Midterm II Slide Notes Flashcards

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1
Q

What is metabolism?

A

The totality of an organism’s chemical reactions; the transformation of energy from one form to another.

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2
Q

What does metabolism include?

A

Catabolic and Anabolic Reactions

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3
Q

What do enzymes do with the presence of substrates?

A

They convert substrates to products.

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4
Q

Metabolism is a series of linked _____ reactions.

A

Enzymatic

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5
Q

What are anabolic reactions?

A

The building of complicated molecules from simple building blocks; energy is consumed linked in a bio synthetic pathway.

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6
Q

What are catabolic reactions?

A

The breaking down of complicated molecules to simpler ones; energy is RELEASED.

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7
Q

Define Bioenergetics

A

The study of how energy flows through living organisms.

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8
Q

Define Kinetic Energy

A

Energy associated with motion.

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9
Q

Define Thermal Energy

A

The KE associated with the random movement of atoms and molecules.

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10
Q

_____ is thermal energy in transfer between objects.

A

Heat

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11
Q

Define Potential Energy

A

The energy that matter possesses because of its location or structure.

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12
Q

Define Chemical enERGY

A

The potential energy available for release in a reaction.

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13
Q

Metabolism is based on the laws of _____.

A

Thermodynamics

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14
Q

Define Thermodynamics

A

The study of energy transformations.

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15
Q

An isolated system, such as that approximated by liquid in thermos, is _____ to exchange energy or matter with its _____.

A

Unable-Surroundings

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16
Q

Organism are an example of what type of system?

A

Open System; energy and matter can be transferred between the system and its surroundings.

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17
Q

What is the first law of thermodynamics? What is another name for it?

A

The energy of the universe is constant; energy can be transferred and transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed. It’s also called the principle of conservation of energy.

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18
Q

What does energy transfer increase in the universe?

A

Increases the entropy (disorder) of the universe.

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19
Q

What is the second law of thermodynamics?

A

During every energy transfer or transformation, some energy is usable and some is often lost as heat; energy transformations and transfers increases the entropy of the universe.

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20
Q

Define Entropy

A

The measure of molecular disorder, or randomness.

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21
Q

What happens to some of the energy that is transferred in cellular reactions?

A

Some of it is lost as heat.

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22
Q

Define Spontaneous Process

A

Processes that can occur without an input of energy; they can happen slowly or quickly. They INCREASE the entropy of the universe.

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23
Q

Define Non-Spontaneous Process

A

Processes that decrease the entropy of the universe; no energy input is required.

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24
Q

Do all biological activities accompany a release of heat which increases entropy?

A

YES

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25
Q

What is the equation for Gibbs Free Energy?

A

Delta G= Delta H- TDELTAS ; Delta G can also be written as G products - G Reactants

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26
Q

What does Delta G mean?

A

The change in free energy; energy available to do work when the temperature and pressure are uniform as in living cells.

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27
Q

What are the two types of reactions when it comes to Gibbs free energy?

A

Exergonic and Endergonic

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28
Q

What happens in exergonic reactions and how can they be regarded?

A

The reactants have more energy than products; energy is released; they can be regarded as SPONTANEOUS.

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29
Q

What happens in endergonic reactions? How can they be regarded?

A

Reactants have less energy than the products; energy is required; it can be regarded as NONSPONTANEOUS.

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30
Q

If DELTA G is negative, what can we say?

A

That the reaction is spontaneous and that it is EXERGONIC.

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31
Q

Do living systems ever reach equilibrium?

A

No, not until they die.

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32
Q

What are the three types of main work that the cell does?

A

Chemical-Transport-Mechanical

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33
Q

Define Chemical Work

A

Pushing endergonic reactions.

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34
Q

What is an example of transport work done in cells?

A

Pumping substances against the direction of spontaneous movement.

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35
Q

What is an example of mechanical work?

A

Contraction of muscle cells.

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36
Q

How does ATP power cellular work?

A

By coupling endergonic and exergonic reactions; energy coupling.

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37
Q

What is ATP consisted of?

A

Ribose (Sugar), adenine (a nitrogenous base), and three phosphate groups.

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38
Q

What does phosphorylation mean?

A

Addition of a phosphate group to a substance.

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39
Q

Define Activation Energy

A

The energy that is needed to start a chemical reaction. It is often supplied in the form of thermal energy that the reactant molecules absorb from its surroundings.

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40
Q

How do enzymes speed up metabolic reactions?

A

By lowering the activation energy.

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41
Q

Define Catalyst

A

A chemical agent that speeds up a reaction without being consumed by the reaction.

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42
Q

An _____ is a catalytic protein.

A

Enzyme

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43
Q

Define Substrate

A

A reactant that an enzyme acts on.

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44
Q

How is an enzyme-substrate complex formed?

A

The enzyme binds to its substrate/

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45
Q

Define Active Site

A

The region on the enzyme where the substrate binds.

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46
Q

Define Induced Fit

A

Induced fit of a substance brings chemical groups of the active site into positions that enhance their ability to catalyze the reaction.

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47
Q

How are substrates held in the active site?

A

By weak interactions, such as hydrophobic or ionic bonds.

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48
Q

Do the enzymes lower the time required to turn reactants into products?

A

Yes

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49
Q

What does it mean for enzymes to have optimal conditions?

A

This means that the enzyme can perform at certain temperatures and pHs.

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50
Q

Define Cofactors

A

Non-protein enzyme helpers. Can be organic or inorganic

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51
Q

What are organic cofactors called?

A

Coenzymes; they include vitamins.

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52
Q

Define Allosteric Site

A

Any site outside of the active site is called the allosteric site.

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53
Q

What do competitive inhibitors do?

A

They bind to the active site of an enzyme, competing with the substance.

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54
Q

What do non-competitive inhibitors do?

A

They bind to another part of the enzyme, causing the enzyme to change shape and making the active site less effective. In other words, non-competitive inhibitors bind to an allosteric site.

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55
Q

What are some examples of inhibitors?

A

Toxins and Antibiotics.

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56
Q

How does feedback inhibition work?

A

When a substrate binds to the allosteric site, the protein changes shape and the active site is no longer available.

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57
Q

The membrane of a cell is _____.

A

Hydrophobic

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58
Q

What are redox reactions?

A

Reactions that involve the oxidation and reduction of a substance.

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59
Q

What happens when something is oxidized?

A

It loses an electron. OL

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60
Q

What happens when something is reduced?

A

It gains an electron. RG

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61
Q

An oxidizing agent gets _____.

A

Reduced

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62
Q

O2 becoming H2O in the product side is an example of it getting _____.

A

Reduced

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63
Q

Define Reducing Agent?

A

The electron DONOR is called the reducing agent. RAD

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64
Q

An oxidizing agent _____ electrons.

A

Accepts

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65
Q

When electrons get transferred from a less electronegative substance to a more electronegative substance, is it endergonic or Exergonic?

A

EXERGONIC

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66
Q

In the reaction of breakdown of glucose, is glucose oxidized or reduced?

A

Oxidized. GO

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67
Q

What is NAD+?

A

The most versatile electron ACCEPTOR in cellular respiration.

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68
Q

What are some important things to note about NAD+?

A

A coenzyme key in many biological oxidation reactions; electrons from organic compounds are usually first transferred to NAD+.

As an electron acceptor, NAD+ functions as an OXIDIZING agent during cellular respiration.

Each NADH (reduced form of NAD+) represents stored energy that is tapped to synthesize ATP.

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69
Q

Why is NAD+ such as good electron carrier?

A

Because it can cycle easily between its oxidized form and its reduced form (NADH).

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70
Q

What are the stages of cellular respiration?

A

Glycolysis (breaking down of glucose to two pyruvate molecules)- The Krebs Cycle (completion of the breakdown of glucose)- Oxidative Phosphorylation (accounts for the majority of ATP Synthesis)

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71
Q

Glycolysis happens in the _____; citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation happen in the _____.

A

Cytosol-Mitochondria

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72
Q

What happens in substrate based ATP synthesis?

A

Kinase converts ADP to ATP.

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73
Q

What is the net return from Glycolysis?

A

2 ATP- 2NADH- 2 Pyruvate

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74
Q

What is aerobic respiration?

A

A chemical process in which oxygen is used to Kate ATP

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75
Q

What is included in Anaerobic Respiration?

A

Fermentation which includes alcohol and lactate production.

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76
Q

What are some important things to note about anaerobic respiration?

A

The final electron acceptor of the ETC uses (SO4)2-; the sulfate accepts electrons and gets reduced to SH2.

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77
Q

What essentially happens in fermentation?

A

The main objective is to recycle “waste material” (pyruvate and NADH) to get NAD+ to make more glucose; NADH gets oxidized to NAD+

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78
Q

Where does the Krebs Cycle occur?

A

In the mitochondrial matrix.

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79
Q

What is the net return from the Krebs Cycle?

A

6 NADH, 2ATP, 2FADH2

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80
Q

How many CO2 are released during the Krebs cycle?

A

2

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81
Q

What is the role of coenzyme A in the Krebs cycle?

A

Brings up the potential energy; goes inside the mitochondria.

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82
Q

What are multiprotein complexes?

A

Proteins that interact with each other in the same vicinity.

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83
Q

What essentially happens in the ETC?

A

Electrons are passed to progressive more electronegative complexes until they are accepted by oxygen to make water.

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84
Q

Can NADH or FADH2 create more spontaneous reactions?

A

NADH

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85
Q

What is the general equation for what happens in the ETC?

A

2e- + 2H+ 1/2 O2 —-> H2O

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86
Q

Is substrate based phosphorylation slower or oxidative phosphorylation?

A

Substrate Based

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87
Q

For the transfer of every _____ electrons, a _____ is released during the ETC.

A

2- Proton

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88
Q

What happens in oxidative phosphorylation?

A

As we go form one electron acceptor to the next in the ETC, H+ is being pumped out. The concentration of H+ in the inter membrane space builds up, creating an electrochemical gradient. The H+ goes down its concentration gradient (high concentration to low concentration), allowing for the turning of ATP Synthase. ATP synthase turning jams a phosphate group to ADP, producing ATP.

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89
Q

What is photosynthesis consisted of?

A

Light Dependent Reactions and Calvin Cycle.

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90
Q

What happens in Light Dependent Reactions?

A

Light energy plus water and carbon dioxide leads to the production of ATP, NADPH, and O2. They happen in the thylakoid membrane of the chloroplasts.

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91
Q

Define Wavelength

A

The distance between crests of the electromagnetic waves.

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92
Q

What is the range for visible light in the spectrum?

A

380 nm to 750 nm.

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93
Q

In the light dependent reactions, what regions have what concentration of H+?

A

There is a higher concentration of H+ in the thylakoid lumen (interior) compared to the stroma.

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94
Q

What happens in the Calvin Cycle

A

CO2 from the atmosphere and NADPH and ATP are used to produce Phoshoglyceraldehyde; ribulose biphosphate (a 5 carbon structure w/ 2 phosphates) combines with CO2 (an endergonic reaction). The energy comes from the oxidation of ATP and NADPH. From there, PGAL gets produced and the majority of it is used to reproduce RuBP. The Calvin Cycle happens in the stroma.

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95
Q

What are the three types of communications that cells undergo?

A

Direct Contact Signaling (cell-cell contact and cell-junctions)

Local Signaling (Autocrine, Paracrine, and Synaptic).

Long Distance Signaling (hormonal)

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96
Q

What are gap junctions?

A

Localized sets of channels.

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97
Q

Which ER contains ions?

A

Smooth ER

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98
Q

How can neurons communicate by gap junctions?

A

Through the body of the cell.

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99
Q

What happens in contact trough gap junctions?

A

Cells extremely close together in the vicinity interact with each other through gap junctions, allowing for the exchange of material.

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100
Q

How do cells communicate through cell-cell recognition?

A

The protein of one cell binds to the receptor of another cell, allowing for the distribution and exchange of material.

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101
Q

What happens in autocrine signaling?

A

A cell influences itself; signals bind to the receptor on the same cell.

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102
Q

How do cells communicate in paracrine signaling?

A

Cells relatively close together in the vicinity interact with each other through a secretory vesicle in the main cell excreting material and influencing the other target cells.

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103
Q

How do cells communicate in synaptic signaling?

A

Neurotransmitters from one neuron get diffused across the synapse (the small space in between neurons) and influence the other neuron.

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104
Q

Endocrine signaling is _____ distance and has to be _____.

A

Long Distance-Precise

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105
Q

Define Ligand

A

A molecule that binds to another (usually larger) molecule.

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106
Q

Define Signal Transduction

A

The series of steps in which a cell converts a signal into a response.

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107
Q

What are some examples of ligands?

A

Growth Factors, Hormones, and Neurotransmitters. GHN

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108
Q

Growth factors are associated with the _____ of cells.

A

Growth

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109
Q

What are G proteins?

A

Specialized proteins which have the ability to bind GTP and GDP.

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110
Q

What generally happen in the functioning of a G-protein linked receptor?

A

GDP is bound to an inactive protein; when the ligand binds to the GPCR, GTP binds to the G protein and GDP is released. The protein with the GTP binds to the inactive enzyme, making it active. After the process is done, GDP is bound to the inactive protein and inorganic phosphate is released.

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111
Q

The G-Proteins function like a _____. They are either _____ or _____.

A

Switch-On-Off

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112
Q

What type of molecule is cAMP?

A

Second Messenger

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113
Q

What are second messengers and what are some examples?

A

Small molecules or ions that relay signals received by cell-surface receptors to effector proteins. Examples are cAMP, IP3, Ca2+, Na+

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114
Q

What happens in tyrosine kinase receptors?

A

They exist as monomers in the cell with an extra cellular singla receiving portion and an intracellular portion containing tyrosines. Once the signaling molecule binds to the extra cellular side, dimerization occurs. Dimerization activates the tyrosine kinase region of each monomer, adding a phosphate group from an ATP to the other monomer. Once the receptor is fully activated, it is recognized by relay proteins. Relay proteins bind to a specific phosphorylated tyrosine, changing shape and leading to a transduction pathway and a cellular response.

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115
Q

How do ligand-gated ion channel receptors function ?

A

Without the binding of a ligand, the gate remains closed. Once the ligand binds to the receptor, the gate is open and allows for the passage of ions into the membrane.

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116
Q

How do intracellular receptors function?

A

A hormone, (testosterone for example), binds to the intracellular receptor protein. The hormone receptor complex then goes inside the nucleus, into the DNA, and alters gene expression.

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117
Q

What is a key factor for distinguishing living and non-living things?

A

The ability to reproduce.

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118
Q

How does cell division occur in prokaryotes?

A

They do not have a nucleus so they divide by binary fission (separation in the middle). The chromosome is consisted of a circular DNA molecule and is divided.

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119
Q

How do unicellular eukaryotes divide?

A

Through longitudinal division.

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120
Q

A typical human cell has _____ of DNA; this is _____ times bigger than the diameter of the cell. The human has about _____ genes.

A

2 meters- 25,000- 40,000

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121
Q

Define Genome

A

The entire collection of genes characteristic of a particular species.

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122
Q

Define Haploid

A

A cell containing only 1 set of chromosomes. (1n)

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123
Q

Define Diploid

A

A cell containing 2 sets of chromosomes (2n); one set from each parent.

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124
Q

Define Polyploid

A

A cell containing more than 2 sets of chromosomes.

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125
Q

How do humans start off as?

A

As one cell (a fertilized egg); the fusion between an ovum and a sperm.

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126
Q

Which cells in our body are haploid?

A

Gametes (1n); sex cells.

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127
Q

Which cells in our body are diploid?

A

Somatic Cells (2n).

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128
Q

What are examples of when normal controlled cell division occurs?

A

Reproduction-Replacement of Aged Cells-Healing of Wounds

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129
Q

What is an example of abnormal cell division?

A

Cancer and Keloids

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130
Q

Define Mitosis

A

A multi step complex process that passes along the genome from one cell to its daughter cells. The daughter cells are identical to each other and the parental cell.

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131
Q

What are the key steps in cell division and what is each step consisted of?

A

Interphase (G1, S Phase, G2); Mitosis (Prophase-Prometaphase-Metaphase-Anaphase-Telophase)-Cytokinesis

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132
Q

When cells are not dividing, what are they doing?

A

They are in the G0 phase (working).

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133
Q

In which step does the cell spend most of its time in? Shortest time?

A

Interphase is the longest; Mitotic phase (mitosis and cytokinesis) the shortest.

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134
Q

Define Chromosome

A

A large piece of DNA alongside its associated proteins.

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135
Q

Define Centromere

A

A condensed region of DNA; the region of the condensed chromosomes where the 2 sister chromatids join.

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136
Q

Why are chromosomes most visible during mitosis and meiosis?

