiovascular symptoms and/or persistent severe gastrointestinal symptoms
OR
3) Any acute onset of hypotension or bronchospasm or upper airway obstruction where anaphylaxis is considered possible, even if typical skin features are not present)

141
Q

How long can an anaphylaxis reaction last for and when can reaction occur

A

Most reactions occur within 30 minutes of exposure to a trigger but can occur up to 4 hours.

142
Q

1st 5 steps in anaphylaxis

A
Remove allergen
Do not allow- stand or walk
Call for help
High flow O2 
Administer IM adrenaline
143
Q

After anaphylaxis reaction, should I admit the patient

A

All children with anaphylaxis should be observed for at least 4 hours in a supervised setting with facilities to manage deterioration.
Admission for a minimum 12 hour period of observation is recommended if:

1) Further treatment is required within 4 hours of last adrenaline administration (biphasic reaction)
2) Previous history of biphasic reaction
3) Poorly controlled asthma
4) The child lives in an isolated location with delay to emergency services

144
Q

GOR: it is normal, should we investigate

A
  • is common, affecting at least 40% of infants
  • usually begins before 8 weeks of age, peaks at 4 months and resolves by 1 year of age in the majority of cases
  • does not cause crying and irritability in healthy infants. Infant crying peaks at 6-8 weeks, and hence some babies with simple GOR may also be unsettled

-rarely require investigations

145
Q

GOR vs GORD

A

Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is when GOR causes vomiting with:

refusal to feed
pronounced irritability with feeding
aspiration
chronic cough, wheeze
poor growth
haematemesis
146
Q

What are other condition can present as GORD

A

Cow milk protein allergy (CMPA) can present with similar symptoms to GORD.

Blood and/or mucous in stool, chronic diarrhoea or atopic risk factors make this diagnosis more likely.

147
Q

What are the general measures for GORD

A

1) Positioning
2) Thickened feeds–> “Anti-reflux” formulas are pre-thickened, or alternatively, a thickening agent can be added to a standard formula or expressed breast milk.
3) Optimise feeds –> Observation and assessment of feeds by an experienced lactation consultant or Maternal Child Health Nurse (MCHN) can be helpful.

148
Q

If GORD is suspected, what other condition needs to be ruled out

A

Cow Milk Protein Allergy (CMPA)

149
Q

Specific measure for GORD

A

1) Consider cow milk protein exclusion: 2 weeks strict trial of the hydrolyzed formula for formula-fed babies and mother needs to follow strict dairy avoidance plan(ASCIA)
2) Consider acid suppressant therapy: Omeprazole- 4-week trial
3) Gaviscon junior is not going to help

150
Q

What are the red flags symptoms of GORD

And signs

A

Reconsider diagnosis if any of the following red flag features are present:

Symptoms:

Vomiting that is bilious; has onset >6 months of age; or is consistent and forceful
Significant diarrhoea or constipation
Fever or lethargy

Signs:

Abdominal rigidity
Hepatosplenomegaly
Bulging fontanelle and/or increasing head circumference

151
Q

Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)-
mild and moderate treatment
severe treatment

A

Minimise distress to the child as this can worsen upper airway obstruction.
Consider early transfer and involvement of senior staff if concerns regarding worsening upper airway obstruction.

For severe and life-threatening croup use nebulised adrenaline.

Less severe cases can be managed with corticosteroids alone.

