QUIZ, Ch 1, 2, 5, 7, 8

Question 1

It is a busy Friday night in the aid room when a child arrives complaining of abdominal pain. The child states that her parents dropped her off and that they are at the movies. You are concerned because the child is a minor with no adult to give consent for treatment. You would:A) recognize that you must have some adult’s permission and try to locate an aunt or an uncle.B) do as much of an assessment as possible without touching the child to determine if alife-threatening emergency exists.C) recognize that the child needs to be assessed and that there is implied consent to treat.D) recognize that you need the parents’ consent and try to reach them by phone.

Answer 1

C) recognize that the child needs to be assessed and that there is implied consent to treat.

Question 2

Although regulations may differ from state to state, the general laws that may protect OEC Technicians from liability while providing emergency care to a patient are known as:A) emergency rescue protection laws. B) volunteer rescue liability laws.C) first rescuer liability laws. D) Good Samaritan laws.

Answer 2

D) Good Samaritan laws.

Question 3

Most teaching systems have found that the most effective way to master technical skills is by:A) teaching the skills to a class. B) personally practicing the skills.C) memorizing the skill guides in a book. D) observing others doing the skills.

Answer 3

B) personally practicing the skills.

Question 4

In order to maintain OEC certification, you must:A) complete a refresher course that covers the key objectives of the entire curriculum every threeyears.B) demonstrate CPR and AED skills every two years.C) complete a refresher course that covers the key objectives of the entire curriculum every year.D) complete a refresher course that covers one-third of the curriculum every year.

Answer 4

D) complete a refresher course that covers one-third of the curriculum every year.

Question 5

What type of consent would apply for an unresponsive 8-year-old male victim of a motorcycle collision?A) Implied consent B) Expressed consentC) Informed consent D) Assumed consent

Answer 5

A) Implied consent

Question 6

You arrive at the scene of an accident where a 22-year-old female skier has hit a tree and has a large bleeding cut on her head. When you ask her if she needs help, she refuses care and says she just needs to sit for a while. Noticing the amount of bleeding, you calmly express your concern for her, but she continues to say she doesn’t want help. You hesitate to touch her because you are concerned that if you do, she could accuse you of:A) duty to act. B) battery. C) breach of duty. D) assault.

Answer 6

B) battery.

Question 7

While in the aid room treating a patient with a fractured wrist, the patient tells you that he was skiing on a slope that was too difficult for him, and that he started going too fast and got out of control. You recognize that this information must be documented on the accident report because it provides evidence of:A) assumption of risk. B) contributory negligence.C) willful negligence. D) gross negligence.

Answer 7

B) contributory negligence.

Question 8

You have just finished your shift, and while driving home still wearing your patrol jacket you come upon a car collision in which people appear to be injured. You recognize that if you approach the collision wearing your patrol jacket, members of the public may have a reasonable expectation that you will provide care. This expectation is known as:A) the absence of negligence. B) moral obligation.C) professional ethics. D) the doctrine of public reliance.

Answer 8

D) the doctrine of public reliance.

Question 9

Which of the following methods is the best method for ensuring that the treatment rendered by OEC Technicians meets or exceeds customer expectations and national education standards for emergency medical personnel?A) Public education B) Quality improvementC) Continuity of care D) Prevention training

Answer 9

B) Quality improvement

Question 10

Guidelines developed at the local level by emergency personnel familiar with an area’s medical needs, available resources, system capabilities, and local standard of care are:A) advanced procedures. B) protocols.C) medical attributes. D) policies.

Answer 10

B) protocols.

Question 11

Which of the following tips is not a part of common radio etiquette?A) Hold the transmit key in for 1-2 seconds before speaking.B) Do not use the patient’s name.C) Include detailed information in a single transmission that takes no longer than 60 seconds.D) Speak directly into the microphone.

Answer 11

C) Include detailed information in a single transmission that takes no longer than 60 seconds.

Question 12

The seamless delivery of high-quality emergency medical care as a patient transitions from initial contact with an EMT through definitive treatment best describes:A) integration of health services. B) medical direction.C) online medical control. D) continuity of care.

Answer 12

D) continuity of care.

Question 13

An OEC Technician meets or exceeds the NHTSA national training requirements of:A) an Emergency Medical Responder.B) an advanced Emergency Medical Technician.C) a Paramedic.D) an Emergency Medical Technician.

Answer 13

A) an Emergency Medical Responder.

Question 14

All of the following are types of quality improvement except:A) recurrent. B) retrospective. C) concurrent. D) prospective.

Answer 14

A) recurrent.

Question 15

Which of the following characteristics is not a characteristic of indirect medical control?A) Provision through the use of protocolsB) Common use for “pre-authorizing” routine and life-saving proceduresC) Communication by radioD) Use for expediting patient care

Answer 15

C) Communication by radio

Question 16

Which of the following is most effective for reducing the incidence of injury or illness in skiing orother outdoor activities?A) Prevention B) Clinical careC) Public access D) Emergency personnel

Answer 16

A) Prevention

Question 17

For a patient with a suspected spinal injury, the least desirable urgent move for OEC Technicians touse is the:A) blanket drag. B) feet drag.C) shoulder drag. D) underarm-wrist drag.

Answer 17

B) feet drag.

Question 18

Which of the following questions is not of concern when preparing to move or lift a heavy object?A) What type of terrain is involved? B) Which carrying device will work best?C) How heavy is the object? D) How long will it take to make the move?

Answer 18

D) How long will it take to make the move?

Question 19

Extremity lifts may not be tolerated by:A) patients with ankle injuries.B) obese and young patients.C) patients with visual impairments.D) elderly patients and patients with respiratory disorders.

Answer 19

D) elderly patients and patients with respiratory disorders.

Question 20

Ideally an LZ should be flat (horizontal) or have a slope that is less than or equal to:A) a 4-degree pitch. B) a 12-degree pitch.C) an 8-degree pitch. D) a 6-degree pitch.

Answer 20

C) an 8-degree pitch.

Question 21

Commercially produced products are favored for draw sheet lifts because they generally have:A) handles. B) stitched edges.C) insulating qualities. D) waterproof qualities.

Answer 21

A) handles.

Question 22

The uphill positioning principle has exceptions. For patients with breathing difficulty the patient should be placed either seated or uphill depending on other injuries. The uphill concept allows easier breathing because:A) air flows more easily through a patient’s nose compared to a head-downhill position.B) the ribs have greater flexibility of movement in the uphill position.C) it calms patients by enabling them to see where they are going during transport.D) of less pressure from the abdominal contents pushing upwards.

Answer 22

D) of less pressure from the abdominal contents pushing upwards.

Question 23

Which of the following instructions is most important for combining optimal anatomic position with good body mechanics in a power lift?A) Squat down and keep your knees outward at a 45-degree angle.B) Keep your back muscles loose and your head bent forward.C) Maintain a wide stance (at least 24 inches).D) Straighten your legs to lift.

Answer 23

D) Straighten your legs to lift.

Question 24

The first step in packaging a patient is:A) typically placing the patient’s injury uphill.B) deciding who will be in the handles of the toboggan during transport.C) deciding how to get the patient and equipment off the hill.D) deciding the fastest route of transport.

Answer 24

A) typically placing the patient’s injury uphill

Question 25

Which of the following findings is a symptom?A) Hives resulting from an allergic reaction B) A deep lacerationC) Ringing in the ears D) Difficulty breathing

Answer 25

C) Ringing in the ears

Question 26

As you assess a patient using the DCAP-BTLS mnemonic, the letter that denotes edema of theankle is:A) P. B) T. C) S. D) C.

Answer 26

C) S.

Question 27

A 36-year-old patient who has overdosed on an unknown drug, is breathing and will not open his eyes, even when his name is loudly called. Which one of the following should the OEC Technician do first?A) Perform a shoulder pinch. B) Identify what drug the patient took.C) Check the patient’s vital signs. D) Assess the patient for a radial pulse.

Answer 27

A) Perform a shoulder pinch.

Question 28

You are assessing a four-year-old patient whose panicked mother states that she cannot wake him. The child is breathing but his eyes are closed. To best determine the child’s mental status, youshould first:A) say loudly, “Open your eyes!”B) apply pressure to the child’s nail beds.C) ask the mother how long the child has been asleep.D) consider the child to be unresponsive.

Answer 28

A) say loudly, “Open your eyes!”

Question 29

Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician correctly understands capillary refill?A) “Flushed skin in an adult is a normal finding when assessing capillary refill.”B) “A capillary refill of four or more seconds in a patient of any age indicates that the patient iswell oxygenated.”C) “For a capillary refill test to be normal for a child, it must be assessed at room temperatureand be less than two seconds.”D) “Capillary refill is a reliable sign of perfusion in adults, but not as reliable in infants andchildren.”