A

Because the DNA is folded and coiled onto itself.

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137
Q

When are condensed chromosomes present?

A

From prophase to anaphase.

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138
Q

In which phase do the sister chromatids separate?

A

They separate in Anaphase; each chromatid becomes its own chromosome.

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139
Q

Define Chromatin

A

The complex of DNA and proteins (histones) that make up each chromosome.

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140
Q

Define Euchromatin

A

The less condensed form of chromatin that is available for transcription.

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141
Q

Define Heterochromatin

A

The very highly condensed form of chromatin

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142
Q

What is going on in the G2 Phase?

A

Centrosome with centriole pairs, nuclear envelope, nucleolus, and plasma membrane are all present.

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143
Q

What goes on in Prophase?

A

The mitotic spindle (a structure made of micro tubules responsible for organizing chromosomes) begins to form- The chromosomes start to condense- The nucleolus (part of the nucleus where ribosomes are made) disappears.

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144
Q

What goes on in Prometaphase?

A

Chromosomes become even more compact- Nuclear Envelope breaks down- Further growth of the mitotic spindle.

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145
Q

What goes on in Metaphase?

A

All the chromosomes align at the metaphase plate- Kinetochore Microtubules from opposite centrosomes are connected.

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146
Q

What goes on in Anaphase?

A

The microtubules push poles apart, resulting in the separation of chromosomes and formation of sister chromatids (each now its own chromosome)

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147
Q

What goes on in telophase?

A

The chromosomes start to decondense-Spindle begins to disappear- Nuclear membrane and nucleolus form. Basically, it is the opposite of prophase.

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148
Q

What goes on in cytokinesis?

A

The cytoplasm divides to form two new cells.

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149
Q

Define Kinesin

A

A motor protein that transports the chromosomes on microtubules.

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150
Q

Cytokinesis is accomplished through the utilization of _____.

A

Microfilaments.

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151
Q

Generally speaking, what is the main purpose of meiosis I and what is the main purpose of meiosis II?

A

Meiosis I: separation of homologous chromosomes
Meiosis II: separation of sister chromatids.

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152
Q

Define Homologous Chromosomes

A

Chromosome that are similar in structure and size, have the same genes, you get one from each parent. They can have different alleles. One from father and one from mother.

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153
Q

Define Sister Chromatids

A

Replicated forms of a chromosome joined together by the centromere.

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154
Q

Define Synapsis

A

The pairing of replicated homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis I.

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155
Q

Define Crossing-Over

A

The exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids during synapsis in meiosis I.

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156
Q

Define Chiasma

A

The region of the non-sister chromatids where exchange of the genetic material takes place during Meiosis I.

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157
Q

What is the outcome obtained from meiosis?

A

4 haploid daughter cells that are different from the parental cells.

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158
Q

What happens in prophase I?

A

The homologous chromosomes pair and exchange genetic information. This happens at the chiasma.

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159
Q

What happens in metaphase I?

A

The tetrads line up at the metaphase plate.

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160
Q

What happens in anaphase I?

A

Homologous chromosomes separate, 2 chromosomes are left in each cell.

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161
Q

What are some key differences between meiosis and mitosis?

A

Mitosis results in two daughter cells with 2n and meiosis results in 4 daughter cells with 1n.

Meiosis has 2 divisions whereas mitosis only has 1 set of divisions.

Synapsis (the pairing of homologous chromosomes in prophase I) is unique to meiosis and does not occur in mitosis.

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162
Q

What are contributors to genetic variation in species that reproduce sexually?

A

Independent Assortment of homologous chromosomes at the metaphase plate in meiosis I- Crossing Over- Random Fertilization

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163
Q

What does independent assortment entail?

A

The homologous chromosomes can line up in a myriad of ways in the metaphase plate at the end of metaphase in meiosis I.

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164
Q

Each gamete has a _____ chance of having paternal or maternal chromosomes or of having both.

A

50:50

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165
Q

The number of possible combinations for the gametes is _____ where n is the number of chromosomes in the genome.

A

2^n

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166
Q

How does the production of no ATP affect replication?

A

If no ATP is produced, replication cannot happen.

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167
Q

What are the cell cycle control proteins?

A

Kinases and Cyclins

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168
Q

Define Kinases

A

Enzymes that activate or de-activate other proteins by phosphorylating them.

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169
Q

What are cyclins and what are types of cyclins?

A

Cyclins get their name because they cycle in concentration throughout the cell cycle. The two types of cyclin are cdk2 and cyclin B

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170
Q

How is MPF (M-Phase promoting factor) formed?

A

Through the combination of cdk2 and cyclin B

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171
Q

Which of the cyclins are always present in high amounts?

A

Cdk2

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172
Q

What are some affects of MPF being activated?

A

Stimulates the condensation of chromosomes- Early formation of the spindle- Breakdown of the nuclear envelope.

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173
Q

How is MPF inactivated?

A

When cyclin is degraded.

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174
Q

When is MPF activated?

A

At the G2 checkpoint (G2-Prophase)

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175
Q

When is MPF active? When is MPF inactive?

A

From prophase to the end of anaphase.
At the beginning of telophase, the MPF is inactivated.

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176
Q

How do the sister chromatids separate during anaphase?

A

Cohesions, Securin, and Separase

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177
Q

What is the function of separase?

A

It degrades cohesins, allowing for the sister chromatid separation during anaphase.

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178
Q

What does the APC (Anaphase Promoting Complex) do?

A

It stimulates the degradation of a protein called securin in the proteosome; it also tags cyclin so it can be degraded in the proteosome, leading to the loss of MPF function.

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179
Q

What is a karyotype?

A

The display of chromosome pairs of a cell arranged by size, shape, and staining patterns.

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180
Q

How do you prepare a karyotype?

A

You obtain sample cells from an individual, plate them on a Petri dish, stop their division in metaphase, stain them, and examine them.

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181
Q

What does aneuploidy mean?

A

A chromosomal alteration in which certain chromosomes are present in extra copies or deficient in #.

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182
Q

What does non-disjunction mean?

A

The improper separation of homologous chromosomes in meiosis I or the improper separation of sister chromatids in meiosis II.

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183
Q

Define DNA Replication

A

The process by which a DNA molecule is replicated.

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184
Q

_____ is the genetic material.

A

DNA

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185
Q

Define Transformation

A

A change in genotype and phenotype due to the assimilation of external DNA by a cell.

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186
Q

Define Bacteriophage

A

A virus that infects bacteria; also called a phage.

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187
Q

Define Virus

A

An infectious particle inacabable of replicating outside of a cell, consisting of RNA or DNA genome surrounded by a protein coat,

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188
Q

In Hershey’s experiment, what was the DNA tagged with?

A

The protein was tagged with a radioactive isotope of sulfur and the DNA was tagged with a isotope of phosphorus.

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189
Q

The two sugar phosphates were observed by Watson to be anti-parallel. What does this mean?

A

Means that the subunits ran in opposite directions.

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190
Q

Adenine can form _____ hydrogen bonds with thymine and guanine can form _____ hydrogen bonds with cytosine.

A

2-3

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191
Q

Define the Origin of Replication

A

Sites where the replication of a DNA molecule begins, consisting of specific sequence of nucleotides.

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192
Q

Define Replication Fork

A

A Y-shaped region on a replicating DNA molecule where the parental strands are being unwound and the new strands are being synthesized.

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193
Q

Define Helicase

A

An enzyme that untwists the double helix of DNA at the replication forks, separating the two strands and making them available as template strands.

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194
Q

Define Single-Strand Binding proteins

A

A protein that binds to the unpaired DNA strands during replication, stabilizing them and holding them apart while they serve as templates for the synthesis of complementary strands.

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195
Q

Explain everything about Griffith’s experiment.

A

Isolated 2 strains for bacteria that caused pneumonia in mice; S bacteria caused death; r bacteria led to no death. The S bacteria had a capsule that prevented them from being recognized by the immune system. The R bacteria lacked that capsule.

Through heating the S-bacteria, he killed them. After mixing it with the living R cells, the mice still died. Living S cells were somehow found in the sample of blood from the mice and bacterial transformations were discovered.

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196
Q

Explain Bacterial Transformation

A

The change in phenotype and genotype of a bacteria by acquisition of genetic material.

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197
Q

Explain everything about Avery’s Experiment.

A

They wanted to know if the transformation factor was consisted of protein, RNA, or DNA. He removed the carbs and lipids, thus isolating the protein, RNA, and DNA. He then mixed it with the R-bacteria and injected it into the mice. He found that with the elimination of DNA, the mice survived.

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198
Q

Explain everything about Chargaff’s Experiment.

A

Found that DNA is composed of deoxyribose-phosphate- and 4 nitrogenous bases. He then analyzed DNA from many different eukaryotic cells and found that the % and order of the nitrogenous bases varied within the species. A and T were always together and C and G were always bonded together.

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199
Q

Explain everything about Hershey and Chase’s Experiment.

A

The DNA of the virus was injected into the bacteria during infection, leaving the protein outed (coated with radioactive sulfur).

The injected DNA provides genetic information that makes the bacteria produce new viral DNA and protein which assemble into new viruses (DNA coated with radioactive phosphorus).

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200
Q

What is PET?

A

An imaging technique that reveals how tissues and organs are functioning; the tracer collects in areas of the body where chemical activity is high, which often correspond to the areas of diseases.

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201
Q

What is RNA composed of?

A

Ribose-Phosphate-Adenine-Uracil-Cytosine-Guanine

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202
Q

What is the difference between ribose and deoxyribose?

A

Deoxyribose has one LESS hydroxyl group.

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203
Q

How many rings do purines have and what nitrogenous bases fall under it?

A

2-A-G

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204
Q

How many rings do pyrimidines have and what nitrogenous bases fall under it?

A

1-C-T-U

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205
Q

Phosphate groups are linked to the _____ carbon of the sugar.

A

5’

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206
Q

What bonds are present in the sugar phosphate backbone?

A

Phosphodiester Bonds

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207
Q

What did Watson and Crick infer from Franklin’s data?

A

DNA was a double helix; 2nm space in the diameter..
The bases in the DNA were separated by 0.34nm. The helix makes one full turn every 3.4nm. There were the base pairs per turn. Inferred that the sugar phosphate backbone faced the outside of the helix.

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208
Q

For the measurements to be appropriate, there had to be a combination of _____ and _____.

A

1 Purine and 1 Pyrimidine

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209
Q

Is the double helix polar?

A

Yes

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210
Q

Watson and Crick proposed a _____ model when it came to the structure of the DNA.

A

Semi-Conservative; this means that each chain that separated would serve as a template for the formation of a new chain.

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211
Q

What were the proposed models for DNA Replication?

A

Conservative- Semi Conservative- Dispersive

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212
Q

What is meant by semi-conservative replication?

A

The two strands of the original helix separate, and each strand functions as the temperature for the synthesis of a new complementary strand; half is conserved.

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213
Q

What is meant by conservative replication?

A

The original double helix get back together replication, therefore the new one lacks any of the old one; full conservation of one helix.

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214
Q

What is meant by dispersive replication?

A

The two strands of the original double helix separate, and each strand of both daughter molecules contains a mixture of old and newly synthesized parts; old and new mixture.

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215
Q

What did Meselson and Stahl use for their experiment?

A

14 N and 15N.

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216
Q

Meselson and Stahl analyzed the DNA extracted from the bacteria in terms of _____.

A

Weight

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217
Q

One round of bacterial takes _____.

A

20 minss

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218
Q

What are the mechanisms of DNA replication?

A

Unwinding of the DNA strands- Initiation of Replication- Elongation of the DNA Strands being replicated- Termination of Replication.

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219
Q

Origins of replication are associated with a _____.

A

Bubble

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220
Q

Each replication bubble has ______ replication forks.

A

2

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221
Q

Which order of strands are continuous?

A

From the origin of replication, 3’ to 5’ strands are continuous.

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222
Q

Define Helicases

A

Enzymes that untwist the double helix at the replication forks, separating the 2 strands and making them available as templates.

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223
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for releasing the tension in DNA strands?

A

Topoisomerase

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224
Q

Define Topoisomerase

A

An enzymes that breaks, swivels, and rejoins the DNA strands. During the replication of DNA, this enzyme helps relieve the strain in the double helix ahead of the replication fork.

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225
Q

Define Single Strand Binding Proteins

A

Proteins that bind to the unpaired DNA strands during replication, stabilizing them and holding them apart while they serve as templates for the synthesis of complementary DNA strands.

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226
Q

Define Primase

A

An RNA Polymerase that joins RNA nucleotides to make the primer using parental DNA strands as a template.

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227
Q

Define DNA Polymerase III

A

A complex of enzymes that catalyzes the elongation of new DNA by adding nucleotides to the 3’ end of an existing chain. It elongates in the 5’ to 3’ direction and READS in the 3’ to 5’ direction.

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228
Q

What is an important thing to note about DNA Polymerase III?

A

It can only add nucleotides to the 3’ end of a sequence and CANNOT do it by itself. It needs the Primase enzyme to add a sequence of nucleotides.

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229
Q

The _____ end has to en free to allow for further binding.

A

3’

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230
Q

What is the bond formed between the carbon ends and the phosphate groups of another nucleotide?

A

Phosphodiester Bond

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231
Q

What happens to the phosphate group when DNA Polymerase allows for the binding of nucleotides?

A

2 inorganic phosphates get released in the cytoplasm and the nuclear matrix.

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232
Q

_____ must be removed; this is done by _____.

A

Primers- DNA Polymerase I

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233
Q

Define DNA Polymerase I

A

An enzyme that removes and replaces the RNA primer.

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234
Q

Define Ligase

A

An enzyme that ligates the ends of DNA molecules.

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235
Q

What is the main difference between leading DNA strands and lagging strands?

A

The main difference is that the leading strand is continuous and the lagging strand is in Okazaki FRAGMENTS.

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236
Q

Define Okazaki Fragments

A

Short sections of DNA. Formed at the time of discontinuous synthesis of the lagging strand during replication of DNA.

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237
Q

What is meant by the proofreading activity of DNA Polymerase?

A

Polymerase has the ability to check each nucleotide against the template soon after it is added to the growing strand. In real life, we find 1 in 10 million mistakes.

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238
Q

How do mismatched nucleotide evade DNA Polymerase proofreading?

A

They evade proofreading or occur after DNA replication because of the exposure of cells to things such as chemical carinogens and UV light.

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239
Q

How is the mismatched nucleotide problem fixed?

A

Thymine dimer distorts the DNA molecule.
A nuclease enzyme cuts the damaged DNA strand at two points.
DNA polymerase fills the gap.
DNA ligase seals the remaining nick.

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240
Q

How many enzymes aid in the fixing of nucleotide mismatching? What is a defect in these enzymes associated with?

A

We have about 130 enzymes. Defects of one of these enzymes is associated with colon cancer.

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241
Q

What happens in the process of chromatin packing?

A

Proteins called histones allow for the wrapping of strands to make nucleosome beads. The beads pack together. The domains further loop and get more and more condensed.

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242
Q

Which histones are available to us? Which histones do the nucleosome contain?

A

H1,H2A,H2B,H3,H4 are available to us.

H2A,H2B,H3,H4 are contained in the nucleosome (2 of each)

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243
Q

Which histone is not present in the octamer? Where is it located?

A

H1; it is attached near the nucleosome.

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244
Q

What are histone modifications?

A

Methylation of Histones leads to the condensation of DNA and PREVENTS transcription of genes.
Acetylation of HIstones leads to the decondensation of DNA and ALLOWS for the transcription of genes.

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245
Q

What is the basic idea of the Central Dogma?

A

DNA to mRNA is transcription and mRNA to proteins is translation.

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246
Q

Why do we need mRNA between DNA and protein?

A

Because one mRNA molecule can make many proteins thereby amplifying the process. Few mRNAs can translate many proteins.

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247
Q

What is the Beadle and Tatum gene theory?

A

They believed that genes would only code for enzymes. It was later discovered that many proteins are not enzymes. So, this theory became the one gene one protein theory. THE RIGHT VERSION IS ONE GENE ONE POLYPEPTIDE.

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248
Q

What does it mean that transcription and translation are coupled?

A

Transcribed mRNA begins to translate into a polypeptide while still being transcribed.

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249
Q

Which key enzyme is involved in transcription?

A

RNA Polymerase II

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250
Q

What are polyribosomes?

A

Multiple ribosomes

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251
Q

Where does transcription occur in prokaryotes and where does it occur in eukaryotes?

A

In prokaryotes, transcription happens inside of the cell itself and in eukaryotes, transcription happens inside of the cytosol.

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252
Q

What is the initial transcript of DNA called?

A

Heterogenous Nuclear RNA (hnRNA) or pre-mRNA or primary transcript.

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253
Q

What does the primary transcript of DNA contain?

A

Introns and exons; introns are then spliced in the spliceosome.

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254
Q

What is a transcription unit?

A

A transcription unit is a portion of the gene which consists of a start sequence and a termination sequence.

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255
Q

How many genes does one transcript unit have in eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

1 in eukaryotes and many in prokaryotes.

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256
Q

What are the present stages in transcription?

A

Binding of RNA Polymerase II- Unwinding of the DNA- Initiation- Elongation- Termination

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257
Q

Define Promoter

A

Promoter is the binding region for RNA Polymerase II; once the Polymerase binds to the promoter, transcription begins.

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258
Q

Which strand is called the template strand in transcription?

A

The strand that contains RNA Polymerase II is called the template strand.

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259
Q

In what direction is DNA read in transcription?

A

3’ to 5’.

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260
Q

Does RNA Polymerase II have proofreading activity?

A

No, it does not.

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261
Q

What are the detailed steps that occur in transcription? (In prokaryotic cells)

A

RNA polymerase II elongates the DNA much like DNA polymerase III but uses RIBONUCLEOTIDES instead of deoxyribonucleotides. Only one strand is transcribed at a time. The RNA polymerase II untwists one turn of the double helix DNA at the time and the terminator sequence in prokaryotes signal the end of transcription.

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262
Q

In eukaryotic cells, RNA polymerase II needs the help of other proteins called _____ to find the promoter region.

A

Transcription Factors

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263
Q

Define Transcription Factors

A

Proteins that recognize the sequence of nucleotides next to the promoter sequence.

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264
Q

What happens in transcription ind teal for eukaryotic cells?

A

The promoter region extends significantly upstream of the TATA box and contains a number of sequences that bind proteins called transcription factors and activator proteins.

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265
Q

Is hnRNA larger than mRNA??

A

Yes, it is; it contains both introns and exons.

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266
Q

What are the modifications done to pre-mRNA?

A

The 5’ guanine cap is added and the 3’ poly A tail is added in the nucleus.

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267
Q

RNA splicing can occur in the ______; this is the location of the spliceosome.

A

Nucleus

268
Q

What is the spliceosome consisted of and what does it do?

A

It it consisted of snRNPs and other proteins which come together in the spliceosome and get rid of the present introns in the pre-mRNA.

269
Q

Each _____ corresponds to the appropriate exon.

A

Domain

270
Q

What does it mean for adults to have sticky domains?

A

The exons that code for the domains are sticky, not allowing for the movement of genes. In embryos, however, the embryonic fibronectin is not sticky, allowing for the movement of genes.

271
Q

What is the role of the 5’ cap added to the mRNA.

A

It protects the mRNA from degradation and guides it to the ribosome for protein synthesis.

272
Q

What is the role of the Poly A tail?

A

It protects the mRNA form degradation and it guides it through the nucleopores to the cytosol.

273
Q

Is transcription followed by translation immediately in eukaryotes or prokaryotes?

A

Prokaryotes

274
Q

How many different amino acid combinations do us humans have?

A

64

275
Q

What does it mean for the genetic code to be redundant but no ambiguous?

A

Codons are similar but no one codon can code for multiple amino acids.

276
Q

What is the firefly protein called?

A

Luciferase

277
Q

What is the start codon and what is it called?

A

AUG- Methionine

278
Q

What are the stop codons?

A

UAG-UGA-UAA

279
Q

What enzyme is responsible for the addition of the 5’ cap to the mRNA?

A

Guanyl Tranferase.

280
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for the addition of a poly A tail?

A

Poly A Polymerase

281
Q

What is the ribosome composed of?

A

2 subunits; the alpha and the beta subunit.

282
Q

Where is the ribosome made and where is it transferred to?

A

It is made in the nucleolus and transferred into the cytosol.

283
Q

What is the job of tRNA and what is its structure?

A

Its job is to transfer amino acids to the ribosome and the amino acid attachment site is at the 3’ end.

284
Q

How many different tRNAs do we have?

A

45.

285
Q

What does the wobble property mean?

A

The bonding that occurs in tRNA is not as strict and some wobbly bonds can be formed.

286
Q

What does it mean for the genetic code to be degenerate?

A

The first two bases of the codon that code for the same amino acid are the same but the third one differs.

287
Q

What is the job of the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase?

A

Its job is to join the amino acid to a tRNA.

288
Q

How does aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase do its job?

A

Amino acid and ATP come into the enzyme; for the binding of the amino acid, energy from ATP is needed. Two phosphates get released, leaving AMP attached to the amino acid. From there, the tRNA binds to the enzyme and the AMP is released. Now, the amino acid binds to the tRNA. And the activated amino acid is released.

289
Q

What are the sites on the ribosome and on which subunit are they located on?

A

E,P,A (located on the large subunit). E= Exit Site.
P= peptidyl-tRNA binding site; A= aminoacyl-trna binding site.

290
Q

On which subunit is the mRNA binding site located on?

A

The small subunit.

291
Q

mRNA is read from the _____ direction.

A

5’ to 3’.

292
Q

What happens in translation specifically?

A

The process is initiated when an tRNA with AUG binds to the small ribosomal subunit. The energy from GTP is used to allow for the brining in of the large ribosomal subunit. The tRNA then sits on the P site of the amino acid. A new tRNA comes into the A site, and peptide bonds are formed in between the amino acids of the A site and the P site. The energy used again from GTP allows for the movement of one tRNA to the E site. Lastly, a release factor binds to the A site of the ribosome, leading to the release of the tRNA and the growing chain of amino acids. The ribosomal submits are broken apart as well.

293
Q

What is the difference between the ribosomes of eukaryotes and prokaryote?

A

Prokaryotes have smaller and slightly different ribosomes than eukaryotes; these difference are used to develop antibiotics that perturb translation in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes.

294
Q

Where are proteins made and where do they end up going?

A

They are made in the cytosol; they either stay in the cytosol or go to the ER.

295
Q

What are the two types of ribosomes?

A

Bound ribosomes (attached to the ROUGH ER)
Free ribosomes (in the cytosol).

296
Q

The proteins that go from the ER to the golgi come out in vesicles that are:

A

Secreted: they fuse with the plasma membrane and release the proteins to the outside of the cell or fuse with the membrane and remain in the membrane.

Stay in the cell: are delivered to organelles or to the plasma membrane).

297
Q

How does targeting proteins to the ER work?

A

The polypeptide on the ribosome has a portion called the signal polypeptide. The signal-recognition particles binds to the signal peptide, bringing it to the SRP Receptor protein. From there, the polypeptide get is released into the ER.

298
Q

What are naturally occurring mutations?

A

They are spontaneous mutations that can results in errors in replication or repair or recombination.

299
Q

Errors in replication or repair include?

A

The failing of DNA Polymerase III to proofread.

300
Q

Errors in recombination include?

A

Occurrences during crossing over.

301
Q

What are silent mutations?

A

Have no effect on the amino acid being produced by the codon due to the redundancy of the genetic code.

302
Q

What are Missense mutations?

A

Still code for an amino acid, but not for the right one. Called a non synonymous mutation.

303
Q

What is a nonsense mutation?

A

Can change an amino acid codon into a stop codon, nearly always leads to a nunfunctional protein.

304
Q

What do indels lead to?

A

Frameshift mutations.

305
Q

What are the theories generated regarding heredity?

A

Blending and Particulate

306
Q

What did Aristotle believe regarding heredity?

A

He believed that particles called pan genes came together to form the sperm and the egg.

307
Q

What did Leeuwenhoek believe?

A

He believed that the sperm was the driving force behind inheritance (the inheritance primarily came from sperm).

308
Q

What did de Graff believe?

A

He believed that heredity primarily came from the egg (the egg was the driving force behind heredity).

309
Q

What did the blending theory of heredity suggest?

A

It suggested that the mixture of parents provide an intermediate heritability of traits.

310
Q

What did the particulate theory of heredity state and who was the pioneer.

A

It stated that the transmittance of discrete heritable factors remain separate from one generation to the next.

311
Q

What did Mendel use?

A

He used true breeding varieties.

312
Q

What are true-breeding varieties?

A

A variety that when it self-pollinates the offspring are the same a the parents, generation after generation.

313
Q

Each gene in a diploid organism is represented by two _____.

A

Alleles

314
Q

Define allele.

A

A variant of a gene.

315
Q

Define Locus

A

Specific location on the chromosome that contains an allele.

316
Q

Define character.

