Random Flashcards

1
Q

What visibility, etc, do we need in order to continue an instrument approach? When can we operate below DA/MDA?

A

You cannot begin the final approach unless you have the required visibility.

If you are past the FAF and you receive a report that weather has dropped below mins, you may continue for the “look see.”

Upon reaching DA / DDA (but before reaching the MAP), you may continue if:

  1. The aircraft is continuously in a position to make a landing in the touchdown zone using normal maneuvers and normal rates of descent;
  2. The FLIGHT visibility is not less than prescribed for that procedure;
  3. EXCEPT for CAT II / III, at least one of the following visual references is clearly visible:
    1. Approach light system (and can descend to 100’ above TDZE with approach lights in sight, but need the red side row bars or red terminating bars to go any lower)
    2. The threshold, its lights, its markings
    3. The touchdown zone, its lights, its markings
    4. The runway, its lights, its markings
    5. REILs / VASIs / PAPIs

You can call “continuing” on that basis of having the approach lights in sight, and can descend to 100’ above TDZE. But you can only call “landing” if you have the runway environment in sight.

Vol 1, 25.60 pg. 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

LOST COMMS PROCEDURES

A

VMC

If the failure occurs in VMC, or the aircraft enters and can maintain VMC for the remainder of the flight, continue under VFR and land as soon as practicable. Prior to landing, make visual contact with the tower (if present and operational) and obtain clearance to land via light gun signals.

IMC

If the failure occurs in IMC, or it is not possible to remain in VMC conditions, then continue the flight according to the following:

“AME high, CREP along”

Altitude: At the HIGHEST of the following altitudes for the route segment being flown:

  • ASSIGNED – the altitude assigned in the last ATC clearance received;
  • MEA – the minimum altitude for IFR operations; or
  • EXPECTED – the altitude ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance.

Route:

  • CLEARED – by the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received;
  • RADAR – if being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure, to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance;
  • EXPECTED – in the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance; or
  • PLANNED – in the absence of the previous, by the route filed in the flight plan.

Leave Clearance Limit:

  • If the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, commence descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC time; or if an EFC has not been received, as close as possible to the ETA from the flight plan.
  • If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the EFC time; or if an EFC has not been received, proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival from the flight plan.

Vol 1, 10.30 pg. 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DERIVED ALTERNATE WEATHER MINIMUMS

A

One NAVAID / Two NAVAID rule…

For airports with at least ONE operational navigational facility providing:

  1. a straight-in non-precision approach, or
  2. a CAT I precision approach, or
  3. a circling maneuver from an Instrument Approach Procedure,
  • Add 400 to DA / MDA
  • Add 1 sm to required visibility.

For airports with at least TWO operational navigational facilities, each providing a straight-in approach to different suitable runways:

  • Add 200 to the HIGHEST DA / MDA
  • Add ½ sm to HIGHEST required visibility

With regard to the 2 NAVAID rule, use “the highest of the lowest.”

Meaning, if you have a bunch of suitable approaches to choose from, naturally you’re going to choose the two best, the two with the lowest mins. Of those two, take the one that has the highest ceiling, and add the 200 to that. Then find the one that has the highest visibility requirement, and add ½ sm to that. The ceiling and visibility won’t necessarily be the same approach.

Vol 1, 20.20 pg. 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

HIGH MINS CAPTAINS

A
  • If the Captain has fewer than 100 hours as PIC (OE doesn’t count), increase approach mins by 100 and ½ sm.
  • For DISPATCH purposes, these increased mins must be applied to the destination airport, but not the alternate (alternate uses standard derived alternate mins, but you don’t have to add increased mins to derived mins).
  • However, if the flight diverts to the alternate, then the higher approach mins apply when actually flying the approach.

High mins Captains may NOT conduct CAT III ops.

However, Exemption 5549 largely nullifies these rules.

  • If the RVR < 1200, approach not authorized
  • If 1200 ≤ RVR < 1800, crews may execute CAT II approach using Procedure B.
  • If RVR ≥ 1800, crews may execute using Procedure A or B.

PROCEDURE A

Execute approach using CAT I procedures to published CAT I DA. Autopilot coupler must be used to DA or missed approach. The following requirements must be met:

  • Aircraft must be capable of a coupled approach;
  • Captain or FO must have at least 75 hours of PIC or SIC in the aircraft (which we will);
  • If RVR / VIS is less than ¾ sm, or 4000 RVR, max crosswind 15 kts and braking action must be good or better.

PROCEDURE B

Execute approach using CAT II procedures to published CAT II DH. Aircraft must be autolanded. The following requirements must be met:

  • PIC has at least 300 hours as PIC or SIC in turbojet airplanes (which we will);
  • Airport and aircraft must be capable of CAT II autoland;
  • Captain or FO must have at least 75 hours as PIC or SIC in the aircraft (which we will);
  • CAT II / III procedures utilized to autoland or missed approach.

Note: Frontier does not dispatch high mins Captains under Exemption 3585, but will use Exemption 5549 to the fullest extent possible.

Vol 1, 10.40 Pg. 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CREW BRIEFINGS

A
  • When practicable, the Captain should conduct a briefing with the full crew. If a crew member changes, brief the new crew member.
  • If briefing the full crew is not possible, then at least brief the FO and the “A” flight attendant. The “A” will brief the others. Flight attendants who were not briefed should, if possible, visit the flight deck and introduce themselves.
  • Due to the potentially sensitive nature of the material, briefings should be conducted away from passengers.