Common in 6 months to 6 years and worse at night

152
Q

Croup- 6 points on seen the child

A
  1. Barking cough
  2. Inspiratory stridor
  3. Hoarse voice
  4. May have associated widespread wheeze
  5. Increased work of breathing
  6. May have fever, but no signs of toxicity
153
Q

Indications for LP

A

1) Suspected meningitis or encephalitis–> Meningitis, febrile convulsion, fever
2) Suspected Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage with a normal CT

(A normal CT scan does not tell you that the patient does not have raised ICP)

154
Q

Contraindications for LP-8

A

1) Chid is so sick your going to give Abx even if CSF was clear/normal
2) Strong suspicious of meningococcal infection
3) Signs of increased ICP
4) Resp/cardio compromise
5) Coma
6) Seizure now or in the past 30 minutes
7) Coagulopathy
8) Local infection (in the area where an LP would be performed)
9) Focal neurological signs or seizures

155
Q

Complications of LP

A

1) Failure to obtain a specimen / need to repeat LP/ Traumatic tap (common)
2) Post-dural puncture headache (fairly common) - up to 5-15%
3) Transient/persistent paresthesiae/numbness (very uncommon)
3) Respiratory arrest from positioning (rare)
4) Spinal haematoma or abscess (very rare)
5) Tonsillar herniation (extremely rare in the absence of contraindications above)

156
Q

Which needle gauge is used in LP

A

22G or 25G bevelled spinal needles with stylet

157
Q

Where are you going to insert the needle in LP

A

Draw an imaginary line between the top of the iliac crests. This intersects the spine at approximately the L3-4 interspace

Aim for the L3-4 or L4-5 interspace

158
Q

Acute meningococcal disease- what is the immediate thing to be

A

Blood cultures
IV ceftriaxone / cefotaxime should be given as soon as meningococcal disease is suspected. If unavailable, give penicillin.

159
Q

If the rash is blanching you do not need to worry right

A

Note: a blanching rash does not exclude meningococcal disease (can initially be macular, maculopapular)

BASICALLY any rash you need to RULE OUT MENINGOCOCCAL INFECTION

160
Q

Acute meningococcal disease-investigations

A

Investigations should not delay antibiotic administration.

Blood (or marrow) culture should be obtained prior to antibiotic administration if possible.
Meningococcal PCR (separate EDTA tube, minimum volume 0.2mL)
CSF: For Gram stain (Gram-negative diplococci), culture, and meningococcal PCR if suspected meningitis and no purpuric rash or other contraindication to lumbar puncture. DO NOT delay antibiotics to obtain CSF.
161
Q

Chemoprophylaxis for adult exposed to Acute meningococcal disease is

A

ciprofloxacin

child affected needs to be isolated

162
Q

Iron deficiency in a child, what test is the best one

A

Serum ferritin is the most useful screening test for assessing iron stores. A ferritin of <20 μg/L is taken to indicate borderline/low iron stores.

163
Q

Management for IDA in a child

A

Suggest iron supplementation and dietary modification if low ferritin, with or without anaemia.

Dietary advice

Increase iron-rich foods and reduce cow’s milk consumption.
See Iron dietary advice
Cow’s milk should not be offered to children < 12 months and should be limited to <500ml/day in those older than 12 months.
Consider referral to a dietitian.

164
Q

What other drink can be given to absorb iron better in children

A

Iron is better absorbed if taken with vitamin C (e.g. orange juice)

165
Q

Pale child: physical examination findings- 5

A
Pallor
Pale conjunctivae
Tachycardia
Cardiac murmur
Lethargy
Listlessness
Poor growth
Poor concentration
Weakness
Shortness of breath
Signs of cardiac failure
Signs of haemolysis include jaundice, scleral icterus, splenomegaly and dark urine
166
Q

4 test for anaemic child

A

FBC
ferritin
reticulocyte count
vitamin b12 and folate

donot need iron studies per se
Iron studies or serum iron should not be requested to diagnose iron deficiency.

167
Q

What are the red flags in anaemia-6

A

Hb < 60g/L (including iron deficiency)

Tachycardia, cardiac murmur or signs of cardiac failure

Features of haemolysis (dark urine, jaundice, scleral icterus)

Associated reticulocytopenia

Presence of nucleated red blood cells on blood film

Associated thrombocytopenia or neutropenia may indicate malignancy or an infiltrative disorder

Severe vitamin B12 or folate deficiency

Need for red cell transfusion: Where possible defer transfusion until a definitive diagnosis is made.

168
Q

What is the DDx for microcytic anaemia

A

IDA and thalassemia minors

169
Q

What is the DDx for noromocytic anaemia

A

Haemolysis or blood loss

Marrow hypoplasia, leukemia

170
Q

What is the DDX for macrocytic anaemia

A

Vitamin b12 and folate deficiency

171
Q

Characteristic blood film findings include teardrop red cells and hypersegmented neutrophils

A

Macrocytic anaemia

172
Q

Bite and blister cells

A

G6PD deficiency–> G6PD assay

173
Q

Clinical features of CP

A

1) Follow up of “at risk” infants, such as those born prematurely
2) Delayed motor milestones, particularly learning to sit, stand and walk
3) Asymmetric movement patterns, for example, strong hand preference early in life
4) Abnormalities of muscle tone particularly spasticity or hypotonia
5) Management problems, for example, severe feeding difficulties and unexplained irritability. Many other conditions present with these features.

Does not reach milestones
Seizure disorder
Intellectual disabled
Muscle weakness and/or atrophy
Scissor gait
174
Q

When does hand preference become a red flag

A

Definite hand preference before 1 year of age, suggests a one-sided muscle weakness and is a red flag for hemiplegia!

175
Q

State some associated conditions with CP

A

Visual problems (approx 40%) eg strabismus, refractive errors, visual field defects and cortical visual impairment

Hearing deficits (approx 3 - 10%)

Speech and language problems

Epilepsy (approx 50%)

Cognitive impairments. Intellectual disability, learning problems and perceptual difficulties are common. There is a wide range of intellectual ability and children with severe physical disabilities may have normal intelligence

176
Q

Management of the associated disabilities, health problems and consequences of the motor disorder in CP

A

Need MDT involvement

Associated disabilities

  • all CP children need hearing and visual assessment
  • Anticonvulsants for epilepsy
  • Formal cognitive assessment

Monitor health problems

  • Monitor growth and development
  • GORD
  • Constipation
  • Lung disease and increase risk of aspiration
  • Monitor VP shunts
  • Osteoporosis
  • Monitor dental health
  • Mental health
177
Q

Common presentations to the Emergency Department with CP-3

A

1) Respiratory problems particularly pneumonia
2) Uncontrolled seizures / status epilepticus
3) Unexplained irritability - consider acute infections, oesophagitis, dental disease, hip subluxation, pathological fracture. Review medications.

178
Q

Consequences of motor disease on CP-3

A

1) Drooling–> speech pathologist
2) Incontience
3) Orthopaedic problems–> regular Hip-X-ray

179
Q

Investigations you can order for FTT

A
FBE, ESR
UEC, LFT
Iron studies
Calcium, phosphate
Thyroid function
Blood glucose
Urine for microscopy and culture
Coeliac screen if on solid feeds containing gluten
Stool microscopy and culture
Stool for fat globules and fatty acid crystals
180
Q

1st most commmon vasculitis in children

A

HSP

181
Q

2nd most common vasculitis in children

A

Kawasaki’s disease

182
Q

The most common cause of acquired heart disease in children in developed countries causing coronary artery aneurysms (CAA).

A

Kawasaki’s disease

Early treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIg) has been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality.

183
Q

CRASH and BURN mnemonic for KD

Kawasaki Disease: Diagnostic criteria.
Fever persisting for at least 5 days, PLUS 4 of the 5 criteria:

A

Conjunctivitis-Bilateral, “dry” or non-purulent, painless. Preferentially bulbar in distribution.

Rash-Polymorphous, variable presentations such as urticarial, morbilliform, maculopapular, or resembling scarlet fever.

Adenopathy-Cervical, most commonly unilateral, tender. At least one node >1.5cm.

Strawberry tongue-Intense hyperaemia of lips leading to redness and cracking and/or diffuse erythema of oropharynx and Strawberry tongue.

Hands and feets-Hyperaemia and painful oedema of hands and feet that progresses to desquamation in the convalescent stage.
Perineal desquamation frequently associated.

184
Q

KD has 3 drugs for treatment what are they

A

1) INTRAVENOUS IMMUNOGLOBULIN (IVIg)
2) CORTICOSTEROIDS
3) ASPIRIN:
3-5mg/kg as a daily dose until normal echo on follow up (minimum 6 weeks).

185
Q

Orbital cellulitis- why is it an emergency

A

Orbital cellulitis is an emergency with serious complications including intracranial infection, cavernous sinus thrombosis and vision loss.

Urgent imaging and surgical consultation (ENT and ophthalmology) should be considered for any child with suspected orbital cellulitis.

186
Q

Which cellulitis is worse orbital or periorbital

A

Orbital cellulitis

187
Q

treatment for uncomplicated impetigo

A

(uncomplicated localised): wash crusts off - topical mupirocin 2% ointment 8H

If extensive / multiple lesions present / not responding to topical treatment: treat as for cellulitis

188
Q

Difference between SJS and TEN vs SSSS

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis present with mucosal involvement, SSSS doesn’t!

Steroids are contraindicated, as the etiology of SSSS is infectious! (They are, however, indicated in SJS and TEN.)

189
Q

Complications of SSSS

A

The complications faced by SSSS patients are similar to those of patients with burns, as both have a compromised skin barrier:

Fluid and electrolyte imbalances
Thermal dysregulation
Secondary infections (e.g., pneumonia, sepsis)

190
Q

palpable skull fractures, signs of a fractured base of skull in children

A

haemotympanum, racoon eyes, Battle’s sign and for CSF leak

191
Q

Investigations for Global Developmental Delay

A

 Chromosomes including Fragile X
 Thyroid function test
 Urine metabolic screen in global developmental delay
 Neuroimaging
 Other investigations depending on history and
examination (e.g. s lead)
 Hearing assessment is essential in speech delay
 Vision assessment
 FBC and Creatinine Kinase

192
Q

Abdominal pain in neonates

A
Time critical ones
Hirschprung’s enterocolitis
Incarcerated hernia
Intussusception-->Vomiting is usually a prominent feature (but bile stained vomiting is a late sign and indicates a bowel obstruction)
Meckel’s diverticulum
Necrotising enterocolitis
Testicular torsion
Volvulus

Less time critical
Irritable/unsettled infant
UTI

193
Q

Important non-abdominal causes of abdominal pain to consider:

A

Pneumonia
DKA
Sepsis
Toxin exposure or overdose

-dont forget to look for hernia and testes in the physical examination

194
Q

Must do this test for Intussusception

A

USS

195
Q

Medical causes of constipation

A

Cow milk allergy
Coeliac disease
Hypercalcaemia
Hypothyroidism

196
Q

Surgical causes of constipation

A

Hirschsprung disease
Meconium ileus
Anatomic malformations of anus
Spinal cord abnormalities

197
Q

Constipation

-how much is normal or concerning

A

Breastfed babies may defaecate as infrequently as once a week. and ≤2 stools/week

198
Q

Red flags of constipation

A

Infants presenting <6 weeks age

Delayed passage of meconium – most infants pass meconium in the first 24 hours of life (consider Hirschsprung disease or anorectal malformation).

Ribbon like stools - consider anorectal malformation.

Weight loss/poor growth, persistent vomiting or PR blood loss

Abdominal mass (not consistent with large faecal mass)

199
Q

Management of constipation

A

Behaviour Modifications

  • position
  • timing
  • diary

Dietary modification

Medications

Rectal treatment with suppositories or enemas should be avoided.

200
Q

Only Ix needed for HSP

A

Urinalysis

Most cases are self-limiting and require only symptomatic management

201
Q

Classic presentation of HSP

-4 Main points are

A

It is most commonly seen in children 2-8 years of age.