Answer 29

C) “For a capillary refill test to be normal for a child, it must be assessed at room temperatureand be less than two seconds.”

Question 30

Which of the following signs should an OEC Technician detect during a secondary assessment of a critically injured patient?A) Decreased level of responsiveness B) Inadequate respiratory effortC) Weak carotid pulse and clammy skin D) Bruising and tenderness to the abdomen

Answer 30

D) Bruising and tenderness to the abdomen

Question 31

A Glasgow Coma Scale score less than ________ is associated with a high risk for major neurological injury.A) 10 B) 8 C) 12 D) 13

Answer 31

D) 13

Question 32

You are assessing an eight-month-old whose mother states has been vomiting for two days and not eating or drinking. When assessing the pulse, which site should you check?A) The femoral artery B) The brachial arteryC) The radial artery D) The temporal artery

Answer 32

B) The brachial artery

Question 33

Which of the following statements about prehospital care reports is accurate?A) They are forms published by the NSAA or the ski area’s insurance company.B) National standards allow up to three days after the accident for the forms to be fullycompleted.C) They may become part of the patient’s permanent medical record.D) You should only document the care provided to the patient but not scene information,because the latter can be confusing.

Answer 33

C) They may become part of the patient’s permanent medical record.

Question 34

Two days after a call, you realize that you forgot to document that you checked a patient’s pupils before the patient refused further treatment and signed a refusal form. Which of the following actions is your best course of action?A) Report the error to your patrol director and have him/her take care of it.B) Don’t worry about it because it did not seem to matter to the patient.C) Complete a new refusal form and include the additional information.D) Add an addendum to the report that contains the correct information, the current date, andyour signature.

Answer 34

D) Add an addendum to the report that contains the correct information, the current date, andyour signature.

Question 35

When asked, an alert and oriented 44-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure reports that he called for help because “my chest is hurting.” He is diaphoretic and nauseated, has a pulse of 88 and a BP of 156/92, and says that his pain “feels just like my heart attack two years ago.” Based on this information, how would you document his chief complaint on the patient care report?A) Possible heart attack B) Chest pain with hypertensionC) Myocardial infarction D) “My chest is hurting.”

Answer 35

D) “My chest is hurting.”

Question 36

In the acronym FACTUAL-OEC, the letters OEC stand for:A) outdoor emergency care. B) organized, effective, and complete.C) objective, effective, and care given. D) organized, error free, and checked.

Answer 36

D) organized, error free, and checked.

Question 37

An individual who is required to report cases of child abuse to the appropriate state agency is called a(n):A) required abuse reporter. B) child guardian.C) emergency protector. D) mandated reporter.

Answer 37

D) mandated reporter.

Question 38

When patients refuse care, the most important thing to document is:A) their condition when you last saw them.B) the names of witnesses to what you said to them.C) that the patients understood and accepted the risks of refusal.D) whether they were accompanied by anyone when you left them.

Answer 38

C) that the patients understood and accepted the risks of refusal.

Question 39

After your initial evaluation of the patient you would communicate by radio with patrol base. Following the acronym SAILER, what information would you include?A) Sex, age, chief complaint, splints neededB) Surname, location of accident, age, insurance companyC) Surname, age, address, chief complaintD) Age, next of kin, treatment initiated, request for EMS (if needed)

Answer 39

A) Sex, age, chief complaint, splints needed

Question 40

A patient states that he has had a headache located in his forehead for three days. Utilizing the SOAP format you would document this piece of information as a(n):A) objective finding. B) subjective finding.C) provoking factor. D) pertinent negative.

Answer 40

B) subjective finding.

Question 41

The National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health reports that ________ of all workplace injuries are back related. a. 20 percent b. 50 percent c. 70 percent d. 90 percent

Answer 41

a. 20 percent

Question 42

National EMS organizations estimate that as many as ___ percent of workers have sustained back injuries. a. 5 b. 10 c. 50 d. 80

Answer 42

c. 50

Question 43

To maintain proper alignment when moving or lifting a heavy object, the weight of the object must be: a. offset using shoulder and chest strength. b. distributed to the lower back. c. evenly transferred to the legs. d. transferred to the forearms and biceps.

Answer 43

c. evenly transferred to the legs.

Question 44

To lessen one’s chances of injury while lifting and moving a patient, one should: a. roll the patient. b. combine good lifting and moving techniques. c. use a long-axis drag to avoid lifting. d. avoid manual moves and instead use mechanical devices.

Answer 44

b. combine good lifting and moving techniques.

Question 45

When a person exhibits good body mechanics and lifts properly, the spine is: a. slightly bent in the upper thoracic region. b. straight at the thoracic region and bent in the lumbar region. c. bent at no more than 15 degrees. d. straight and in an anatomical position.

Answer 45

d. straight and in an anatomical position.

Question 46

Which of the following questions is not of concern when preparing to move or lift a heavy object? a. How heavy is the object? b. How long will it take to make the move? c. What type of terrain is involved? d. Which carrying device will work best?

Answer 46

b. How long will it take to make the move?

Question 47

Which of the following pieces of equipment do OEC Technicians use most to move, lift, and carry a patient? a. Long spine board (LSB) b. Orthopedic stretcher c. Portable stretcher d. Basket stretcher

Answer 47

a. Long spine board (LSB)

Question 48

When used correctly, the power grip maximizes the force of the hands, which are placed: a. palms down and 8 inches apart. b. palms up and 10 inches apart. c. palms up and 5 inches apart. d. palms down and 18 inches apart.

Answer 48

b. palms up and 10 inches apart.

Question 49

When using the power grip, the hands are: a. placed underneath the lifting device and held loosely. b. placed underneath the lifting device and held firmly. c. placed on the side of the lifting device and held firmly. d. held on the side of the device at a 45-degree angle.

Answer 49

b. placed underneath the lifting device and held firmly.

Question 50

Which of the following instructions is most important for combining optimal anatomic position with good body mechanics in a power lift? a. Maintain a wide stance (at least 24 inches). b. Keep your back muscles loose and your head bent forward. c. Straighten your legs to lift. d. Squat down and keep your knees outward at a 45-degree angle

Answer 50

c. Straighten your legs to lift.

Question 51

Extremity lifts may not be tolerated by: a. obese and young patients. b. elderly patients and patients with respiratory disorders. c. patients with visual impairments. d. patients with ankle injuries.

Answer 51

b. elderly patients and patients with respiratory disorders.

Question 52

Like a direct ground lift, a ________ lift is used to raise patients who are lying on their back. a. LEAN b. BEAN c. MEAN d. SEAN

Answer 52

b. BEAN

Question 53

With a BEAM lift, the patient is: a. assisted to a standing position. b. rolled onto a long board. c. lifted onto a short board. d. lifted and carried a short distance.

Answer 53

d. lifted and carried a short distance.

Question 54

Commercially produced products are favored for draw sheet lifts because they generally have: a. waterproof qualities. b. handles. c. stitched edges. d. insulating qualities.

Answer 54

b. handles.

Question 55

Of the four lift techniques OEC Technicians use, the draw sheet method: a. has the lowest risk of back injury to rescuers. b. requires the fewest rescuers to use. c. has the lowest rate of dropped patient incidents. d. is the safest for the patient.

Answer 55

a. has the lowest risk of back injury to rescuers.

Question 56

During transport, the patient must be properly positioned for comfort and to do no further harm. The Semi-Fowler position places the patient in a: a. supine position with the legs raised 15 degrees. b. sitting position with the head raised 90 degrees. c. sitting position with the head raised 45 degrees. d. supine position with the legs raised 45 degrees.

Answer 56

c. sitting position with the head raised 45 degrees.

Question 57

The high-Fowler position, in which the patient is seated with the head at 90 degrees, is typically used for patients with: a. a fractured collar bone. b. abdominal injuries. c. eye injuries. d. severe respiratory problems

Answer 57

d. severe respiratory problems

Question 58

Patients with chest pain due to a suspected heart attack are generally transported in ________ position. a. a supine b. a prone c. the Rothberg d. the semi-Fowler

Answer 58

c. the Rothberg

Question 59

The first step in packaging a patient is: a. deciding how to get the patient and equipment off the hill. b. typically placing the patient’s injury uphill. c. deciding the fastest route of transport. d. deciding who will be in the handles of the toboggan during transport.

Answer 59

b. typically placing the patient’s injury uphill.