BRIEFING ELEMENTS:

  • Verify IDs and flight assignment;
  • State “standard brief” EXCEPT for…then brief items that are different for that flight;
  • MELs affecting cabin;
  • Time considerations (scheduled flight time, ETA, delays)
  • Weather (conditions / turbulence along the route);
  • Flight deck operations (what’s expected / allowed) while they are on the flight deck during a restroom break;
  • Security items

STANDARD BRIEF:

  • All manuals up-to-date;
  • Cabin safety and security (sterile cockpit procedures, Stat-MD procedures, disruptive passengers, flight deck entry/exit procedures, etc)
  • Communications (cabin/flight deck signals, importance of communication)
  • Emergency procedures (RTO, Cabin Advisory vs Emergency Prep, Ditching procedures, evacuation procedures)
  • International operations (required entry / Customs forms, International Briefcase, extended overwater flight equipment and procedures)
  • Tarmac Delay Program (TDP checklist, food and beverage service)

Vol 1, 15.20 Pg. 2-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

~~What are the three situations under which a Captain will sign an aircraft logbook?~~

A
  1. Computer reset
  2. Follow-up required
  3. Thrust bump used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Does an aborted takeoff require a logbook entry?

A

Only if the takeoff was aborted for some kind of mechanical reason. However, all aborted takeoffs require an incident report within 36 hours of completing the sequence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

HOLDING STUFF (USA & Mexico)

A

Speeds (USA):

  • Up to 6,000: 200 KIAS
  • 6,001 - 14,000: 230 KIAS
  • Above 14,000: 265 KIAS

Speeds (Mexico)

  • Up to 6,000: 200 KIAS
  • 6,001 to 14,000: 210 KIAS
  • Above 14,000: 230 KIAS

Timing:

  • At or below 14,000: 1 minute legs
  • Above 14,000: 1 ½ minute legs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When do we need an ARTR?

A

“SHAFT ME MI CAPT”

  • Suppplemental Crew Change
  • Hour past release time
  • Add an alternate
  • Fuel (adding more than 2,000 lbs, or changing brake release fuel, or no AWP and >400 lbs difference in fuel)
  • Takeoff alternate added
  • ME(L) added
  • MI(LES) change > 100
  • CAPT. CAPTAIN SIGNS (flag or domestic, if signed and captain is replaced, new copy of release is required [still showing old name], line out crew change, re-sign. If supplemental, any crew changes after Captain signs require ARTR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

AVIONICS VENTILATION SYSTEM:

  1. How many NORMAL configurations are there? List them. Describe the status of each component, and the phase of flight.
  2. How many ABNORMAL configurations are there? List them. Describe the status of each component, and the phase of flight.
A

NORMAL:

  1. Open configuration – inlet valve open, extract valve open, both fans on, no conditioned air, ground only.
  2. Closed configuration – inlet valve closed, extract valve closed, both fans on, no conditioned air, ground or air.
  3. Intermediate configuration – inlet valve closed, extract valve half open, both fans on, no conditioned air, flight only.

ABNORMAL:

  1. Blower fault / OVRD – (closed configuration) inlet valve closed, extract valve closed, blower fan OFF, extract fan ON, conditioned air on, in flight only
  2. Extract fault / OVRD – (closed configuration) inlet valve closed, extract valve closed, both fans on, conditioned air on, in flight only
  3. Smoke – (intermediate configuration) inlet valve closed, extract valve half open, blower fan off, extract fan on, conditioned air on, in flight only
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What emergency equipment is required to be on the flight deck?

A

Emergency equipment mnemonic

“FL GRAPES”

  • Flashlights
  • Life vests
  • Gloves (fire)
  • Ropes
  • Axe
  • PBE
  • Extinguisher
  • Smoke goggles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the items on the exterior safety inspection?

A

Exterior safety inspection mnemonic

“CLAC”

  • Chocks
  • Landing gear doors
  • APU area
  • Contamination check
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Before the application of electrical power, what do we need to accomplish?

A

Preliminary cockpit prep mnemonic

“LOC” & “REG B WREEL”

LOC

  • Logbook check (“SOM” = Sign-off, Open write-ups, MELs)
  • OEBs
  • CAT status / RNP status

REG B WREEL

  • Required manuals
  • Emer equipment (FL GRAPES)
  • Gear pins / covers
  • Breakers
  • Wipers off
  • Radar off
  • Engine master switches off
  • ENG MODE selector NORM
  • Landing gear lever down
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the different categories of MEL, and how long are they good for?

A
  • Category A: good for the number of days specified in the MEL.
  • Category B: 3 calendar days, excluding the day it was written up.
  • Category C: 10 calendar days, excluding the day it was written up.
  • Category D: 120 days, excluding the day it was written up.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do we need in order to be able to operate in RVSM airspace?

A

“FFAT PAD”

  • FWC (Flight Warning Computer)
  • FCU (Flight Control Unit)
  • Autopilot
  • Transponder
  • PFDs X2 (Primary Flight Displays)
  • ADRs X2 (ADR 1 required)(Air Data Reference)
  • DMCs X2 (Display Management Computers)

FAA requirements:

  • Two primary altitude measuring systems;
  • One automatic autopilot system;
  • One altitude alerting device; and
  • One altitude reporting transponder.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly