Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards > random practice test questions > Flashcards

random practice test questions Flashcards

1
Q

What medication class is metformin/glucophage?

A

biguanides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the biguinides? (metformin)

A

limits the conversion of glycogen to glucose by the liver and reduces insulin receptors resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Risk factors for a person to develop HHS include?

A

infection

people who are dehydrated (dependent elderly who can’t get their own drinks despite feeling thirsty)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In HHS is the problem an insulin deficit or a fluid deficit?

A

a fluid volume deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Is the main treatment of HHS fluid replacment or insulin?

A

fluid replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which thyroid hormone is responsible for calcium and phosphate regulation?

A

Calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The INITIAL intervention in the symptomatic patient with hyperthyroidism is:

A

beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An intubated ventilated PNA patient with Na 130, euvolemia, adequate UOP, and urine sodium 50. What is the cause of the hyponatremia?

A

SIADH

*SIADH is caused by head trauma AND lung problems, ventilator therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For stroke patients who are NOT a candidate for tPA, what is the appropriate BP?

A

SBP<220 or DBP<110

*permissive HTN if they mount a HTN response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Per ACCN exam, what is the target glucose level in acute stroke?

A

<145

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An acute inflammatory polyneuropathy is a characteristic of

A

Gullian barre syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Relapsing/remitting MS is characterized by what clinical course?

A

relapse over 1-2 weeks, lasts 4-8 weeks, returns to baseline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Accurate dilantin levels may be affected by:

A

low albumin levels

*free dilantin levels measure unbound dilantin

*serum dilantin measued by bound to albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The incomplete spinal cord injury syndrome that results in arms motor loss but spares the legs is

A

central cord syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What clinical finding in SCI is a poor prognostic sign because it is a hallmark of complete spinal cord injury?

A

priapism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the timeframe for Subacute SDH ?

A

48 hours - 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Gnawing epigastric pain that is worse at night and relieved by vomiting, worse one hour after eating. Whats the dx?

A

duodenal ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What patients are at greatest risk for acalculous cholecystitis?

A

critical illness and sepsis

*they die because they are too sick for OR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Central vision loss is caused in old people by

A

macular degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A patient with a history of heart failure arrives at the emergency department exhibiting shortness of breath and lower extremity swelling. Both of the patient’s symptoms are a result of:

a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure.
an increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure.
an increase in capillary membrane permeability.
an obstruction of lymphatic drainage.

A

an increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When discharging an 85-year-old patient who has a diagnosis of stasis dermatitis, an adult-gerontology acute care nurse practitioner includes instructions to:

keep legs elevated while seated.
maintain systolic blood pressure greater than 120 mm Hg.
soak legs in warm water daily.
wear compression stockings of 65 mm Hg below the knee.

A

keep legs elevated while seated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A 70-year-old patient with acute systolic heart failure denies any functional limitations, is able to walk five blocks before tiring, and is euvolemic. Which medication is the first-line therapy for this patient?

Amlodipine (Norvasc)
Digoxin (Lanoxin)
Furosemide (Lasix)
Lisinopril (Zestril)

A

ACE-I is 1st line therapy for HF
Lisinopril (Zestril)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation, who has maintained normal sinus rhythm with sotalol (Betapace) is hospitalized for acute pyelonephritis. The appropriate antibiotic regimen for this patient is parenteral:

cefoxitin (Mefoxin).
ceftriaxone (Rocephin).
ciprofloxacin (Proquin).
levofloxacin (Levaquin).

A

ceftriaxone (rocephin)

*cipro and levaquin are fluoroquinolones and can cause QT prolongation

*sotalol (beta blocker) can also cause QT prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

. What legislation allowed nurse practitioners to be recognized Medicare providers in all geographical areas with their own provider number?

The Affordable Care Act
The Balanced Budget Act
The Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services
The Omnibus Budget and Reconciliation Act

A

The nonphysician practitioner (NPP) component of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997

the act also standardized NPP reimbursement at 85% of the physician’s Medicare fee schedule regardless of where that service was provided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

a patient is at increased risk for acalculous cholecystitis if they have:

A

biliary stasis

(NPO, surgery, trauma, critical illness/sepsis because not using GI track)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A patient with malobsorption related weight loss, mucoid diarrhea, vitamin B12 deficiency, and right lower quadrant abd pain might have:

A

Crohn’s disease

27
Q

A patient with bloody stools which may lead to iron deficiency anemia (from bleeding), uses a nicotiene patch to limit disease symptoms, has a disease that is limited to the colon, may lead to perianal fissures, increases risk for adenocarcinoma of the bowel:

A

ulcerative colitis

28
Q

A rash with an annular shape, scales, erythematous base, raised borders with clearing in the center, found in the groin, fungus, is:

A

tinea cruris

29
Q

Bulls eye rash characteristic of Lyme disease is called:

(it can also be seen without lyme disease)

A

erythema migrans

30
Q

Which skin condition is often seen with Steven Johnsons syndrome, has a positive Nikolsky’s sign, and taget like lesions?

A

erythema multiforme MAJOR

*can be caused in response to medications

Stevens-johnsons syndrome AKA erythema multiforme major

31
Q

A patient has a dark brown lesion that is one cm across and has a stuck on appearance. It is raised, has a warty texture, and well defined boarders. What is it and is it an emergency?

A

seborrheic keratosis

not an emergency at all, benign lesion

removal is cosmetic

32
Q

Actinic keratosis is found in sun exposed areas and needs to be treated because it can turn into

A

squamous cell carcinoma

33
Q

A common skin finding in a patient with insulin resistance and hyperinsulinemia, an area of darker thickened skin found in folds of obese patients is:

A

acanthosis nigricans

34
Q

Who is more at risk for malignant skin lesions?

young or old
smoker or non smoker

HIV or not HIV

pale/fair or dark skin

A

more at risk for malignant skin lesions

old

smoker

HIV

pale/fair skin

35
Q

What is the triad of symptoms associated with necrotizing fasciitis?

A

pain out of proportion to exam

erythema

swelling

*may also have weaping

36
Q

On the test, the most effective evidence based treatment that has shown to improve outcomes for necrotizing fasciitis is:

A

surgical debridement

37
Q

A pearly white or waxy bump, often with visible blood vessels, on your face, ears or neck. The bump may bleed and develop a crust. In darker skinned people, this type of cancer may be brown or black.

*slow growing CA

A

basal cell carcinoma

38
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for SIRS?

A

temp >38 c or <36 c

HR>90

RR>20 (or paCO2<32 indicating hyperventilating)

WBC <4 or >12 or total bandemia >10% of WBC

*must meet two or more criteria to dx SIRS*

39
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for sepsis?

A

temp >38 c or

HR>90

RR>20 (or paCO2

WBC 12 or total bandemia >10% of WBC

suspected or present source of infection

*SIRS + source of infection*

40
Q

Septic Shock Criteria

A

Severe Sepsis with Hypotension, despite adequate fluid resuscitation

41
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for SEVERE sepsis?

A

temp >38 c or

HR>90

RR>20 (or paCO2

WBC 12 or total bandemia >10% of WBC

suspected or present source of infection

sepsis + Organ Dysfunction, Hypotension, or Hypoperfusion*

*SBP<90 or <40 of baseline, lactic acidosis*

42
Q

What is the most likely causative organism for subacute bacterial endocarditis is:

A

staphylococcus aureus

43
Q

If a patient lost 750ml of blood post-op. According to the american college of surgeons, if you are going to replace with crystalloid how much do you give to replace 750ml loss of blood?

A

2250ml LR/NS because you replace 3:1

44
Q

When is surgery or vascular procedure indicated for patient with AAA due to increased risk for rupture?

A

if your aneurysm is causing symptoms, or is larger than about 2 inches (roughly 5.0 to 5.5 centimeters), or is enlarging under observation of serial CT q 6-12 months

45
Q

Dysfunction of which of the following organs is key to the development of MODS?

kidney

liver

GI tract

endothelium

A

endothelium

because vascular endothelium connects multiple organs

46
Q

What is a common reason for organ dysfunction in MODS?

A

microvascular thrombi

47
Q

If a patient is hypoperfused (that is the insult) and then has microvascular thrombi which leads to MODS, what is the standard progression of organ dysfunction?

A

pulmonary failure 4-6 days post insult

hepatic failure 6-10 days post insult

renal failure 10-14 days post insult

48
Q

Name two reasons to start TPN

A

the patient will not be able to get any other form of nutrition for greater than 7 days

the patient has mandatory bowel rest (SBO, abd surgery etc)

49
Q

The hallmark feature of RA

A

prolonged early morning stiffness that takes > 30 minutes to go away

50
Q

Gram negative cocci include_____ and can be treated with_______.

A

gonorrhea

rocephin

51
Q

You have a patient with a tylenol overdose. How many hours after ingestion of tylenol would you expect to see changes in LFTs?

A

12-24 hours after ingestion

52
Q

What is the drug of choice in a patient with amphetamine or cocaine overdose?

A

benzodiazepine

53
Q

What medication class is CONTRAINDICATED in amphetamine overdose?

A

beta blockers

because you will leave the patient with an unopposed alpha response which will increase HTN and increase risk for MI.CVA.CV collapse

54
Q

To establish malpractice four things must be established:

A

you must have a duty to the patient

you must have violated a standard of care

that violation has to be the cause of damages

there have to be damages

55
Q

Normal neutrophil count is what percentage of total WBC?

A

60%

56
Q

You have WBC with high neutrophil count. Neutrophils fight what?

A

Neutrophils fight bacteria

57
Q

Your patient has an elevated WBC. On the differential the lymphocytes are elevated. What is your differential?

A

lymphocytes fight virus

CLL

58
Q

You have a patient with elevated WBC and increase in monocytes. What is the differential?

A

monocytes like to debride non-infectious junk

so if you have MI with dead tissue monocytes will get it

if you have cancer monocytes will get it

59
Q

You have a patient with elevated WBC and elevated eosinophils. What is your differential?

A

hypersensitivity reaction

drug reaction

allergic reaction

60
Q

Neutrophelia is any neutrophil >70% of total WBC

A

indicates bacterial infection

61
Q

The concept of the WBC Left shift is used to describe a differential that represented a

A

bacterial infection

62
Q

Bands are immature_____. They are immature. They shouldn’t be out

A

4% of total WBC are normally bands

if you have bandemia you have excess immature WBC that are getting out to fight infection

63
Q
A

Boards (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions