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common problems in acute care Flashcards

1
Q

Name three individuals in your family who have loved and supported you throughout grad school

A

This should be easy.

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2
Q

What type of pain last longer than 6 months, may be episodic?

A

chronic pain

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3
Q

What type is on the skin?

A

cutaneous

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4
Q

How do you describe soft tissue pain?

A

somatic

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5
Q

What is the three step process associated with the treatment of cancer pain?

A

step 1: begin with non-opoid (NSAID, tylenol), +/- adjuvanct (antidepressants etc)

step 2: maintain step one + mild narcotid (codeine, oxycontin)

step 3: add hydromorphone, fentanyl

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6
Q

Per Barkely, what type of medication can be used for round the clock breakthrough pain?

A

narcotic patch (fentanyl patch)

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7
Q

What’s normal body temperature?

A

37 Celcius

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8
Q

What are causes of fever they don’t require antibiotics?

A

SLE

MI

thrombus

neurogenic fever

hyperthyroidism

seratonin syndrome

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

malignant hyperthermia

non-infectious post op fever

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9
Q

What degree celcius defines fever?

A

38.3

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10
Q

What woul you consider in the differential of a patient taking antipsychotics (aka neuroleptic drugs) who presents to the ER with fever, muscle cramps, muscle rigidity, and elevated creatinine phosphokinase?

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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11
Q

What are causes of non-infectious post-op fever?

A

atelectasis

dehydration

medications/drug reactions

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12
Q

A shift to the left results in bandemia which means:

A

high young neutrophil count, implies infection

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13
Q

If your WBC is extremely high, like >40, what should you consider in the differential?

A

leukemia

transplant patient

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14
Q

In the abscence of source of infection, the first line treatment for post-op fever should be:

A

hydration (to treat dehyration)

lung expansion (to treat atelectasis)

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15
Q

A post op patient has a fever for three days, WBC elevated, eosinophils 9%, and negative blood cultures. What is your most likely cause?

A

drug fever (high eosinophils imply allergic reaction)

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16
Q

What is the medication treatment for malignant hyperthermia?

A

dantrolene

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17
Q

Cluster headache are characterized by:

A

unilateral peri orbital pain

sinus congestion

awakens patient at night

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18
Q

Vice like headache pain describes what type of common HA?

A

tension HA

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19
Q

Are classic migraines with or without aura?

A

Classic migraines are with aura

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20
Q

Are the most common migraines with or without aura?

A

The most common migraines are without aura

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21
Q

What are some triggers for migraines?

A

emotional/physical stress

changes in weather

nitrate containing foods

too much/lack of sleep

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22
Q

What are differentials for patient presenting with HA and focal neuro deficits?

A

neurosyphilis (test with VDRL venereal disease research lab)

tumor

migraine

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23
Q

What medications can be given for migraine prophylaxis?

A

amitriptyline (antidepressant)

propranolol

topamax (topiramate)

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24
Q

What medication can be given for treatment of acute migraine?

A

sumatriptan (causes vasoconstriction)

100% O2

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25
Q

What are normal albumin levels?

A

3.5-5

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26
Q

What two labs gives an indication of malnutrition?

A

prealbumin (early indicator)

albumin

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27
Q

Why are women’s H and H values lower than mens?

A

because testosterone stimulates erythropoietin production

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28
Q

According to Society of Critical Care medicine, what it the H & H threshold for blood transfusion?

A

hgb 8/ hct 24

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29
Q

If you give a patient one unit PRBC, how much do you expect their H & H to change?

A

hgb increase by 1, hct increase by 3

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30
Q

You would consider a PEG tube in a patient who needs enteral nutrition support for longer than _____ weeks.

A

6

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31
Q

What percent dextrose content requires a central line?

A

>10% dextrose content requires a central line

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32
Q

What are complications of enteral feedings?

A

aspiration

dehydration

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33
Q

What are complications of parenteral nutrition?

A

catheter related complications (infection, pneumo)

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34
Q

What is the most common electrolyte abnormality?

A

hyponatremia

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35
Q

How do you determine if hyponatremia has a renal or non-renal cause?

A

look at the urine sodium

if the urine sodium is <10 the problem is outside the kidney

if the urine sodium is >20 the problem is with the kidney

Normal urine sodium is 10-20

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36
Q

What are causes and treatments of a pseudohyponatremia AKA isotonic hyponatremia?

A

extreme hyperlipidemia

hyperproteniemia

treatment: cut down on the fat in the diet

*the patient is asymptomatic

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37
Q

What are some causes of hypoosmolar hypovolemic hyponatremia and what is the treatment?

A

diarrhea (c. dif)

vomiting/prolonged NG tube suctioning

diuretics

ace inhibitors

treatment: NS (replaces the Na+ and volume)

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38
Q

What are three causes of hypoosmolar hypervolemic hyponatremia and what is the treatment?

A

heart failure

cirrhosis

advanced renal failure

treatment: fluid restriction, diuretics if needed

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39
Q

What is a common cause of hyperosmolar hyponatremia?

A

elevated BG

HHNK

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40
Q

What are signs/symptoms of hypokalemia?

A

decreased amplitute, broad t-waves, multifocal PVCs, u-waves on EKG

muscle weakness/muscle cramps

<2.5 tetany, hyporeflexia, rhabdo

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41
Q

What are two differentials for a patient with new multifocal PVCs?

A

hypokalemia

MI

42
Q

How does alkalosis influence serum potassium levels?

A

high pH –>>> low K+

43
Q

What are causes and signs of of hyperkalemia?

A

chronic NSAID use

renal failure

signs: peaked T waves

44
Q

How do you treat hyperkalemia?

(What do you do when you “C BIG K” on the labs?)

A

C BIG K

calcium

bicarb

insulin

dextrose (“glucose”)

kayexalate

45
Q

Calcium levels need to be interpretted in relationship to albumin levels because calcium binds to albumin. Which calcium levels do not change with albumin levels, serum or ionized?

A

ionized calcium levels don’t fluctuate with albumin levels and therefore should be treated in critically ill patients

46
Q

What are causes of hypocalcemia?

A

pancreatitis

hypoparathyroidism

low magnesium

renal failure

severe trauma

multiple blood transfusions

47
Q

What are signs of hypocalcemia?

*(remember signs of hypocalcemia are “opposite/high”)

A

INCREASED DTRs

chvosteks (sustained cheek blink)

trousseau’s (carpal tunnel spasm)

QTc prolongation

48
Q

What are causes of hypercalcemia?

A

hyperthyroidism

hyperparathryoidism

vitamin D intoxication

prolonged immobility

the use of thiazide diuretics

49
Q

What are symptoms of hypercalcemia?

(remember it is opposite, everything is slow)

A

sluggish

fatigue

muscle weakness

N/V

constipation

50
Q

What is the drug treatment for hypercalcemia?

A

calcitonin, it pushes calcium back into the bone

consider NS and lasix

51
Q

How do you calculate an anion gap and why is it useful?

A

Na - bicarb - chloride

Normal 8-16ish

Anion gap is helpful to identify the cause of a metabolic acidosis.

52
Q

What are causes of non-anion gap metabolic acidosis?

(HARDUP)

A

Hyperchloraemia,
Acetazolamide, Addison’s disease
Renal tubular acidosis
Diarrhoea, ileostomies, fistulae
Ureteroenterostomies, uretosigmoid fistula
Pancreatoenterostomies, parenteral saline

53
Q

What are causes of anion gap metabolic acidosis?

(MUDPILES)

A

Methanol

Uremia

DKA

Paraldehyde

INH, iron

Lactic acidosis

Ethylene glyol

Salycilates

54
Q

The higher the anion gap the more ______ the patient.

A

acidotic and acutely ill

55
Q

What are causes of metabolic alkalosis and what drug can be used to treat metabolic alkalosis?

A

vomiting

prolonged NG suctioning

Manegement: acetazolamide/diamox forces the kidneys to excrete bicarbonate, the conjugate base of carbonic acid. By increasing the amount of bicarbonate excreted in the urine, the blood becomes more acidic

56
Q

What differentiates 1st and 2nd degree burns?

A

2nd degree has blistering and 1st degree doesn’t

57
Q

A burn that goes down to the muscle or bone is classified as what degree?

A

3rd degree

58
Q

According to the rule of 9s in burn injury, each arm is worth what percent?

A

9%

59
Q

According to the rule of 9s in burn injury, each leg is worth what percent?

A

18%

60
Q

According to the rule of 9s in burn injury, the front of the chest is worth what percent?

A

18%

61
Q

According to the rule of 9s in burn injury, the back of the chest is worth what percent?

A

18%

62
Q

According to the rule of 9s in burn injury, any burn to the head is worth what percent?

A

9%

63
Q

How do you calculate fluid requirements for a burn patient using the Parkland formula?

A

4ml/kg x TBSA burned = volume needed over 24 hours

1/2 given in the first 8 hours, the other 1/2 given in the next 16 hours.

the time begins at the time of injury, not at the time of arrival to the hospital

64
Q

If a 220 pound man had a 60% burn, how much fluid would he need in the first 24 hours?

A

4ml x 100kg x 60 = 24,000ml in the first 24 hours

12,000ml in the first 8 hours

12,000ml over the next 16 hours

65
Q

In the first three days of the burn the potassium will be ________. Three days post burn the potassium will be ____.

A

In the first three days of the burn the potassium will be high. Three days post burn the potassium will be low.

66
Q

What type of medication cream is used for the treatment of burns?

A

silvadene

67
Q

What type of bites are the dirtiest? human dog or cat?

A

human

68
Q

Generally speaking, how many hours do you have to close a wound?

A

less than 6 hours from the time of injury

69
Q

What antibiotic covers staph and anaerobes very well and can be given PO for 3-7 days for the treatment of bites?

A

augmentin

70
Q

What are the two major types of bacteria do we consider covering in outpatient cellulitis?

A

staph and strep

71
Q

How would you manage community associated MRSA without systemic symptoms?

A

Without systemic signs: I&D and culture, return in three days if not feeling better

72
Q

How would you manage community associated MRSA with systemic symptoms?

A

options: bactrim, doxyminocycline, clindamycin

73
Q

Clindamycin is sensitive to BOTH staph and _____. So it is a good single agent treatment for cellulitis

A

strep.

74
Q

What is the reversal agent for benzodiazapine overdose?

A

flumazenil

75
Q

What drug is used in the overdose of tylenol?

A

N-acetylcycsteine/mucomyst

76
Q

What type of overdose causes anion gap metabolic acidosis, tinnitus, hyperthiermia, elevated LFTs, and can be treated with dialysis?

A

ASA overdose

77
Q

Severe acidosis defined by ACLS is less than___.

A

7.1

78
Q

Acidosis and fever cause the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to shift to the_____.

A

right

79
Q

A shift to the right in the oxyhemaglobin dissociation curve can be caused by:

A

acidosis

fever

80
Q

MiOsis is seen in downers (heroin, synthetic opiates). Miosis is:

A

pupilary cOnstriction

81
Q

MydriAsis is seen in patients using uppers. Mydriasis means:

A

pupillary dilAtion

82
Q

Malignant hyperthermia and seratonin syndrome can both be treated with what drug?

A

dantrolene

83
Q

What are signs of organ transplant rejection?

A

flu-like prodrome and immediate failure of the organ

84
Q

What do you do if you suspect organ transplant rejection?

A

treat as transplant rejection until proven otherwise

call transplant service

biopsy the organ

85
Q

Varicilla (chicken pox) is a live vaccine so patients with _____ cannot get a varicella vaccine.

A

HIV

86
Q

Zostavax is a vaccine used for _____.

A

shingles prophylaxis

87
Q

If a patient has shingles on the side of the face, it is an emergency because the patient can:

A

go blind

88
Q

Two drugs used for the treatment of post herpatic neuralgia pain:

A

pregabalin (lyrica)

gabapentin

*both cause sleepiness and weight gain

89
Q

A typical presentation of herpes zoster looks like:

A

an erruption of vesicles with non-purulant exudate and errythema

90
Q

This type of keratosis is typically found on sun exposed areas of the body, including inside the ear, on top of the head, rough raised areas, and they are premalignant to squamous cell cancer.

A

actinic keratosis

91
Q

This type of carcinoma comes from actinic keratosis so they are usually in sun exposed places, they are firm, irregular papules or nodules, they bleed easily when scratched.

A

squamous cell cancer

92
Q

This type of keratosis is NOT premalignant, found on sun exposed and not sunexposed areas of the body, the have a stuck on appearance, brown/black plaques. Require no treatment. You can freeze them off if you want.

A

suborrheic keratosis

93
Q

The most common skin cancer. It is slow growing. It has a classic valcano lesion: spider veins, waxy shiny read, central depression.

A

basal cell carcinoma

94
Q

highest mortality rate of all skin cancers, can spread anywhere, ABCDE mnemonic applies

A

malignant melanoma

95
Q

What is the ABCDE(F) mnemonic for malignant melanoma?

A

Asymmetry

Boarders, irregular boarders

Color variation

Diameter >6mm

Enlargement

(F)riend (your friend points it out because it may be in a place you don’t see)

96
Q

Is EEG required for brain death diagnosis?

A

No, you do not need EEG for braindeath diagnosis

97
Q

Clinical indicators of brain death:

A

abscent reflexes

no cranial nerve involvement

apnea

“You aren’t dead until you are warm and dead.”

Brain death means you are dead both functionally and legally.

98
Q

In end of life care, scopolamine is indicated for____.

A

management of secretions

99
Q

In end of life care, morphine is indicated for _________.

A

tachypnea and respiratory distress

100
Q
A

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