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Bio 5A Lecture > Quiz 9 > Flashcards

Quiz 9 Flashcards

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1
Q

What cells are responsible for carrying out meiosis?

A

Progenitor germ cells.

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2
Q

What happens in prophase I?

A

The homologous chromosomes pair and exchange genetic information (non-sister chromatids); synapsids happens at this stage and occurs at the chiasma

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3
Q

What happens in metaphase I?

A

The tetrads line up at the metaphase plate.

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4
Q

What happens in anaphase I?

A

Homologue chromosomes separation, 2 chromosomes are left in each cell.

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5
Q

Meiosis II is similar to which process? (With some modifications).

A

Mitosis

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6
Q

In meiosis I, the _____ separate and in meiosis II, the _____ separate.

A

Homologous chromosomes- Sister Chromatids

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7
Q

Define Homologous Chromosomes

A

Chromosomes that are similar in structure, size, and have the same genes, you get one from each parent. They can have different alleles. One from each parent.

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8
Q

Define Sister Chromatids

A

Replicated forms of a chromosome joined together by the centromere.

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9
Q

Define Synapsis

A

The paring of replicated homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis I.

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10
Q

Define Crossing-Over

A

The exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids during synapsis in meiosis I.

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11
Q

Define Chiasma

A

The region of the non-sister chromatids where the exchange of genetic material takes place.

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12
Q

What is the outcome obtained from meiosis?

A

4 haploid daughter cells; each are genetically different.

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13
Q

What are some key differences between meiosis and mitosis?

A

Mitosis results in two daughter cells with 2n and meiosis results in 4 daughter cells with 1n.

Meiosis has 2 divisions whereas mitosis only has 1 set of divisions.

Synapsis (the pairing of homologous chromosomes in prophase I) is unique to meiosis and does not occur in mitosis.

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14
Q

What are contributors to genetic variation in species that reproduce sexually?

A

Independent Assortment of homologous chromosomes at the metaphase plate in meiosis I- Crossing Over- Random Fertilization. ICR

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15
Q

What does independent assortment entail?

A

The homologous chromosomes can line up in a myriad of ways in the metaphase plate at the end of metaphase in meiosis I.

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16
Q

Each gamete has a _____ chance of having paternal or maternal chromosomes or of having both.

A

50:50

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17
Q

The number of possible combinations for the gametes is _____ where n is the number of chromosomes in the genome.

A

2^n

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18
Q

How does the production of no ATP affect replication?

A

If not ATP is produced, replication cannot happen,

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19
Q

What are the cell cycle control proteins?

A

Kinases and Cyclins

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20
Q

Define Kinases

A

Enzymes that activate or de-activate other proteins by phosphorylating them.

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21
Q

What are cyclins and what are the types of cyclins?

A

Cyclins get their name because they cycle in concentration throughout the cell cycle. The two types are cdk2 and cyclin B.

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22
Q

How is the MPF (M-Phase Promoting Factor) formed?

A

Through the combination of cdk2 and cyclin B.

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23
Q

Which of the cyclins are always present in high amounts?

A

Cdk2.

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24
Q

What are some affects of MPF being activated?

A

Stimulation of the condensation of chromosomes- early formation of the spindle- Breaking down of the nuclear envelope.

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25
Q

When is MPF activated?

A

At the G2 checkpoint (G2 prophase)

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26
Q

When is MPF active? When is MPF inactive?

A

Active from the beginning of prophase to the end of anaphase; inactive at the beginning of telophase.

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27
Q

How do the sister chromatids separate during anaphase?

A

Securin, separase, and cohesins.

28
Q

What is the function of separase?

A

It degrades cohesins, allowing for the sister chromatid separation during anaphase.

29
Q

What does the APC (anaphase promoting complex do)?

A

It stimulates the degradation of a protein called securin in the proteosome and the degradation of cyclin in the proteosome, leading to the loss of MPF function.

30
Q

What is a karyotype?

A

The display of chromosome pairs arranged by size, shape, and staining patterns.

31
Q

How do you prepare a karyotype?

A

You obtain sample cells from an individual, plate them on a Petri dish, stop their division in metaphase, stain them, and examine them.

32
Q

What does aneuploidy mean?

A

A chromosomal alteration in which certain chromosomes are present in extra copies or deficient in number.

33
Q

What does non-disjunction mean?

A

The improper separation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis I or the improper separation of sister chromatids in meiosis II.

34
Q

Define Down Syndrome.

A

Trisomy 21 is an aneuploid condition that results form three copies of chromosome 21.

35
Q

What is the “n” equation for Turner’s Syndrome?

A

2n-1

36
Q

What is a deletion alteration in chromosomes?

A

Removal of a chromosomal segment.

37
Q

What is a duplication alteration in chromosomes?

A

Repetition of a segment.

38
Q

What is a an inversion alteration in chromosomes?

A

Reverses a segment within a chromosome.

39
Q

What is a translocation alteration in the chromosome?

A

Moving of a segment from a non-homologous chromosome to another.

40
Q

What are the checkpoints in cell division?

A

1: Restriction point between G1 and S.

#2: Between S and G2.
#3: Formation of MPF at the end of G2 and prophase of mitosis.

41
Q

Proteins were composed of _____ different building blocks called _____.

A

20; amino acids.

42
Q

DNA was composed of only _____ building blocks called _____>

A

4; nucleotides

43
Q

Explain everything about Griffith’s experiment.

A

Isolated 2 strains of bacteria that caused pneumonia in mice: S bacteria caused death; R bacteria led to no death. The S bacteria had a capsule that prevented them from being recognized by the immune system. The R bacteria lacked that capsule.

Through heating the S-bacteria, he killed them. After mixing it with living R cells, the mice still died. Living S cells were somehow found in the sample of blood from the mice and bacterial transformations were discovered.

44
Q

Define Bacterial Transformation.

A

The change in genotype and phenotype of the bacteria by acquisition of genetic material.

45
Q

Explain everything about Avery’s experiment.

A

They wanted to know if the transformation factor was consisted of protein, rna, or DNA. He removed the carbs and lipids, this isolating the RNA, protein, and DNA. He then mixed it with the R-bacteria and injected it into the mice. He found that with the elimination of DNA, the mice survived.

46
Q

Explain everything about Chargaff’s experiments.

A

Found that DNA is composed of deoxyribose-phosphate- and 4 nitrogenous bases. He analyzed the DNA from many different eukaryotic cells and found that the % and order of the nitrogenous bases varied within the species. A and T always bonded together and C and G always bonded together.

47
Q

Explain everything about Hershey and Chase’s experiment.

A

The DNA of the virus was injected into the bacteria during infection, leaving the protein outside. (Coated with radioactive sulfur).

The injected DNA provides genetic information that makes the bacteria produce new viral DNA and protein which assemble into new viruses. (DNA was coated with radioactive phosphorus).

48
Q

What is PET (Positron Emission Tomography)?

A

An imaging test that helps reveal how tissues and organs are functioning; the tracer collects in area as of the body that have higher levels of chemical activity, which often correspond to the areas of diseases.

49
Q

What is RNA composed of?

A

Ribose-Phosphate-Adenine-Cytosine-Guanine-Uracil

50
Q

What is the difference between deoxyribose and ribose?

A

Deoxyribose has ONE LESS HYDROXYL GROUP.

51
Q

How many rings do purines have and what nitrogenous bases fall under it?

A

2-A-G

52
Q

How many rings do pyrimidines have and what nitrogenous bases fall under it?

A

1-CTU

53
Q

Phosphate groups are linked to the _____ carbon of the sugar.

A

5’

54
Q

What bonds are present in the sugar phosphate backbone?

A

Phosphodiester Bonds

55
Q

What did Watson and Crick infer from Franklin’s data?

A

DNA was a double helix; 2nm space in the diameter.
The bases in the DNA were separated by 0.34nm. The helix makes one full turn every 3.4nm. There were ten base pairs per turn. Inferred that the sugar phosphate backbone faced the outside of the helix.

56
Q

For the measurements to be appropriate, there had to be a combination of _____ and _____.

A

1 purine and 1 pyrimidine.

57
Q

What bonds are present in between the nitrogenous bases? How many hydrogen bonds can each pair form?

A

Hydrogen bonds; A-T —-> 2 ; C-G —-> 3

58
Q

Is the double helix polar?

A

Yes

59
Q

Watson and Crick proposed a _____ model when it came to the structure of DNA.

A

Semi-Conservative; this means that each chain that separated would serve as a template for the formation of a new chain.

60
Q

What were the proposed models for DNA replication?

A

Conservative- Semi Conservative- Dispersive

61
Q

What is meant by the semi-conservative model?

A

The two strands of the original helix separate, and each strand functions as the template for the synthesis of a new complementary strand; half is conserved.

62
Q

What is meant by conservative replication?

A

The original double helix get back together replication, therefore the new one lacks any of the old one; full conservation of one helix.

63
Q

What is meant by dispersive replication?

A

The two strands of the original double helix separate, and each strand of both daughter molecules contains a mixture of old and newly synthesized parts; old and new mixture.

64
Q

What did Meselson and Stahl use for their experiment?

A

14 N and 15N.

65
Q

Meselson and Stahl analyzed the DNA extracted from the bacteria in terms of ______.

A

Weight

66
Q

One round of bacterial division takes _____.

A

20 mins.

Bio 5A Lecture (16 decks)

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