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Frontier Training > Initial Upgrade Exam > Flashcards

Initial Upgrade Exam Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Max takeoff weight for 319.
A

154,320 lbs

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2
Q
  1. Max takeoff weight for 320
A

166,440 lbs

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3
Q
  1. G load limits for clean configuration
A

-1 to +2.5

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4
Q
  1. Min runway width
A

100 ft / 30 m

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5
Q
  1. Max tailwind for takeoff
A
  • 10 kts for 321s
  • 15 kts for 319s / 320s
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6
Q
  1. Is #5 the same for all aircraft?
A

No

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7
Q
  1. Max tailwind for landing?
A

10 kts

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8
Q
  1. Is #7 the same for all aircraft?
A

Yes

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9
Q
  1. Define a narrow runway.
A

Any runway less than 150 ft / 45 m wide.

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10
Q
  1. Crosswind limit for wet narrow runway.
A

33 kts

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11
Q
  1. Max MMO.
A

0.82 Mach

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12
Q
  1. Severe Turbulent Air Penetration speed at FL 210.
A

275 KIAS

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13
Q
  1. Max airspeed at which gear may be retracted.
A

220 KIAS

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14
Q
  1. What is the taxi speed limitation on the 320s and 321s?
A

Weight greater than 167,550, 20 kts in a turn.

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15
Q
  1. Max positive differential pressure.
A

9.0 psi

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16
Q
  1. Is a log book entry required or any action required when APU “LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM” advisory displayed?
A

A logbook entry is not required after receiving this advisory message. Contact MCC to determine the status of required maintenance action.

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17
Q
  1. Max altitude for APU start.
A

39,000 ft (with normal electrics)

18
Q
  1. Min altitude for A/P engaged on ILS approach with CAT 1 displayed.
A

160 feet.

19
Q
  1. When is a DDA used?
A

DERIVED DECISION ALTITUDE (DDA)

  • For non-precision approaches conducted to an applicable Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA), a Derived Decision Altitude (DDA) must be calculated and observed as minima.
  • DDA is calculated by adding 50’ to the published MDA.

Vol 2, 2.10 pg. 4

A Derived Decision Altitude (DDA) must be utilized when conducting an approach with a published MDA(H). DDA is derived by adding 50 feet to the published MDA(H). This will ensure that the aircraft will not descend below the published MDA(H) if the required visual references for continuing the approach are not observed and a missed
approach becomes necessary.

Vol 1, 20.50 Pg. 2

20
Q
  1. When are autobrakes required?
A

Autobrakes (if available) are required for all CAT III approaches.

21
Q
  1. As Capt, you are on a CAT IIIB approach. What must be displayed prior to your call “landing?”
A

CAT 3 DUAL must be annunciated on the FMA.

22
Q
  1. During TO and Go-Around, when is the 10 min and 950 degree C time limit authorized?
A

Only in the case of engine failure.

23
Q
  1. Name 2 of the 5 limits for using reduced thrust takeoffs.
A

“MEL’s special COWs perform at 25%”

Flex takeoff permitted unless:

  • Prohibited by MEL
  • Prohibited by special departure procedure
  • Contaminated runway
  • OAT greater than assumed temp
  • Windshear
  • Performance
  • 25% reduction of thrust compared to full thrust setting
24
Q
  1. What is the max fuel imbalance?
A

3,300 lbs (varies widely).

25
Q
  1. Can you takeoff with one outer tank empty and the other full?
A

No

26
Q
  1. What do you use for the min O2 for 2/3/4 crewmembers?
A

4/6/8, 6/7/9, 6/8/10

27
Q
  1. When are you required to review the OEBs? Where are they found?
A

Review before EVERY flight. Found behind red tab at back of QRH.

28
Q
  1. When can the flight control check be accomplished?
A

After 2nd engine start.

29
Q
  1. When can the TO brief be conducted?
A

At any point deemed appropriate during the outbound taxi.

30
Q
  1. When can you call for the “TO to the Line” checklist?
A

After the FO’s takeoff briefing, the 2nd engine start, and the flight control checks have all been accomplished.

31
Q
  1. What are you required to check for the response to “Flight Instruments” on the checklist?
A
  • V1 Speed (blue) . . . SET
  • V2 Speed (magenta) . . . SET
  • Flight Director [(1FD2) (white)]. . . ON

”magenta over blue, 1 flight director 2.”

32
Q
  1. What is the min altitude and display required prior to engaging the A/P?
A

Above 100’ and SRS is displayed on FMA.

33
Q
  1. What altitude does “sterile” cockpit begin and end?
A

10,000 AFE

34
Q
  1. List the memory items for EMERGENCY DESCENT.
A

IMMEDIATE ACTIONS:

  • CREW OXY MASKS . . . USE
  • SIGNS . . . ON
  • EMER DESCENT . . . INITIATE
  • If A/THR is not active:
    • THR LEVERS . . . IDLE
  • SPD BRK . . . FULL
35
Q
  1. List the memory items for LOSS OF BRAKING.
A
  • REV . . . MAX
  • BRAKE PEDALS . . . RELEASE
  • A/SKID OFF . . . ORDER
  • A/SKID and N/W STRG . . . OFF
  • BRAKE PEDALS . . . PRESS
  • MAX BRK PR . . . 1000 PSI

If still no braking:

  • PARKING BRAKE . . . SHORT AND SUCCESSIVE APPLICATIONS
36
Q
  1. List the memory items for UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION.
A
  • AP / FD . . . OFF
  • A/THR . . . OFF
  • PITCH / THRUST
    • Below THR RED ALT. . . 15º / TOGA
    • Above THR RED ALT and Below FL 100 . . .10º / CL
    • Above THR RED ALT and Above FL 100 . . . 5º / CL
  • FLAPS . . . MAINTAIN CURRENT CONFIG
  • FLAPS (if CONF FULL) . . . SELECT CONF 3 AND MAINTAIN
  • SPEEDBRAKES. . . CHECK RETRACTED
  • L/G . . . UP
37
Q
  1. List memory items for WINDSHEAR AHEAD.
A

When airborne:

  • THR LEVERS . . . TOGA

As usual, the slat / flap configuration can be changed, provided the windshear is not entered.

  • AP (if engaged) . . . KEEP ON
  • SRS ORDERS . . . FOLLOW

During landing:

  • GO AROUND . . . PERFORM
  • AP (if engaged) . . . KEEP ON
38
Q
  1. List memory items for STALL RECOVERY.
A
  • NOSE DOWN PITCH CONTROL . . . APPLY
  • BANK . . . WINGS LEVEL
  • THRUST . . . INCREASE SMOOTHLY AS NEEDED
  • SPEEDBRAKES . . . CHECK RETRACTED
  • FLIGHT PATH . . . RECOVER SMOOTHLY

If below 20,000 and clean:

  • Flaps 1 . . . SELECT
39
Q
  1. List 3 of the 7 ECAM WARNING that are NOT inhibited during takeoff.
A
  • APU FIRE
  • ENG 1(2) FIRE
  • DUAL INPUT
  • L + R ELEV FAULT
  • L(R) SIDESTICK FAULT
  • FWC 1 + 2 FAULT
  • ENG DUAL FAILURE
40
Q
  1. How do you confirm the altitude if you are a STAR with a descent via to 11,000 and have a constraint on the PFD of 13,500?
A

When a constraint is displayed on the PFD that differs from the clearance altitude set on the FCU, pilots will point to and announce the clearance altitude (displayed on the FCU) and the constraint (displayed on the PFD).

41
Q
  1. In cruise flight, when is a crosscheck of the altimeters required?
A

At first level off in RVSM airspace and every hour thereafter.

Frontier Training (57 decks)

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