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MSK > Radiology > Flashcards

Radiology Flashcards

1
Q

What would MRIs show?

A
  • Bone outlines (less detailed)
  • soft tissue pathologies
  • bone marrow
  • discs
  • ligaments
  • spinal cord
  • nerves
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2
Q

What are the 3 normal curvatures of the spine?

A
  • cervical lordosis
  • thoracic kyphosis
  • lumbar lordosis
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3
Q

What is the smallest vertebrate region?

A
  • Cervical
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4
Q

What are the 2 main sections of each vertebrate?

A
  • vertebral body

- posterior arch

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5
Q

What is the posterior arch of a vertebral body composed of?

A
  • 2 pedicles
  • 2 laminae
  • 1 spinous process
  • 2 transverse processes
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6
Q

What lies inferior to the pedicle?

A
  • Neural foramen
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7
Q

What is transmitted in the neural foramen?

A
  • spinal nerve
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8
Q

What is unique about the C1 vertebrate?

A
  • no vertebral body
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9
Q

What is unique about the C2 vertebrate?

A
  • has an odontoid process which projects superiorly to C1
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10
Q

Explain the appearance of a brust fracture on x-ray?

A
  • Loss of vertebral height compared to normal
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11
Q

What causes a burst fracture?

A
  • axial compression
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12
Q

What is a potential consequence of a burst fracture?

A
  • Bone retro-pulsed into spinal nerves

- can compress the cauda equina

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13
Q

What is responsible for spinal stability?

A
  • the intervertebral ligaments
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14
Q

How can ligaments be seen?

A
  • MRI
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15
Q

Explain intervertebral disc disease?

A
  • healthy discs are pliable and contain water

- discs may dehydrate

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16
Q

Explain disc herniation

A
  • disc material may herniate through the disc lining into the spinal canal
  • may press on spinal nerves
  • nerve pressure produced sciatica
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17
Q

Define primary osteoarthritis?

A
  • OA in an expected joint

- e.g. spine, hip, knee, thumb base or DIP

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18
Q

Define secondary osteoarthritis?

A
  • OA in an unexpected joint
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19
Q

What are the radiological features of osteoarthritis?

A
  • Asymmetrical joint space reduction
  • osteophytes
  • sclerosis
  • cyst formation
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20
Q

What are the common joints affected by rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • MCP
  • MTP
  • PIP
  • Wrists
21
Q

What are the radiological features of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • synovial effusion
  • hyperaemia (bone demineralisation)
  • pannus erosion
  • deformity
22
Q

Seronegative arthritides comprise of what 2 main clinical features?

A
  • synovitis

- enthesitis

23
Q

Define enthesitis?

A
  • inflammation at sites where ligaments and tendons attach to bone
24
Q

What are the radiological features of the Seronegative arthritides

A
  • sacro-iliac joint involvement
  • enthesitis
  • ankylosis
25
Q

Explain an isotope bone scan

A
  • injection of radioactive material

- inflamed joints receive more isotope and look ‘hot’

26
Q

Elbow effusion will appear as what?

A
  • visible fat pad sign posterior
27
Q

Children’s fractures?

A
  • soft so prone to bend or bow

- greenstick (incomplete fracture)

28
Q

Bucket fracture and plastic bowing is associated with what age group?

A
  • Children
29
Q

What is the weakest region of developing bone?

A
  • growth plate (physis)
30
Q

What classification system is used for children’s fractures?

A
  • Salter-harris classification
31
Q

Bony ring injuries expect to see___

A
  • 2 or more injuries
32
Q

Elderly women falls onto outstretched hand? What fracture most likely?

A
  • Colles fracture
33
Q

Explain the affect of colles fracture

A
  • dorsal angulation of radius
34
Q

Intra-capsular femoral fracture risk?

A
  • risk to blood supply

- Avascular necrosis risk

35
Q

What type of femoral fracture has a AVN (avascular necrosis risk)

A
  • intra-capsular
36
Q

How do you treat an intra-capsular femoral fracture

A
  • hemiarthroplasty
37
Q

How do you treat a extra-capsular femoral fracture?

A
  • internal fixation
38
Q

Explain an acute avulsion fracture

A
  • a small chunk of bone attached to a tendon or ligament gets pulled away from the main part of the bone
39
Q

Where are some normal anatomy sites that may mimic an avulsion fracture?

A
  • sesamoid bones
  • accessory ossification centres
  • old non-united fractures
40
Q

A visible posterior fat pad is always abnormal.

True or false?

A
  • TRUE
41
Q

What is a Salter-Harris fracture?

A
  • Fracture to the growth plate
42
Q

A young to middle aged man with pain in the anatomical snuffbox. What fracture?

A
  • scaphoid fracture
43
Q

Surgical neck of humerus fracture may have what complication?

A
  • damage to axillary nerve
44
Q

What radiograph view must be performed in a suspected posterior shoulder dislocation?

A
  • oblique vire
45
Q

What fracture are you assessing when you check the humerocapitellar alignment?

A
  • supracondylar fracture

- injury to the narrowest part of the humerus

46
Q

What is the name of the line that marks the point between intra-capsular and extra-casual femoral fractures?

A
  • Inter-trochanter line
  • proximal = intra-capsular
  • distal = extra-capsular
47
Q

What would a knee effusion appear like on x-ray?

A
  • effusion will fill the normal suprapatellar fat pad, deep to the quadriceps tendon
48
Q

What is a ‘bumper injury’?

A
  • tibial plateau fracture

- valgus force with foot planted

49
Q

What must be remembered when examining a foot x-ray?

A
  • the 5th metatarsal has an accessory ossification centre

- should not be confused with a vertical fracture

MSK (16 decks)

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