Question 60

The uphill positioning principle has exceptions. For patients with breathing difficulty the patient should be placed either seated or uphill depending on other injuries. The uphill concept allows easier breathing because: a. the ribs have greater flexibility of movement in the uphill position. b. air flows more easily through a patient’s nose compared to a head-downhill position. c. it calms patients by enabling them to see where they are going during transport. d. of less pressure from the abdominal contents pushing upwards.

Answer 60

d. of less pressure from the abdominal contents pushing upwards.

Question 61

Shock patients who are not having difficulty breathing are placed head downhill because doing so: a. increases perfusion to vital organs. b. increases the heart rate. c. increases blood pressure. d. decreases blood pressure.

Answer 61

a. increases perfusion to vital organs.

Question 62

A woman who is six months pregnant and experiencing back pain should be placed on a backboard and then placed in a toboggan in which of the following positions? a. In a supine position b. Positioned on her left side c. With her head uphill d. With her head downhill

Answer 62

b. Positioned on her left side

Question 63

Transporting a patient using a basket litter: a. requires four to six rescuers. b. involves towing it behind a motorized vehicle. c. requires one patroller at the front and one patroller on the tail rope. d. can be achieved using a chairlift.

Answer 63

a. requires four to six rescuers.

Question 64

A basket stretcher is the best method for transporting a patient: a. out of the back country. b. on an LSB in any terrain. c. with a fractured femur. d. who is extremely heavy.

Answer 64

a. out of the back country.

Question 65

A device best used to transport a patient in a tight space is known as: a. a wheeled stretcher. b. a short board. c. a Kendrick extrication device. d. an evacuation chair.

Answer 65

d. an evacuation chair.

Question 66

An appropriate landing zone (LZ) for safely landing a helicopter is an open area that is approximately: a. 75 feet x 100 feet. b. 100 feet x 100 feet. c. 100 feet x 200 feet. d. 200 feet x 200 feet.

Answer 66

b. 100 feet x 100 feet.

Question 67

Ideally an LZ should be flat (horizontal) or have a slope that is less than or equal to: a. a 4-degree pitch. b. a 6-degree pitch. c. an 8-degree pitch. d. a 12-degree pitch.

Answer 67

c. an 8-degree pitch.

Question 68

During helicopter landing or takeoff, only the _______ is(are) allowed in the LZ. a. OEC Technician and the patient b. landing coordinator c. patrol director d. risk manager

Answer 68

b. landing coordinator

Question 69

After a landing helicopter is safely on the ground, one may approach the aircraft only when signaled by the: a. pilot or crew chief. b. landing coordinator. c. Fire Department chief. d. senior police officer on the scene.

Answer 69

a. pilot or crew chief.

Question 70

When approaching a helicopter, whether it is running or not, always do so from the: a. front. b. back. c. left side. d. right side.

Answer 70

a. front.

Question 71

Which of the following instructions for approaching a running rescue helicopter is not correct? a. Remain in an upright position and move slowly. b. Remain low. c. Remove any loose clothing. d. Remain in sight of the pilot at all times.

Answer 71

a. Remain in an upright position and move slowly.

Question 72

An urgent move is required when: a. a patient is in severe pain. b. the rescuer and the patient must move to a safer location. c. a crowd of people has formed around you and the patient. d. the patient complains of being cold on a 10-degree day.

Answer 72

b. the rescuer and the patient must move to a safer location.

Question 73

In most instances, an urgent move is performed: a. only after additional help has arrived. b. only when Medical Control orders it. c. before any assessment has been performed. d. after the primary and secondary assessments have been completed.

Answer 73

c. before any assessment has been performed.

Question 74

The greatest risk posed by an urgent move is: a. not getting the patient’s name and address. b. changing the position of the patient and causing a risk-management investigation. c. delaying interventions for life-threatening conditions. d. incurring a lawsuit by the patient.

Answer 74

c. delaying interventions for life-threatening conditions.

Question 75

To use an urgent move called the shoulder drag, you should: a. grab one arm at the shoulder and drag the patient to a safe position. b. stand behind the patient and grab the patient’s belt while their shoulders are against your chest. c. stand upright behind the patient, bend over, and then grab the patient under the armpits and drag. d. grab the patient’s clothing at the shoulders, support the head, and then bend your knees and drag the patient.

Answer 75

d. grab the patient’s clothing at the shoulders, support the head, and then bend your knees and drag the patient.

Question 76

For a patient with a suspected spinal injury, the least desirable urgent move for OEC Technicians to use is the: a. feet drag. b. blanket drag. c. shoulder drag. d. underarm-wrist drag.

Answer 76

a. feet drag.

Question 77

The best non-urgent move for OEC Technicians to use when alone is the: a. human crutch. b. chair carry. c. fore and aft carry. d. back carry.

Answer 77

a. human crutch.

Question 78

Which of the following lists presents the order in which an OEC Technician should assess a patient in a field setting? a. Primary assessment, reassessment, secondary assessment b. Scene size-up, secondary assessment, primary assessment c. Scene size-up, primary assessment, secondary assessment d. Scene size-up, history, secondary assessment, primary assessment

Answer 78

c. Scene size-up, primary assessment, secondary assessment

Question 79

You have been dispatched to an 89-year-old female with an unspecified complaint. When assessing this patient, which one of the following will the OEC Technician do as quickly as possible to develop a better understanding of the emergency? a. Obtain the patient’s vital signs and current medications. b. Gather a medical history, including information on allergies. c. Contact medical direction for advice. d. Determine if the complaint is medical (NOI) or trauma related (MOI).

Answer 79

d. Determine if the complaint is medical (NOI) or trauma related (MOI).

Question 80

Which of the following statements would indicate that an OEC Technician has appropriately initiated the first phase of a patient assessment? a. I have placed an oral airway in the patient. b. The scene appears to be free of hazards. c. Blood pressure is 124/80 mmHg. d. Can you tell me why you called for help?

Answer 80

b. The scene appears to be free of hazards.

Question 81

You arrive at the scene of a fall, where a 42-year-old woman fell backward off a stepladder while cleaning windows. She is lying on the ground complaining of pain to her ankle. She tells you, If I had just been more careful and moved the ladder instead of reaching, this never would have happened! Based on this information, which of the following can you conclude? a. She has an open airway, is breathing, and has circulating blood to her brain. b. Her pulse rate is within normal limits. c. She does not require rapid transport. d. She does not have any other injuries.

Answer 81

a. She has an open airway, is breathing, and has circulating blood to her brain.

Question 82

You have been dispatched for an elderly male complaining of shortness of breath. When should you start the process of forming a general impression about this patient? a. While you and your partner are approaching him b. After completing a primary assessment c. As soon as you obtain his chief complaint d. After you have taken his vital signs

Answer 82

a. While you and your partner are approaching him

Question 83

You have been called for an adult patient who suffered a seizure. He is sitting on the floor, and he looks at you as you enter the room. When questioned, he responds to his name, but cannot remember the date or where he is. This patient’s mental status is best described as: a. alert but confused. b. lethargic and agitated. c. having an altered response to verbal stimuli. d. visually disoriented.

Answer 83

c. having an altered response to verbal stimuli.

Question 84

A 36-year-old patient who has overdosed on an unknown drug, is breathing and will not open his eyes, even when his name is loudly called. Which one of the following should the OEC Technician do first? a. Check the patient’s vital signs. b. Perform a shoulder pinch. c. Assess the patient for a radial pulse. d. Identify what drug the patient took.

Answer 84

b. Perform a shoulder pinch.

Question 85

Which of the following patients should be classified as unresponsive? a. A 39-year-old female who is confused b. A 52-year-old who cannot answer your questions c. A 70-year-old female who has suffered a stroke d. A 46-year-old male who does not respond to a shoulder pinch

Answer 85

d. A 46-year-old male who does not respond to a shoulder pinch

Question 86

You are assessing a four-year-old patient whose panicked mother states that she cannot wake him. The child is breathing but his eyes are closed. To best determine the child’s mental status, you should first: a. apply pressure to the child’s nail beds. b. say loudly, Open your eyes! c. ask the mother how long the child has been asleep. d. consider the child to be unresponsive.

Answer 86

b. say loudly, Open your eyes!

Question 87

You are by the side of a patient who is unresponsive and has a history of heart failure. When assessing the airway, which one of the following observations best indicates a patent airway? a. You can hear normal respirations and see the chest rise and fall. b. She has a pulse of 80 per minute. c. Her mouth is open and you can hear gurgling sounds. d. You can see that her tongue has not fallen back where it would block the airway.

Answer 87

a. You can hear normal respirations and see the chest rise and fall.

Question 88

You are assisting at an Outdoor Emergency Care course. One of the students asks you how the head tilt-chin lift airway maneuver works to open the airway. Your best response is: a. It opens the airway by lifting the tongue from the back of the throat. b. It creates an open airway by separating the lips, thereby allowing air to enter. c. It stimulates the patient to begin taking deeper breaths, thereby moving air into the lungs. d. It opens the airway by relaxing and expanding the size of the throat.

Answer 88

a. It opens the airway by lifting the tongue from the back of the throat.

Question 89

How should an OEC Technician best determine the adequacy of a patient’s breathing during a primary assessment? a. Determine the patient’s mental status. b. Compare the patient’s respiration and pulse rates. c. Assess the patient’s ability to speak. d. Look for the rise and fall of the patient’s chest.

Answer 89

d. Look for the rise and fall of the patient’s chest.

Question 90

A secondary assessment consists of which of the following three steps? a. Medical history, physical exam, and vital signs b. ABCDs, on-going exam, and vital signs c. Medical history, trauma exam, and vital signs d. On-going exam, detailed physical exam, and vital signs

Answer 90

a. Medical history, physical exam, and vital signs

Question 91

An OEC Technician’s assessment of a trauma patient’s circulation status during a primary assessment should include: a. carotid pulse, capillary refill, blood pressure, and skin color. b. radial pulse, examination for the presence of external bleeding, and LOR. c. skin color, pulse rate, blood pressure, and skin temperature. d. pulse rate, blood pressure, capillary refill, and skin condition.

Answer 91

b. radial pulse, examination for the presence of external bleeding, and LOR.

Question 92

While taking vital signs, you cannot locate a radial pulse in a possible broken arm of a 42-year-old male who is alert and breathing adequately. Which one of the following should you do? a. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation. b. Attach the automated external defibrillator (AED). c. Start positive pressure ventilation. d. Assess the carotid artery for a pulse.

Answer 92

d. Assess the carotid artery for a pulse.

Question 93

You are assessing an eight-month-old whose mother states has been vomiting for two days and not eating or drinking. When assessing the pulse, which site should you check? a. The temporal artery b. The radial artery c. The femoral artery d. The brachial artery

Answer 93

d. The brachial artery

Question 94

The finding that a patient’s skin is warm, pink, and dry during a primary assessment suggests: a. possible shock. b. possible fever. c. poor oxygenation. d. normal circulation.

Answer 94

d. normal circulation.

Question 95

Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician correctly understands capillary refill? a. Capillary refill is a reliable sign of perfusion in adults, but not as reliable in infants and children. b. Flushed skin in an adult is a normal finding when assessing capillary refill. c. A capillary refill of four or more seconds in a patient of any age indicates that the patient is well oxygenated. d. For a capillary refill test to be normal for a child, it must be assessed at room temperature and be less than two seconds.

Answer 95

d. For a capillary refill test to be normal for a child, it must be assessed at room temperature and be less than two seconds.

Question 96

You are interviewing a prospective candidate for the position of OEC Technician with your service. During the interview, you ask the applicant to describe the purpose of the primary assessment. Which of the following best describes that purpose? a. To establish a chief complaint and gather a medical history b. To determine if the patient’s vital signs are stable c. To identify and treat life-threatening conditions d. To perform an exam focused on the patient’s chief complaint

Answer 96

c. To identify and treat life-threatening conditions

Question 97

Forming a general impression is started during which phase of patient assessment? a. Reassessment b. Secondary assessment c. Primary assessment d. Communication and documentation

Answer 97

c. Primary assessment

Question 98

A 44-year-old male was on a ladder cutting limbs from a tree when he fell. He is found to be unresponsive with normal respirations. His breathing is adequate at a rate of 12 per minute and his carotid pulse is strong at 88 per minute. Following the primary assessment and initial management, which one of the following actions will the OEC Technician complete while performing the secondary assessment? a. Get a medical history from a family member. b. Start positive pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask. c. Place an oral airway and put a cervical collar on the patient. d. Perform a jaw-thrust maneuver to open the airway.

Answer 98

a. Get a medical history from a family member.

Question 99

Which of the following signs should an OEC Technician detect during a secondary assessment of a critically injured patient? a. Decreased level of responsiveness b. Weak carotid pulse and clammy skin c. Inadequate respiratory effort d. Bruising and tenderness to the abdomen

Answer 99

d. Bruising and tenderness to the abdomen

Question 100

You are performing a secondary assessment on the unrestrained adult passenger of a motor vehicle that rolled several times at a high rate of speed. The patient is responsive to painful stimuli and in a state of hypoperfusion. When assessing the head, which one of the following is appropriate? a. Cleaning a scalp laceration b. Checking the pupils with a pen light c. Performing a blind finger sweep to clear the airway d. Applying pressure to a depressed area of the skull

Answer 100

b. Checking the pupils with a pen light

Question 101

A complete set of vitals is taken at the: a. beginning and end of the secondary assessment. b. beginning of the secondary assessment. c. end of the secondary assessment. d. end of the primary assessment.

Answer 101

a. beginning and end of the secondary assessment.

Question 102

DCAP-BTLS is mnemonic to assist you in remembering: a. a trauma patient’s vital signs. b. what to assess for while inspecting and palpating a patient. c. medications, allergies, and the patient’s medical history. d. the order in which to assess a patient during a physical exam.

Answer 102

b. what to assess for while inspecting and palpating a patient.

Question 103

The D in DCAP-BTLS stands for: a. dislocation. b. damage. c. deformity. d. dyspnea.

Answer 103

c. deformity.

Question 104

While you are performing a secondary assessment, your trauma patient complains of the sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Which of the following is your most appropriate response? a. Make a mental note and continue with the assessment. b. Stop the assessment and provide appropriate care. c. Reassess the patient, beginning with the head. d. Reevaluate the mechanism of injury.

Answer 104

b. Stop the assessment and provide appropriate care.

Question 105

An OEC Technician should obtain the medical history of an alert and oriented trauma patient during the: a. primary assessment. b. scene size-up. c. secondary assessment. d. reassessment.

Answer 105

c. secondary assessment.

Question 106

Which of the following responses is an appropriate response for the letter P in the OPQRST mnemonic for a patient with abdominal pain? a. It hurts worse when I take a deep breath. b. My pulse feels as though it is racing. c. I have a past history of asthma. d. The pain started about two hours ago.

Answer 106

a. It hurts worse when I take a deep breath.

Question 107

During assessment of a responsive medical patient, you gather a medical history using the memory aid SAMPLE. To obtain information related to M, which one of the following questions should you ask? a. Do you have any past medical problems? b. Are you allergic to any medications? c. Are you currently taking any medications? d. Can you point to where it hurts the most?

Answer 107

c. Are you currently taking any medications?

Question 108

An OEC Technician identifies the medications a patient takes during which portion of a patient assessment? a. The primary assessment b. The OPQRST exam c. The chief complaint d. The history

Answer 108

d. The history

Question 109

Which of the following actions should you take during a secondary assessment of a 45-year-old female with a severe headache? a. Assess from head to toe, obtain a SAMPLE history, and obtain vital signs b. Reassess vital signs, open the airway, and obtain OPQRST information c. Continue emergency care, obtain the chief complaint, and gather a SAMPLE history d. Assess the head, reevaluate vital signs, and continue emergency care

Answer 109

a. Assess from head to toe, obtain a SAMPLE history, and obtain vital signs

Question 110

Which one of the following statements best describes the purpose of obtaining a single Glasgow Coma Scale score (GCS) in a patient with a head injury? a. The score gives information about the type of injury to the brain. b. The score provides an objective measure of the patient’s overall neurologic condition. c. The score is important in guiding an OEC Technician’s treatment of the patient. d. The score helps determine whether a patient’s mental status is improving or deteriorating.

Answer 110

b. The score provides an objective measure of the patient’s overall neurologic condition.

Question 111

The Glasgow Coma Scale score for verbal reaction that is assigned to a patient who answers questions inappropriately is: a. 2. b. 3. c. 4. d. 5.

Answer 111

c. 4.

Question 112

A Glasgow Coma Scale score less than ____ is associated with a high risk for major neurological injury. a. 12 b. 10 c. 8 d. 13

Answer 112

d. 13

Question 113

A chief complaint is defined as the: a. findings from a primary survey. b. primary reason the person is seeking medical care. c. findings from a secondary survey. d. findings from a SAMPLE interview.

Answer 113

b. primary reason the person is seeking medical care.

Question 114

The key to a successful assessment is: a. a systematic and universal approach. b. toe to head physical exam. c. a rapid trauma exam. d. interviewing bystanders.

Answer 114

a. a systematic and universal approach.

Question 115

Patient assessment is: a. a specialized skill for EMTs b. an advanced emergency management skill. c. a fundamental and essential skill. d. a skill that provides answers only when conducted in a specific order.

Answer 115

c. a fundamental and essential skill.

Question 116

Which of the following things does not indicate a possible safety issue during a scene size-up? a. Downed wires b. Ice or mud c. Wild animals d. ABCDs

Answer 116

d. ABCDs

Question 117

An easy way for an OEC Technician to remember what to look for in assessing a trauma patient is the: a. acronym SAMPLE. b. mnemonic APVU. c. mnemonic DCAP-BTLS. d. mnemonic OPQRST.

Answer 117

c. mnemonic DCAP-BTLS.

Question 118

As you assess a patient using the DCAP-BTLS mnemonic, the letter that denotes edema of the ankle is: a. C. b. S. c. P. d. T.

Answer 118

b. S.

Question 119

Your patient is 5 years old and has fallen, resulting in a scraped knee. What letter indicates this in the DCAP-BTLS mnemonic? a. D b. L c. A d. S

Answer 119

c. A

Question 120

Which of the following findings is a sign, not a symptom? a. An open leg fracture b. An upset stomach c. A sharp headache d. Chest pain

Answer 120

a. An open leg fracture

Question 121

Which of the following findings is a symptom? a. A deep laceration b. Hives resulting from an allergic reaction c. Difficulty breathing d. Ringing in the ears

Answer 121

d. Ringing in the ears

Question 122

Signs and symptoms can be identified using the: a. SAMPLE acronym. b. DCAP-BTLS mnemonic. c. OPQRST mnemonic. d. AVPU mnemonic.

Answer 122

a. SAMPLE acronym.

Question 123

What letter in a SAMPLE interview indicates that a patient has a history of seizures? a. S b. A c. M d. P

Answer 123

d. P

Question 124

What letter in a SAMPLE interview indicates that a patient had pancakes for breakfast two hours ago? a. M b. P c. L d. E

Answer 124

c. L

Question 125

As you assess a patient for a medical emergency, the patient states the pain is in their chest up to the shoulder and down the right arm. To what letter of OPQRST would this apply? a. O b. P c. Q d. R

Answer 125

d. R

Question 126

What letter of the OPQRST mnemonic reflects a medical emergency patient’s report that difficulty in breathing is worst while attempting to walk? a. O b. P c. Q d. R

Answer 126

b. P

Question 127

What letter of the OPQRST mnemonic reflects a medical emergency patient’s report that difficulty in breathing became worse about two hours ago? a. Q b. R c. S d. T

Answer 127

d. T

Question 128

Which of the following tasks is part of a secondary assessment? a. Opening the airway b. Checking for life-threatening bleeding c. Inserting an OPA d. Taking a blood pressure reading

Answer 128

d. Taking a blood pressure reading

Question 129

A secondary assessment should take about how long? a. 30 seconds b. 1 minute c. 5 minutes d. 6–8 minutes

Answer 129

c. 5 minutes

Question 130

A primary assessment should take about how long? a. 30–60 seconds b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes

Answer 130

a. 30–60 seconds

Question 131

Which of the following findings is an objective finding made during a patient assessment? a. Patient’s complaint of nausea b. Blood pressure of 114/68 mmHg c. Patient’s rating of pain as 10 out of 10 d. Patient’s complaint of headache for the past 12 hours

Answer 131

b. Blood pressure of 114/68 mmHg

Question 132

A nauseated patient’s report of abdominal pain should be documented: a. as a treatment finding. b. as a subjective finding. c. as an objective finding. d. This information need not be documented.

Answer 132

b. as a subjective finding.

Question 133

A patient tells you that he has been feeling very weak for the past three days. In regards to the SOAP charting format, this information would be included under what heading? a. S b. O c. A d. P

Answer 133

a. S

Question 134

You have placed a 67-year-old female patient on high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather face mask. Following the acronym CHEATED where is it appropriate to document the information concerning the oxygen administration? a. A b. H c. T d. C

Answer 134

c. T

Question 135

When asked, an alert and oriented 44-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure reports that he called for help because my chest is hurting. He is diaphoretic and nauseated, has a pulse of 88 and a BP of 156/92, and says that his pain feels just like my heart attack two years ago. Based on this information, how would you document his chief complaint on the patient care report? a. My chest is hurting. b. Possible heart attack c. Myocardial infarction d. Chest pain with hypertension

Answer 135

a. My chest is hurting.

Question 136

An intoxicated patient will not leave the oxygen mask on. You are aware that the acronym FACTUAL-OEC outlines the characteristics of good report writing. Based on these guidelines how would this best be documented on the prehospital care report (PCR)? a. The patient is intoxicated and will not cooperate with oxygen therapy. b. The patient continually removes the oxygen mask despite continued reapplication. c. The patient will not cooperate with care provided by the ski patrol. d. The patient appears to be in a drunk-like state and will not cooperate with care provided by the ski patrol.

Answer 136

b. The patient continually removes the oxygen mask despite continued reapplication.

Question 137

A patient states that he has had a headache located in his forehead for three days. Utilizing the SOAP format you would document this piece of information as a(n): a. subjective finding. b. pertinent negative. c. objective finding. d. provoking factor.

Answer 137

a. subjective finding.

Question 138

When writing a prehospital care report, you accidentally document a laceration as being on the left side of a patient’s face when it was actually on the right side of the face. In addition to putting your initials and current date/time next to your correction, you would change your documentation in which of the following ways? a. Color over the word left with black ink and write the word right next to it. b. Write the word error through the word left and then write the word right next to it. c. Use correction fluid to cover the word left and write the word right next to it. d. Draw a single line through the word left and write the word right next to it.

Answer 138

d. Draw a single line through the word left and write the word right next to it.

Question 139

Two days after a call, you realize that you forgot to document that you checked a patient’s pupils before the patient refused further treatment and signed a refusal form. Which of the following actions is your best course of action? a. Complete a new refusal form and include the additional information. b. Add an addendum to the report that contains the correct information, the current date, and your signature. c. Report the error to your patrol director and have him/her take care of it. d. Don’t worry about it because it did not seem to matter to the patient.

Answer 139

b. Add an addendum to the report that contains the correct information, the current date, and your signature.

Question 140

For which of the following patients must you provide care even if the patient refuses it? a. A 23-year-old female with an obvious injury who lives with her parents and her one-year-old daughter b. An alert and oriented 57 year old who is having chest pain and is diaphoretic c. A six year old with a bleeding head laceration, whose parent will not allow care d. A 29-year-old female who fell and cannot tell you what day it is

Answer 140

d. A 29-year-old female who fell and cannot tell you what day it is

Question 141

You are alone responding to an alert and oriented male with chest discomfort who refuses treatment. He is angry with his family for calling for help and will not sign the refusal form despite several requests. In addition to documenting that the patient understands and accepts the risks of refusing care, you would: a. contact the police to place the patient into protective custody. b. have a family member sign as a witness to the man’s refusal. c. carefully restrain the man and transport him to the aid room. d. call for an ALS ambulance and have the paramedics treat the patient.

Answer 141

b. have a family member sign as a witness to the man’s refusal.

Question 142

When getting a refusal from a patient who does not want treatment, it is critical that you do which of the following things? a. Ensure that the patient understands the risks of refusing care. b. Make sure the patient has someone who can provide transportation to the hospital. c. Have the patient sign and date the refusal form. d. Have the patient promise to get care if the symptoms get worse.

Answer 142

a. Ensure that the patient understands the risks of refusing care.

Question 143

Which of the following statements about prehospital care reports is accurate? a. They may become part of the patient’s permanent medical record. b. They are forms published by the NSAA or the ski area’s insurance company. c. National standards allow up to three days after the accident for the forms to be fully completed. d. You should only document the care provided to the patient but not scene information, because the latter can be confusing.

Answer 143

a. They may become part of the patient’s permanent medical record.

Question 144

The goal of effective communication is to: a. give as much information as possible in less than three minutes. b. deliver information in a manner that is understood by the recipient. c. speak clearly and more slowly than normal so that you are easier to understand. d. use medical terminology as much as possible.

Answer 144

b. deliver information in a manner that is understood by the recipient.

Question 145

Written medical communications are generally used for all of the following except: a. for quality-improvement activities. b. to transmit information to the provider who is taking over care of a patient. c. when giving press releases about mountain accidents. d. for describing ways to improve the safety of outdoor activities.

Answer 145

c. when giving press releases about mountain accidents.

Question 146

Communication is defined as the process by which: a. a message is transmitted from a sender to a receiver. b. information is documented on a patient accident report. c. verbal and nonverbal actions deliver information to another person. d. a message is encoded from the sender to the receiver.