A

Inheritable features (genes).

317
Q

Define Trait

A

Variant of character (allele).

318
Q

What is a mono hybrid cross?

A

A cross between parental varieties thar differ in one gene; the law of segregation was deducted by this.

319
Q

What is genotype?

A

An organism’s genetic makeup.

320
Q

What is phenotype?

A

An organisms observable physical characteristics.

321
Q

Define Homozygous.

A

Having two identical alleles for a given gene.

322
Q

Define heterozygous.

A

Having two different alleles for a given gene.

323
Q

Define Dominant Allele

A

The allele that is fully expressed in the phenotype of a heterozygous organism.

324
Q

Define Recessive Allele

A

The allele that is completely masked in the phenotype of an organism.

325
Q

_____ account for the variations in the inherited characteristics.

A

Alleles

326
Q

The two alleles are inherited one from each ______.

A

Parent

327
Q

What does the law of segregation of alleles mean?

A

The two alleles present in the two homologous chromosomes will segregate into different gametes. Random paring will happen.

328
Q

What is a testcross?

A

A cross between an organism with a dominant phenotype but an unknown genotype with an organism that is homozygous recessive.

329
Q

What is incomplete dominance?

A

Neither of one the alleles is dominant; the results obtained doesn’t rely on the presence of one allele.

330
Q

Define Dihybrid Cross

A

A cross between two parental varieties that differ by two genes.

331
Q

What is the law of independent assortment?

A

Each pairs of the alleys assorts independently in the gametes because the non-homologous chromosomes assort themselves independently during meiosis I.

332
Q

What are the levels of biological organization?

A

Biosphere-Ecosystem-Community-Population-Organsm. BECPO

333
Q

Define Biosphere

A

The entire population of earth inhabited by life.

334
Q

Define Ecosysten

A

All the organisms in a given area as well as the abiotic factors with which they interact; one or more communities with the physical environment around them.

335
Q

Define Community

A

All the organisms that inhabit a particular area; an assemblage of populations of different species living close enough together for potential interaction.

336
Q

Define Population

A

A group of individuals of the same species that live in the same area and interbreed, producing fertile offspring.

337
Q

Define Organism

A

An individual living thing; consisting of one or more cells.

338
Q

Define Organ

A

A specialized center of body function composed of several different types of tissues.

339
Q

Define Tissues

A

An integrated group of cells with similar structure, function, or both.

340
Q

Define Cell

A

Life’s fundamental unit of structure and function; the smallest unit of organization that can perform all activities required for life.

341
Q

Define Organelle

A

Any of several membrane-enclosed structure with specialized functions, suspended in the cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells.

342
Q

Define Molecule

A

Two or more atom held together by covalent bonds.

343
Q

What is the rest of the biological system consisted of?

A

Organ-Tissues-Cells-Organelle-Molecule OTCOM

344
Q

Define Emergent Properties

A

New properties that arise with each step upward in the hierarchy of life, owing to the arrangement and interaction of parts as complexity increases.

345
Q

What are the different types of cells?

A

Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic

346
Q

What group of singe-called microorganisms are prokaryotic?

A

Bacteria-Archaea

347
Q

Define Eukaryotic Cell

A

A type of cell with a membrane-enclosed nucleus and membrane enclosed organelles. Organisms with eukaryotic cells. (Plants, fungi, animals, protists).

348
Q

Define Prokaryotic Cell

A

A cell lacking a nucleus or other membrane-bound organelles. Furthermore, prokaryotic cells are generally smaller than eukaryotic cells.

349
Q

Define DNA (deoxyibonucleic acid).

A

A nucleic acid molecule, usually a double stranded helix, in which polynucleotide strands consist of nucleotide monomers with a deoxyribose sugar and nitrogenous bases adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine; capable of being replicated and determine the inherited structure of the proteins of cells.

350
Q

Define Genes

A

A discrete unit off heredity information consisting of a specific nucleotide sequences in DNA.

351
Q

Each chromosome contains one very long DNA molecule with hundreds of thousands of _____, each a section of the DNA of the chromosome.

A

Genes

352
Q

Define Gene Expression

A

The process by which information encoded in the DNA directs the synthesis of proteins, or, in some cases, RNA that are not translated into proteins and instead function as RNAs.

353
Q

Define Genome

A

The genetic material of an organism.

354
Q

Define Proteome

A

The entire sets of proteins expressed by a cell or a tissue.

355
Q

Define Producers

A

Organisms that produces organic compounds from CO2 by harnessing light energy (in photosynthesis) or by oxidizing inorganic compounds.

356
Q

Define Consumers

A

An organism that feeds on producers, other consumers, or non-living organic materia.

357
Q

Define Feedback Regulation

A

The regulation of a process by its output or end result.

358
Q

Define Evolution

A

Descent with modification.

359
Q

What are the three domains named by biologists?

A

Bacteria-Archaea-Eukarya

360
Q

What are the divisions of domains called?

A

Kingdoms.

361
Q

What are the kingdoms present in the Eukarya domain?

A

Protists-Animals-Fungi-Plants

362
Q

Define Inductive Reasoning

A

A type of logic in which generalizations are made based on a large number of specific observations.

363
Q

Define Deductive Reasoning

A

A type of logic in which results are predicted from a general premise.

364
Q

Define Matter

A

Anything that has mass and takes up space.

365
Q

Matter is made of _____.

A

Elements

366
Q

Define Element

A

Any substance that cannot be broken down to an other substance by chemical reactions.

367
Q

Define Compound

A

A substance containing two or more different elements in a fixed ratio.

368
Q

Of the natural 92 elements, _____ are essential.

A

20-25%

369
Q

Define Essential Elements

A

A chemical element required for an organism to survive, grow, and reproduce.

370
Q

How many elements do humans need an how many elements do plants need?

A

Humans: 25
Plants: 17

371
Q

What are the 4 elements that make up 96% of the living mattter.

A

Carbon-Oxygen-Hydrogen-Nitrogen. CHON

372
Q

Define Trace Elements

A

An element necessary for life but required in extremely minute amounts.

373
Q

What is an example of a trace element?

A

Iron

374
Q

What is caused by a deficiency in iodine?

A

It causes the thyroid grain to grow to an abnormal size; called goiter.

375
Q

What is an example of a naturally occurring element that is toxic to humans?

A

Arsenic

376
Q

What is an example of a community that has adapted to an environment contain toxic elements?

A

Serpentine Plant Community

377
Q

Define ATOM

A

The smallest unit of matter that retains the properties of an element.

378
Q

What are the three kinds of subatomic particles?

A

Protons-Neutrons-Electrons

379
Q

Define Neutron

A

A nerve cell; its the fundamental unit of the nervous system, having structure and properties that allow it to conduct signals by taking advantage of the electrical charge across it plasma membrane.

380
Q

Define Proton

A

A subatomic particle with a single positive electrical charge. Found in the nucleus of an atom.

381
Q

Define Electron

A

A subatomic particle with a negative charge and a mass of about 1/2000 of a neutron or a proton.

382
Q

Define Atomic Nucleus

A

An atom’s central dense core, containing protons and neutrons.

383
Q

Define Atomic Number

A

The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.

384
Q

Define Mass Number

A

The total number of protons and neutrons in a cell.

385
Q

Define Isotope

A

One of several atomic forms of an element, each with the same number of protons but with a different number of neutrons, thus different in atomic mass.

386
Q

Do isotopes behave identically in chemical reactions?

A

Yes

387
Q

Define Radioactive Isotope.

A

An isotope that is unstable and decays spontaneously.

388
Q

Which of the subatomic particles are involved in chemical reactions?

A

Electrons

389
Q

Define Energy

A

The capacity to cause change, especially to do work.

390
Q

The more distant an electron is from the nucleus, the _____ its potential energy.

A

GREATER

391
Q

Define Electron Shells

A

An energy level of electrons at a characteristic average distance from the nucleus of an atom.

392
Q

How many electrons can each shell hold (going from the closest shell to the farthest)?

A

2,8,8

393
Q

Define Valence Electrons

A

An electron in the outermost shell.

394
Q

Define Valence Shell

A

The outermost energy shell of an atom, contains the valence shell electrons involved in the chemical reactions of an atom.

395
Q

Can atoms filled with electron shells partake in chemical reactions?

A

No, they are Inter.

396
Q

Define Orbital.

A

The 3D space where an electron is found 90% of the time.

397
Q

Define Covalent Bonds

A

A type of strong chemical bond in which two atoms are one or more pairs of valence electrons.