In ~50% of cases there is a history of a recent upper respiratory tract infection

HSP is characterised by palpable purpura with arthritis/arthralgia (~50-75%), abdominal pain (~50%) and/or renal involvement (~25-50%) (haematuria/proteinuria/hypertension)

discussion with a Renal specialist is recommended if there is:
Hypertension
Abnormal renal function
Macroscopic haematuria for 5 days
Nephrotic syndrome
Acute nephritic syndrome
Persistent proteinuria
202
Q

UTI confirmation- can it be done by dipstick

A

Urinary dipstick is a useful screening test, but a positive urine culture with pyuria confirms the diagnosis.
–> Pyuria and bacteria seen on microscopy are suggestive of UTI, but a positive culture is required to confirm the diagnosis

Oral antibiotics are appropriate for most children with UTI. Children who are seriously unwell and most infants under 3 months usually require IV antibiotics.

Seriously unwell children, those with renal impairment, and boys <3 months of age should have a renal ultrasound prior to discharge to exclude renal tract obstruction.

203
Q

DDx for NAI/Child abuse

A

ITP
HSP
Leukemia
oestegenesis imperfecta

NAI include– Shaken baby syndrome–> retinal haemorrhage

204
Q

NAI red flags

A

drug history in the family

Mental health in the family

205
Q

Pathognomonic for NAI

A

Classic metaphyseal fractures

206
Q

Sepsis in a child, what is the most important blood test

A

Lactate–> produced by all cells

207
Q

NAI presentations in children

A

Subdural haematoma
Retinal haemorrhages
Posterior rib fractures
Metaphyseal chip fractures(corner fracture)
Bucket handle fracture–> distal femur and proximal tibia
and proximal humerus

Skull fracture–> eggshell, crush fracture crossing suture lines

Vertebral compression fractue in a child–> NAI

Midshaft fractures–> straight and spiral fractures

208
Q

What are the red flags for acute otitis media and will warrant for Abx at the initial consultation

A

1) AOM in the only hearing ear(if they are congenitally deaf)
2) Cochlear implants–> discuss with ENT for IV abx
3) ATSI children

209
Q

Otoscopy: tympanic membrane (TM) evaluation in AOM

A

Early findings
Retracted and hypomobile
Loss of light reflex

Red bulging TM with loss of landmarks

210
Q

Complications of AOM-3

A

Tympanic membrane perforation
Acute mastoiditis
Otitis Media with Effusion (OME)

211
Q

Acute tonsilits–> GABHS

  • Supprative complications
  • 3 non-supprative complications
A
Suppurative complications
Peritonsillar abscess
Parapharyngeal abscess
Otitis media
Sinusitis
Cervical lymphadenitis
Mastoiditis

Nonsuppurative complications
Rheumatic fever
Scarlet fever
Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

212
Q

Prevention in the context of ARF/RHD:

  • Primordial prevention
  • primary prevention
  • secondary prevention
  • tertiary prevention
A

•primordial prevention: broad social, economic
and environmental initiatives were undertaken to prevent
or limit the impact of GAS infection in a population

•primary prevention: reducing GAS transmission,
acquisition, colonisation and carriage, or
treating the GAS infection effectively to prevent the
development of ARF in individuals

•secondary prevention: administering regular
prophylactic antibiotics to individuals who have
already had an episode of ARF to prevent the
development of RHD, or who have established
RHD in order to prevent the progression of the disease

•tertiary prevention: intervention in individuals
with RHD to reduce symptoms and disability, and
prevent premature death

213
Q

Antistreptococcal serology for ARF include:

A

both ASO and anti-DNase B titres, if available (repeat 10–14 days later if first test
not confirmatory)

214
Q

Long-term preventive measures once the diagnosis of ARF confirmed

A

First dose of secondary prophylaxis

Notify case to ARF/RHD register, if available

Contact local primary care staff to ensure follow up

Referral to a medical specialist

Provide culturally-appropriate education to patient and family

Arrange dental review and ongoing dental care to reduce risk of endocarditis

Appropriate RHD care plan