Answer 146

a. a message is transmitted from a sender to a receiver.

Question 147

The three forms of communication are: a. speaking, hand gestures, and facial expressions. b. written, verbal, and listening. c. oral, nonverbal, and written. d. written, listening, and hand gestures.

Answer 147

c. oral, nonverbal, and written.

Question 148

Medical responders need to be proficient in which two types of medical communication? a. Medical terminology and radio transmissions b. Verbal communication and medical terminology c. Written documentation and radio transmissions d. Written documentation and oral communication

Answer 148

d. Written documentation and oral communication

Question 149

You are the lead responder at a serious accident. After the accident you can provide patient care information to all of the following except: a. a reporter who is writing a news story. b. the EMT to whom you transfer patient care. c. your patrol director, who is reviewing the PCR with you. d. your medical director, who is providing you stress debriefing.

Answer 149

a. a reporter who is writing a news story.

Question 150

After your initial evaluation of the patient you would communicate by radio with patrol base. Following the acronym SAILER, what information would you include? a. Surname, age, address, chief complaint b. Sex, age, chief complaint, splints needed c. Age, next of kin, treatment initiated, request for EMS (if needed) d. Surname, location of accident, age, insurance company

Answer 150

b. Sex, age, chief complaint, splints needed

Question 151

The three types of written medical communication OEC Technicians may encounter are: a. field care notes, patient care reports, and incident report forms. b. patient care notes, accident reports, and rescue reports. c. accident reports, witness reports, and field notes. d. incident reports, rescue reports, and patient care notes.

Answer 151

a. field care notes, patient care reports, and incident report forms.

Question 152

In the CHEATED acronym, the letter T stands for: a. time. b. technique. c. testament. d. treatment.

Answer 152

d. treatment.

Question 153

You are completing your patient care report and are using the acronym CHEATED to guide you. In this acronym, the letter A indicates: a. age. b. address. c. assessment. d. actions taken.

Answer 153

c. assessment.

Question 154

The characteristics of good report writing can easily be remembered by using mnemonic FACTUAL-OEC. Some of these acronym letters stand for: a. facts, terms, unbiased, and legible. b. focused, age, concurrent, and unusual events. c. clinical picture, timeline, and assessment. d. actions taken, clinical picture, and timeline.

Answer 154

a. facts, terms, unbiased, and legible.

Question 155

The acronym FACTUAL-OEC helps OEC Technicians remember that good report writing should include which of the following groups of characteristics? a. Factual information, local patrol terminology, unbiased information b. Complete details, your determination of cause of accident, written legibly c. Abnormal findings written in red, complete and accurate details, accepted medical terms d. Accurate information, complete details, written in black or blue ink

Answer 155

d. Accurate information, complete details, written in black or blue ink

Question 156

In the acronym FACTUAL-OEC, the letters OEC stand for: a. organized, effective, and complete. b. objective, effective, and care given. c. organized, error free, and checked. d. outdoor emergency care.

Answer 156

c. organized, error free, and checked.

Question 157

When patients refuse care, the most important thing to document is: a. their condition when you last saw them. b. whether they were accompanied by anyone when you left them. c. the names of witnesses to what you said to them. d. that the patients understood and accepted the risks of refusal.

Answer 157

d. that the patients understood and accepted the risks of refusal.

Question 158

An individual who is required to report cases of child abuse to the appropriate state agency is called a(n): a. mandated reporter. b. child guardian. c. required abuse reporter. d. emergency protector

Answer 158

a. mandated reporter.

Question 159

Among the injuries or crimes that must be reported to an appropriate state agency are: a. abuse, gunshot wounds, and alcohol abuse. b. stab wounds, accidents involving snow guns, and communicable diseases. c. animal bites, physical assaults, and child abuse. d. incidents involving alcohol, domestic violence, and stab wounds.

Answer 159

c. animal bites, physical assaults, and child abuse.

Question 160

Which of the following pairs are the best examples of the two main types of communication at which OEC Technicians must be proficient? a. Radio communication and telephone communication b. Written communication and nonverbal communication c. Face-to-face communication and radio communication d. Radio communication and written communication

Answer 160

d. Radio communication and written communication

Question 161

In the acronym SAILER, the letter S stands for: a. symptoms. b. sex. c. subjective. d. splint.

Answer 161

b. sex.

Question 162

You are caring for a patient that you realize will require ALS transport to the hospital. In the acronym SAILER, the letter that will assist you to remember to transmit this information during your radio call is: a. S. b. I. c. E. d. R.

Answer 162

d. R.

Question 163

Which of the following lists best describes the path that oxygen must travel to get from the air to body cells? a. Nasopharynx, oropharynx, trachea, alveoli b. Oropharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles c. Nose, pharynx, esophagus, bronchi, alveoli d. Pharynx, larynx, trachea, alveoli, bronchioles

Answer 163

b. Oropharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles

Question 164

You are assessing a patient who overdosed on a medication and is unresponsive. Given this situation, what is the great concern regarding potential airway occlusion? a. Spasm of the epiglottis b. Swelling of the larynx c. Collapse of the bronchi d. Relaxation of the tongue

Answer 164

d. Relaxation of the tongue

Question 165

Which of the following patients has an actual or potential occlusion of the upper airway? a. A 3-year-old male with a fever and swelling of the larynx b. A 45-year-old female with spasm of the bronchioles c. A 61-year-old male with a piece of food stuck in his trachea d. A 78-year-old female with a large mucus plug in a bronchus

Answer 165

a. A 3-year-old male with a fever and swelling of the larynx

Question 166

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has an accurate understanding of breathing? a. When a person inhales, carbon dioxide is drawn into the lungs, and when he exhales, oxygen leaves the body. b. Respiration is best described as the process of moving air into and out of the body. c. Inhalation is an active process, whereas for most patients exhalation is a passive process. d. In between breaths, the epiglottis closes over and protects the trachea.

Answer 166

c. Inhalation is an active process, whereas for most patients exhalation is a passive process.

Question 167

Which of the following patients would benefit from the head tilt-chin lift maneuver? a. A 39-year-old male who just had a seizure and has snoring respirations b. A 45-year-old female who is alert and vomiting blood c. A 67-year-old female who fell down a flight of stairs and is unresponsive d. A 85-year-old female who hit her head on a tree limb and is now responsive to painful stimuli

Answer 167

a. A 39-year-old male who just had a seizure and has snoring respirations

Question 168

Why is the jaw-thrust maneuver indicated for a patient with a possible spinal injury? a. It is a permanent intervention that does not require insertion of an airway if performed correctly. b. It minimizes movement of the head and cervical spine. c. It is less painful for the patient. d. It is the rescuer’s preference as to whether to use the jaw-thrust maneuver.

Answer 168

b. It minimizes movement of the head and cervical spine.

Question 169

Which of the following statements about airway management in trauma patients is correct? a. The jaw-thrust maneuver is useful in trauma patients but only if they are complaining of head or neck pain. b. Research has shown that the jaw-thrust maneuver is easiest to perform and is therefore indicated for critically injured trauma patients. c. Performing the head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a patient with a possible spinal injury could further injure the patient. d. Trauma patients should always have their airway opened with the jaw-thrust maneuver, whereas medical patients should receive the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.

Answer 169

c. Performing the head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a patient with a possible spinal injury could further injure the patient.

Question 170

The jaw-thrust maneuver is indicated in a(n): a. overdose patient with snoring respirations. b. stroke patient with gurgling respirations. c. cardiac arrest patient on the ski slope. d. unresponsive patient who fell from a porch.

Answer 170

d. unresponsive patient who fell from a porch.

Question 171

You are correctly performing the jaw-thrust maneuver when you: a. use the thumbs as a lever to lift the patient’s mandible upward. b. maintain the patient’s head in a neutral position and tilt the head slightly backward. c. open the patient’s airway by slightly pushing down on the forehead and thrusting the jaw upward. d. place one had on the patient’s forehead and lift the jaw upward with the other hand.

Answer 171

a. use the thumbs as a lever to lift the patient’s mandible upward.

Question 172

You are caring for an unconscious patient who has vomited and appears to have a blocked airway. Using the crossed finger technique you open the patient’s mouth and can see a large piece of undigested food near the back of the throat. You would: a. insert an airway. b. administer abdominal thrusts. c. perform a finger sweep. d. encourage the patient to cough.

Answer 172

c. perform a finger sweep.

Question 173

You are assessing a young male patient who is responsive to painful stimuli and not breathing after a fall while rock climbing. His pulse is weak and thready, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic. When addressing his airway and breathing, you must immediately: a. administer oxygen at 15 LPM with a nonrebreather mask. b. perform the jaw-thrust maneuver and reassess his breathing. c. immobilize him on a long spine board and then start artificial ventilations. d. open his airway using the head tilt-chin lift maneuver and begin ventilations with the bag-valvemask.

Answer 173

b. perform the jaw-thrust maneuver and reassess his breathing.

Question 174

Which of the following ventilation methods is recommended because it provides the most effective ventilations? a. Use of a bag-valve mask (BVM) with reservoir attached, receiving air, by two OEC Technicians b. Use of a BVM with reservoir attached, receiving O2 at 15 LPM, by one OEC Technician c. Use of a BVM with reservoir attached, receiving O2 at 15 LPM, by two rescuers d. Use of a BVM with O2 reservoir attached, by one rescuer

Answer 174

c. Use of a BVM with reservoir attached, receiving O2 at 15 LPM, by two rescuers

Question 175

You have arrived in the lodge with your airway and trauma pack to care for a patient who reportedly had a seizure. Assessment reveals him to be apneic with vomitus in the airway. He has a radial pulse, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic. Which one of the following should you do immediately? a. Start artificial ventilations. b. If available in your trauma pack, use a suction device to clear the airway; otherwise, turn him on his side and clean out the vomitus. c. Check the patient’s breath sounds. d. Apply a nonrebreather mask.

Answer 175

b. If available in your trauma pack, use a suction device to clear the airway; otherwise, turn him on his side and clean out the vomitus.

Question 176

Which of the following statements describes the correct positioning of a BVM on a patient’s face? a. The narrow part of the mask is over the bridge of the nose, and the bottom part is in the cleft of the chin. b. If two rescuers are using the BVM, the mask need only be placed over the mouth while the nose is pinched closed. c. The wide portion of the mask is at the top of the nose, and the narrow part is below the lower lip. d. The mask is properly positioned when the top portion lies over the bridge of the nose, and the lower portion is below the chin.

Answer 176

a. The narrow part of the mask is over the bridge of the nose, and the bottom part is in the cleft of the chin.

Question 177

Which of the following statements is the best tip for artificially ventilating a patient using a bag-valve mask? a. If the patient has dentures, remove them so that a better mask-to-face seal can be achieved. b. It is important to maintain the head tilt-chin lift or jaw-thrust maneuver while ventilating the patient. c. To direct air into the lungs and not into the stomach, flex the patient’s head forward while ventilating with the bag-valve mask. d. Always remove the oropharyngeal airway so that it is not pushed deep into the patient’s airway during ventilations.

Answer 177

b. It is important to maintain the head tilt-chin lift or jaw-thrust maneuver while ventilating the patient.

Question 178

While a 61-year-old female in cardiac arrest receives emergency care you note that her abdomen grows larger with each ventilation provided from a bag-valve mask. What instructions should you provide? a. Try delivering each ventilation quickly, and let’s slow down the rate. b. The ventilation rate and the force of ventilation need to be increased so that air reaches the lungs. c. Let’s slow the ventilation rate to 12 per minute and not squeeze in as much air with each breath. d. I need another rescuer to apply firm pressure over the stomach while we ventilate this patient.

Answer 178

c. Let’s slow the ventilation rate to 12 per minute and not squeeze in as much air with each breath.

Question 179

You arrive to assist another rescuer with a patient in cardiac arrest. As you enter the room, a brand new OEC Technician informs you that he is having difficulty maintaining the mask seal to the patient’s face while ventilating with the BVM. Which one of the following responses shows that you understand and can help with the problem? a. I will check the breath sounds to see if air is reaching the lungs. b. Why don’t we try using a larger adult mask and flexing the head forward? c. I will administer some cricoid pressure; that should help. d. Let me maintain the face-to-mask seal while you squeeze the bag.

Answer 179

d. Let me maintain the face-to-mask seal while you squeeze the bag.

Question 180

By placing an oropharyngeal airway in a patient, you have: a. protected the airway from vomit or other secretions. b. kept the tongue away from the airway. c. obtained a patent airway by keeping the mouth from closing. d. minimized the risk of vomiting by closing off the esophagus.

Answer 180

b. kept the tongue away from the airway.

Question 181

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands how to use an oropharyngeal airway? a. Once it has been placed, the head tilt-chin lift is no longer needed. b. If it is too small, it could push the epiglottis over the opening of the trachea. c. It protects the patient from aspirating vomit or other secretions. d. I must watch the patient for vomiting or gagging even with the proper insertion.

Answer 181

d. I must watch the patient for vomiting or gagging even with the proper insertion.

Question 182

For which of the following patients is placement of an oropharyngeal airway indicated? a. A responsive but confused patient with stridorous respirations b. A patient who has vomited and responds to painful stimuli by moaning c. An unresponsive patient who has neither a gag reflex nor a cough reflex d. A patient with snoring respirations who coughs as the oral airway is placed into his mouth

Answer 182

c. An unresponsive patient who has neither a gag reflex nor a cough reflex

Question 183

You are observing a rescuer insert an oropharyngeal airway into the airway of a 36-year-old male who has overdosed. Which one of the following observations indicates correct technique? a. The rescuer inserts the oral airway into the patient’s mouth upside down and then turns it 180 degrees once it is halfway in the mouth. b. The rescuer uses a tongue depressor to press the back of the patient’s tongue downward and then inserts the oral airway upside down. c. The rescuer inserts the oral airway in its normal anatomic position until the flange of the airway is 1 cm above the patient’s lips. d. The rescuer inserts the oral airway sideways into the mouth and then rotates it 180 degrees once it has reached the base of the tongue.

Answer 183

a. The rescuer inserts the oral airway into the patient’s mouth upside down and then turns it 180 degrees once it is halfway in the mouth.

Question 184

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker knows how to properly size an oral airway before its placement? a. It is better to have an oral airway that is too large than one that is too small. b. To select an appropriately sized oral airway, you must first estimate the patient’s height and weight. c. The length of the airway should approximate the distance from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw. d. An appropriately sized oral airway can be selected by looking in the patient’s mouth and estimating the length of the tongue.

Answer 184

c. The length of the airway should approximate the distance from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw.

Question 185

You recognize that the an oropharyngeal airway has been appropriately inserted when: a. it cannot be dislodged by the rescuer. b. the flange sits about ¼ inch from the patient’s lips. c. vomiting is no longer occurring. d. air moves freely in and out of the airway.

Answer 185

d. air moves freely in and out of the airway.

Question 186

If a patient gags while you are inserting an oropharyngeal airway, you should: a. remove the airway and maintain the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. b. remove the airway, lubricate it, and reattempt to insert it. c. remove the airway and reattempt to insert it using a smaller airway. d. use a tongue depressor to better place the airway.

Answer 186

a. remove the airway and maintain the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.

Question 187

You have been ventilating the patient with an oropharyngeal airway and bag-valve mask. Suddenly the patient regains consciousness and starts to gag. Your immediate action should be to: a. leave the airway in but stop ventilations. b. remove the airway. c. suction the airway. d. reassure and calm the patient.

Answer 187

b. remove the airway.

Question 188

You appropriately size a nasopharyngeal airway by measuring the: a. distance from the patient’s mouth to the angle of the jaw. b. diameter of the patient’s larger nostril. c. distance from the patient’s nose to the earlobe. d. diameter of the patient’s little finger.

Answer 188

c. distance from the patient’s nose to the earlobe.

Question 189

Which of the following phrases best describes oxygen? a. An odorless, colorless, tasteless gas b. A highly flammable substance c. An odorless gas that is cloudy when pressurized d. A moist gas that supports combustion

Answer 189

a. An odorless, colorless, tasteless gas

Question 190

You arrive at the aid room and note that portable oxygen tanks are now yellow instead of green as during your previous shift. As a knowledgeable OEC Technician you should: a. not use the yellow tank and instead retrieve a green cylinder. b. recognize the availability of more effective synthetic oxygen. c. decide that your mountain area has switched to new lightweight oxygen tanks. d. realize that the yellow color indicates new tanks that hold more oxygen.

Answer 190

a. not use the yellow tank and instead retrieve a green cylinder.

Question 191

To ensure an oxygen flow rate of 15 LPM to a patient using a nonrebreather mask, you should: a. crack the oxygen tank after attaching the regulator. b. hear a hissing sound when you turn on the oxygen. c. slowly release oxygen from the tank until the pressure is 15 psi. d. select 15 on the oxygen flow-control gauge.

Answer 191

d. select 15 on the oxygen flow-control gauge.

Question 192

If while checking a size D oxygen tank you notice that the reading on the pressure regulator is 1000 psi, you should recognize that the tank is: a. leaking. b. overfilled. c. half full. d. almost empty.

Answer 192

c. half full.

Question 193

Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has a correct understanding of the use of oxygen in a prehospital setting? a. Oxygen should not be given to patients with chronic lung diseases. b. If the patient is claustrophobic, oxygen should be administered at 15 LPM through a nasal cannula. c. Oxygen should be administered to anyone who is short of breath. d. An OEC Technician does not need a physician’s order to administer oxygen.

Answer 193

c. Oxygen should be administered to anyone who is short of breath.

Question 194

Which of the following actions is part of the correct use of a nonrebreather mask on an adult patient? a. Ensuring that the reservoir fully collapses with each breath b. Instructing the patient to take deeper breaths when the mask is on c. Setting the oxygen flow rate to between 6 LPM and 16 LPM. d. Fully inflating the reservoir before placing the mask on the patient.

Answer 194

d. Fully inflating the reservoir before placing the mask on the patient.

Question 195

Which of the following occurs during the proper use of a nonrebreather mask? a. The air inhaled by the patient will be recycled with oxygen. b. The mask is comfortable and well tolerated by all patients when properly applied. c. The mask can deliver between 80 percent and 90 percent oxygen. d. Oxygen is delivered into the lungs when the patient not inhaling.

Answer 195

c. The mask can deliver between 80 percent and 90 percent oxygen.

Question 196

Despite coaching and explaining the benefits of a nonrebreather face mask, a female patient with chest pain panics and states that she cannot tolerate the mask over her face. The more that she panics, the worse the chest pain becomes. Your best course of action is to: a. remove the nonrebreather mask and apply a simple face mask. b. decrease the oxygen flow rate entering the nonrebreather mask. c. disconnect the nonrebreather and replace it with a nasal cannula. d. discontinue oxygen therapy and continually monitor breath sounds.

Answer 196

c. disconnect the nonrebreather and replace it with a nasal cannula.

Question 197

What is the most common oxygen delivery device used by OEC Technicians? a. A nasal cannula b. A nonrebreather mask c. A simple face mask d. A venture mask

Answer 197

b. A nonrebreather mask

Question 198

When monitoring a patient receiving oxygen through a nasal cannula, which of the following observations warrants immediate intervention? a. An oxygen flow rate of 15 LPM b. Prongs in the nostrils that curve posteriorly into the nose c. Tubing that is positioned over the ears and under the chin d. Normal patient breathing while the nasal cannula is in place

Answer 198

a. An oxygen flow rate of 15 LPM

Question 199

Which of the following statements about a nasal cannula is true? a. The oxygen flow rate can be adjusted anywhere from 1 LPM to 10 LPM, depending on how much oxygen the patient needs. b. When the nasal cannula is set to the highest appropriate oxygen flow rate, it delivers 24–44 percent oxygen. c. A nasal cannula is preferred over a nonrebreather mask because the cannula administers the oxygen through the nose instead of through the mouth. d. It is best to see how a patient tolerates a nasal cannula before attempting to place a nonrebreather mask on the patient.

Answer 199

b. When the nasal cannula is set to the highest appropriate oxygen flow rate, it delivers 24–44 percent oxygen.

Question 200

Which of the following statements shows that the speaker understands how to suction patients properly in a field setting? a. When caring for a young child, I suction for a minimum of 10–15 seconds. b. To thoroughly suction a patient, I insert the rigid tip of the catheter past the base of the tongue and into the pharynx. c. It is helpful to pour sterile water into a patient’s mouth to liquefy vomit and make it easier to suction out. d. I activate the suction device only when I am withdrawing the suction catheter.

Answer 200

d. I activate the suction device only when I am withdrawing the suction catheter.

Question 201

The lower airway consists of which of the following structures? a. Epiglottis, trachea, and bronchi b. Pharynx, bronchi, and alveoli c. Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli d. Larynx, bronchi, and alveoli

Answer 201

c. Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli

Question 202

The most commonly used method for opening a patient’s mouth to suction the oropharynx, to perform a finger sweep, or to insert an oral airway is: a. Sellick’s maneuver. b. the crossed finger technique. c. a Yankauer catheter. d. the finger sweep.

Answer 202

b. the crossed finger technique.

Question 203

You have opened and cleared your patient’s airway. While waiting for other equipment or personnel, the easiest way to maintain this state and ensure adequate breathing is to: a. place the patient in the left lateral recumbent (recovery) position if the patient is unresponsive and spinal injury is not suspected. b. place a suction catheter in the corner of the patient’s mouth to continually remove secretions. c. maintain the head tilt-chin lift position. d. use the crossed finger technique.

Answer 203

a. place the patient in the left lateral recumbent (recovery) position if the patient is unresponsive and spinal injury is not suspected.

Question 204

Your patrol director has asked you to check the oxygen tanks and let her know how long they will last at an accident. To calculate this information you would use which of the following formulas? a. (Gauge pressure in psi minus safe residual pressure) times cylinder size constant divided by flow rate in LPM b. (Flow rate in LPM divided by cylinder size) times gauge pressure c. (Gauge pressure divided by flow rate) minus safe residual pressure d. (Cylinder size minus safe residual pressure in psi) times flow rate in LPM

Answer 204

a. (Gauge pressure in psi minus safe residual pressure) times cylinder size constant divided by flow rate in LPM

Question 205

A time-honored technique that may be used on conscious or unconscious patients to quickly remove fluid and solids from the airway is: a. a jaw thrust. b. the crossed finger technique. c. a finger sweep. d. gravity.

Answer 205

d. gravity.

Question 206

Which of the following statements shows that the speaker understands how to properly store an oxygen tank after use? a. I’m going to leave the regulator set to 15 LPM so it will be ready when we need it. b. I’ll stand the oxygen tank beside the stretcher so everyone will know where it is. c. I’ll tighten the valve stem as much as I can so it won’t come loose. d. I’ll place the oxygen tank in its protective case until we need to use it again.

Answer 206

d. I’ll place the oxygen tank in its protective case until we need to use it again.

Question 207

You are checking equipment at the beginning of your shift. The D size oxygen cylinder measures 1000 psi. You calculate that if you needed to use this tank at 15 LPM it would last: a. 8.5 minutes. b. 15 minutes. c. 5 minutes. d. 12 minutes.

Answer 207

a. 8.5 minutes.

Question 208

You have been asked to teach a new patroller how to put a patient in the recovery position. Which of the following statements about the recovery position would be correct? a. Roll the patient onto his side and then hold him there until help arrives. b. After turning the patient on his side, rest the patient’s head on your aid pack. c. Elevate the patient’s lower body so that his oral secretions will drain out easily. d. Turn the patient on his side and flex his upper leg so that it anchors him on his side.

Answer 208

d. Turn the patient on his side and flex his upper leg so that it anchors him on his side.

Question 209

What does the letter S in the acronym SLIC stand for? a. Slowly b. Size c. Septum d. Slippery

Answer 209

b. Size

Question 210

To clear an airway of fluid and debris, suctioning should be applied: a. for as long as needed. b. for no more than 10–15 seconds at a time. c. for no more than 30 seconds at a time. d. as deeply as needed to remove as much fluid as possible.

Answer 210

b. for no more than 10–15 seconds at a time.

Question 211

You have been asked to put a patient on a nonrebreather mask at 15 LPM. After you have finished attaching the regulator to the oxygen cylinder, your next step is to: a. turn the valve stem on the top of the cylinder using a special oxygen wrench or key. b. attach the nonrebreather mask to the regulator and fill the reservoir. c. turn the oxygen control knob to 15 LPM. d. check the pressure gauge indicator to determine how much pressure is in the cylinder.

Answer 211

a. turn the valve stem on the top of the cylinder using a special oxygen wrench or key.

Question 212

Which of the following statements shows an understanding by the speaker of the use of a pocket mask? a. Although a pocket mask is very effective at ventilating a patient, you are directly exposed to the patient’s secretions. b. A pocket mask must be securely placed over the patient’s mouth and nose. c. When using a pocket mask to ventilate a patient, you must make sure that the reservoir bag is in place. d. A pocket mask should be used only when oxygen is connected to it.

Answer 212

b. A pocket mask must be securely placed over the patient’s mouth and nose.

Question 213

You hear a candidate OEC Technician explaining the use of a barrier shield to another candidate. Which of the following statements would indicate that he does not fully understand its purpose or how to use it? a. A barrier device is as good as any of the other airway adjuncts for delivering oxygen. b. A barrier device cannot be used as personal protective equipment. c. You need to open the patient’s airway before using a barrier device. d. A barrier device may have either a mesh opening or a breathing tube in the center.

Answer 213

a. A barrier device is as good as any of the other airway adjuncts for delivering oxygen.