398
Q

Define Valence

A

The bonding capacity of the given atom; the number of covalent bonds it can form, which usually equals the numbers of unpaired electrons in its outermost shell.

399
Q

Define Non-Polar Covalent bond.

A

A type of covalent bond where electrons are being shared equally between two atoms of similar Electronegativity.

400
Q

Define Polar-Covalent Bond.

A

A covalent bond between atoms that differ in Electronegativity. The shared electrons are pulled closer to the more electronegative atom, making it slightly less negative and the other atom slightly more positive.

401
Q

Define Ions

A

An atom or a group of atoms that has gained or lost one or more electrons.

402
Q

Define Cation

A

A positively charged ion.

403
Q

Define Anion

A

A negatively charged ion.

404
Q

Does an ionic compound consist of molecules?

A

No

405
Q

Define Hydrogen Bond

A

A type of weak chemical bond formed when the slightly positive hydrogen atom of a polar covalent bond in one molecule is attracted to the slightly negative atom of a polar covalent bond in another molecule or in another region of the same molecule.

406
Q

Define van der Waals Interactions

A

Weak attractions between molecules or parts of molecules that result from transient local charges.

407
Q

Define Reactants

A

A starting material in the chemical reaction.

408
Q

Define Product

A

A material resulting from a chemical reaction.

409
Q

Are atoms destroyed/created in a chemical reaction or re-arranged?

A

Re-arranged.

410
Q

Define Chemical Equilibrium

A

In a chemical reaction, the state in which the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction, so that the relative concentrations of the reactants and products do not change with time.

411
Q

What is the most abundant element?

A

CARBON

412
Q

What are the maximum number of electron shells that an atom can have?

A

3.

413
Q

How many electrons can each orbit hold?

A

2

414
Q

Are H-bond present in DNA?

A

Yes

415
Q

Define Polar Covalent Bonds

A

A covalent bond between atoms that differ in Electronegativity. The shared electrons are pulled closer to the more electronegative atom, making it slightly negative and the other slightly positive.

416
Q

Are hydrogen bonds fragile when water is in its liquid form?

A

Yes

417
Q

What is a typical behavior exhibited by hydrogen bonds?

A

They break and re-form with high frequency.

418
Q

Define Cohesion

A

The linking of like molecules, often done by hydrogen bonds.

419
Q

How does water move against gravity inside of plants?

A

Cohesion due to the hydrogen bonding contributes to the transport of water and dissolved nutrients against the gravity of plants. Water from the roots reaches the leaves through a network of water-conducting cells.

420
Q

Define Adhesion

A

The clinging of one substance to another, such as water to plant cells by means of hydrogen bonds.

421
Q

What is related to Cohesion?

A

Surface Tension

422
Q

Define Surface Tension

A

The measure of how difficult it is to break the surface of a liquid,. Water has high surface tension because of the hydrogen bonds of surface molecules.

423
Q

Define KE

A

The energy associated with the random motion of objects. Moving matter can perform work by imparting motion to another matter.

424
Q

Define Thermal Energy

A

KE due to the random motions of molecules and atoms.

425
Q

Is thermal energy the same thing as temperature?

A

No

426
Q

Does a pot of coffee have more thermal energy or a swimming pool? Why?

A

A swimming pool.

Although the pot of coffee has a much higher temperature than the water in a swimming pool, the swimming pool contains more thermal energy due to its volume.

427
Q

Define Heat

A

The transfer of thermal energy from one body of mass to another.

428
Q

Define Calorie

A

The amount of heat energy required to heat 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius.

429
Q

Define Kilocalorie

A

The amount of heat needed to heat 1kg of water by 1 degree Celsius.

430
Q

Define Specific Heat

A

The amount of heat that must be absorbed or lost for 1g of a substance to change its temperature by 1 degree Celsius.

431
Q

Define Evaporative Cooling

A

The process in which the surface of an object becomes cooler during evaporation, a result of molecules with the greatest kinetic energy changing from the liquid to the gaseous state.

432
Q

At what temperature does water reach its greatest density?

A

4

433
Q

Define Solution

A

A liquid that is a homogenous mixture of two or more substances.

434
Q

Define Solvent

A

The dissolving agent of a solution. Water is the most versatile solvent.

435
Q

Define Solute

A

A substance that is dissolved in the solution.

436
Q

Define Hydration shell

A

The sphere of water molecules around a dissolved ion.

437
Q

Define Hydrophilic

A

Having attraction for water.

438
Q

Define Hydrophobic

A

Having no affinity for water; tending to coalesce and form droplets.

439
Q

What is the concentration of hydrogen and hydroxide ions in pure water?

A

10^-7M

440
Q

Define Acid

A

A substance that increases the hydrogen ion concentration of a solution.

441
Q

Define Base

A

A substance that decreases the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution.

442
Q

Define pH

A

A measure of hydrogen ion concentration equal to -log (H+) and ranging in value from 0 to 14.

443
Q

What is the equation for the product of hydrogen and hydroxide concentrations?

A

[H+][OH-]=10^-14

444
Q

What happens to the pH as the concentration of the hydrogen ion increases?

A

It goes down.

445
Q

What do the pH ranges indicate?

A

Lower than 7 means it’s acidic.

7 means its neutral.

Higher than 7 means that it’s basic.

446
Q

Define Buffer

A

A solution that contains a weak acid and its corresponding base. A buffer minimizes the change in pH when acids or bases are added to the solution.

447
Q

Define Ocean Acidification.

A

The process by which the pH of the ocean is lowered (made more acidic) when excess CO2 dissolves in seawater and forms carbonic acid.

448
Q

Define the Process of Ocean Acidification

A

As seawater acidifies, the extra hydrogen ions combine with the carbonate ion to form bicarbonate ions, thereby reducing the carbonate ion concentration. The decrease in carbonate ion concentration is significant because the ions are required for calcification, the production of calcium carbonate by many marine organisms.

449
Q

What are the 4 emergent properties of water that contribute to Earth’s sustainability for life?

A

Cohesive/Adhesive Properties-Ability to Moderate Temperature-Expansion Upon Freezing-Versatility as a Solvent. CTES

450
Q

What is the acronym for cohesion and adhesion?

A

CI-AO. Cohesion-Itself; Adhesion-Other

451
Q

How does a Carbon atom complete its valence shell?

A

By sharing its 4 electrons with other atoms so that 8 electrons are present.

452
Q

What are the most frequent bonding partners for carbon?

A

H,O,N

453
Q

Define Hydrocarbons

A

An organic molecule composed of only hydrogen and carbon.

454
Q

What are 4 ways that the carbon skeleton can vary?

A

Length-Branching-Presence of a Double Bond-Presence of Rings. LBDR

455
Q

What is a characteristic of hydrocarbons?

A

They can undergo reactions that release a relatively large amount of energy.

456
Q

What do fat molecules consist of?

A

They consist of a small, non hydrocarbon component joined to three hydrocarbon tails that account for the hydrophobic behavior of fasts.

457
Q

Define Isomers

A

One of two or more compounds that have the same numbers of atoms of the same elements but different structures and hence different properties.

458
Q

What are the 3 types of isomers?

A

Structural-Cis/Trans-Enantiomers

459
Q

Define Structural Isomers

A

One of two or more compounds that have the same molecular formula but differ in the covalent arrangements of their atoms. They may have a different location of double bonds.

460
Q

Define Cis/Trans Isomer

A

One of several compounds that have the same molecular formula and covalent bonds between atoms but differ in location of double bonds.

461
Q

Define Cis Isomer

A

The two X’s are on the same side. CS (Cis-Same)

462
Q

Define Trans Isomer

A

The two X’s are on the opposite sides.

463
Q

Define Enantiomer

A

One of two compounds that are mirror images of each other and that differ in shape due to the presence of an asymmetric carbon.

464
Q

Define Functional Groups

A

A specific configuration of atoms commonly attached to the carbon skeleton of organic molecules and involved in chemical reactions.

465
Q

What are the 7 chemical groups?

A

HCCA-SPM. Hydroxyl-Carboxyl-Carbonyl-Amino-Sulfhydryl-Phosphate-Methyl

466
Q

Explain everything about the Hydroxyl group.

A

Is polar due to the presence of an electronegative oxygen. Forms hydrogen bonds with water, helping dissolve compounds such as sugars.

An example is ethanol. HE

The hydroxyl group is a single bound coming out of it. (-OH)

467
Q

Explain everything about the Carbonyl Group

A

Sugars with ketones are called ketoses; those with aldehydes are called aldoses.

An example is Acetone. CA

Carbonyl is a carbon double bonded to an O with two single bonds combing out of the carbon.

468
Q

Explain everything about the carboxyl group.

A

Acts as an acid (can donate H+) because the covalent bond between the oxygen and hydrogen is is so polar.

An example is acetic acid. CA

Carboxyl is COOH. A carbon double bonded to an O with a single OH bond coming out of the carbon. One of the bonds is empty.

469
Q

Explain everything about the Amino Group

A

Acts as a base; can accept H+ from the surrounding solution.

An example is glycine. AG

An amino group is NH2. N has 3 bonds coming out of it, 2 being bonded to H

470
Q

Explain everything about the Sulfhydryl Group

A

Two S-H groups can react, forming a cross-link that helps stabilizes proteins structures.

An example includes Cysteine. SC

Sulfhydryl group is a SH with a single bonding coming out of it.

471
Q

Explain everything about the phosphate group?

A

Contributes negative charges.

An example includes Glycerol Phosphate. GP

The phosphate group is OPO32-; the P is double bonded to one O, with single bonds to the other O’s.

472
Q

Explain everything about the methyl group.

A

Affects the expression of genes when on DNA or proteins bound to the DNA.

An example includes 5-Methylcytosine.

The methyl group is CH3. Carbon is single bonded to 3 different hydrogens, with another single bond coming out of it.

473
Q

Define ATP

A

An adenine containing nucleoside triphosphate that releases free energy when its bonds are hydrolyzed.

474
Q

Define Asymmetric Carbon

A

A carbon with an organic compound that contains 4 different atoms or groups of atoms.

475
Q

Can carbons with a double bond or a triple bond ever be asymmetric?

A

No, because they have three and two bonds respectively.

476
Q

How can you tell if a carbon is asymmetric?

A

If there’s 4 different groups bonded to it, then it’s asymmetric. When we’re analyzing a carbon and looking at the groups, the groups include everything in the respective directions we’re looking at.

477
Q

Which of the functional groups are hydrophobic?

A

Methyl

478
Q

What are the 4 major classes that molecules can be put in?

A

Carbs-Lipids-Proteins-Nucleic Acids. CLPA

479
Q

Define Macromolecules

A

A giant molecule formed by the joining of smaller molecules, usually by a dehydration reaction.

480
Q

What does dehydrogenase do in the body?

A

It breaks down alcohol.

481
Q

Macromolecules are _____ built from _____.

A

Polymers-Monomers

482
Q

Define Polymer

A

A long molecule consisting of many similar or identical monomers linked together by covalent bonds.

483
Q

Define Monomers

A

The subunit that serves as the building blocks for polymers.

484
Q

Define Enzymes

A

A macromolecule that serves as a catalyst; a chemical agent that increases the rate of reaction without being consumed by the reaction. Most enzymes are proteins.

485
Q

Define Dehydration Reaction

A

A chemical reaction in which two molecules become covalent bonded together with the removal of a water molecule. (DEHYDRATION-JOINED)

486
Q

How are polymers disassembled to monomers?

A

Through hydrolysis.

487
Q

Define Hydrolysis

A

A chemical reaction that breaks bonds between two molecules by the addition of water; functions in the disassembly of polymers.

488
Q

What is an example of hydrolysis in our bodies?

A

Digestion

489
Q

_____ serve as fuel and building material.

A

Carbs

490
Q

Define Carbohydrates

A

A sugar (monosaccharide) or one of its dimers (disaccharides).

491
Q

Define Monosaccharides

A

The simplest carbohydrate, active alone or serving as the monomer for disaccharides and polysaccharides. Also called simple sights, monosaccharides have molecular formulas that generally some multiple of CH2O.

492
Q

What is the most common monosaccharide?

A

Glucose C6H12O6

493
Q

How are ketoses and aldoses distinguished structurally?

A

It depends on the location of the carbonyl group.

494
Q

What is the range for the size of carbon rings in sugars?

A

3-7

495
Q

What is an asymmetric carbon?

A

A carbon that is bonded to 4 different groups.

496
Q

For aldehyde groups, where are the carbonyl groups located?

A

At the end of the carbon skeleton. AE

497
Q

For ketones, where are the carbonyl groups located?

A

Within the carbon skeleton. KW

498
Q

What is the formula for Trioses and what are two examples?

A

C3H6O3; glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyaceotne

499
Q

What is the formula for Pentoses and what are some examples?

A

C510O5; ribose and ribulose.

500
Q

What is the formula for Hexoses and what are some examples?

A

C6H12O6; glucose, fructose.

501
Q

In ring structures, what does each unlabeled corner represent?

A

Carbon

502
Q

What does the thicker edge of the ring indicate?

A

That you’re looking at the ring edge-on. The components attached to the ring lie above or below the plane of the ring.

503
Q

Define Disaccharide

A

A double sugar, consisting of two monosaccharides joined by a glycosidic linkage formed by a dehydration reaction.

504
Q

Define Glycosidic Linkage

A

A covalent bond formed between two monosaccharides by a dehydration reaction.

505
Q

What is the most prevalent disaccharide?

A

Sucrose

506
Q

Define Polysaccharides

A

A polymer of many monosaccharides, formed by dehydration reactions.

507
Q

What are some functions of polysaccharides?

A

Serve as storage material- Building material for structures that protect the cell or the whole organism. SP

508
Q

Define Starch

A

A storage polysaccharide in plants, consisting of entirely glucose monomers joined by glycosidic linkages.

509
Q

Define Glycogen

A

An extensive branched glucose storage polysaccharide found in the liver and muscle of animals; the animal equivalent of starch.

510
Q

Define Cellulose

A

A structural polysaccharide in plant cell walls, consisting of glucose monomers joined by beta glycosidic linkages.

511
Q

What is the most abundant organic compound in the world?

A

Cellulsoe

512
Q

What are the ways that the hydroxyl group can be arranged in glucose rings?

A

The hydroxyl group attached to the number one carbon is either below or above the plane of the ring: these two rings are called alpha and beta. If it’s below, it’s alpha; if it’s above, it’s beta.

513
Q

How is cellulose referred to in food packages?

A

Insoluble Fiber

514
Q

Define Lipids

A

Any of a group of large biological macromolecules which contain fats, phospholipids, and steroids, that mix poorly, if at all, with water. FPS

515
Q

What is one important shared trait between lipids?

A

They mix poorly, if at all, with water.

516
Q

What do lipids consist of chemically?

A

Hydrocarbons

517
Q

Define Fat

A

A lipid consisting of three fatty acids linked to one glycerol molecule; also called a triacylglycerol

518
Q

What is glycerol?

A

It’s an alcohol; each of its 3 carbons bears a hydroxyl group.

519
Q

Define Fatty Acid

A

A Carboxyllic acid with a long carbon chain. Fatty acids vary in length and in the number and location of double bonds; three fatty acids linked to one glycerol molecule.

520
Q

What is an ester linkage?

A

A bond formed by the dehydration reaction between a hydroxyl group and a Carboxyl group. EHC

521
Q

Define Saturated Fatty Acids

A

A fatty acid in which all the carbons in the hydrocarbon tail are connected; no presence of double bonds.

522
Q

Define Unsaturated Fatty Acids

A

A fatty acid that has one or more double bonds in the hydrocarbon tail. Such bonding reduces the number of hydrogen atoms attached to the carbon skeleton.

523
Q

What are some differences between saturated and unsaturated fats?

A

For saturated fats, at room temperature, the molecules are packed together closely, forming a solid.

For unsaturated fats, the molecules cannot pack together closely enough to solidify becase of the kinks in some of their fatty acid hydrocarbon chains.

524
Q

Define Trans Fats

A

An unsaturated fat, formed artificially during the hydrogenation of oils, containing one or more trans double bonds.

525
Q

Define Phospholipid

A

A lipid made up of glycerol linked to two fatty acids and a phosphate group. The hydrocarbon chains of the fatty acids act as non polar, hydrophobic tails while the rest of the molecule acts as a polar, hydrophilic head. Phospholipids form i layers that function as biological membranes.

526
Q

How are phospholipids arranged in a bilayer?

A

The hydrophilic heads are facing outwards, while the hydrophobic tails are facing inwards.

527
Q

Define Steroids

A

Any type of lipid characterized by a carbon skeleton consisting of four fused rings with various chemical groups attached.

528
Q

Define Cholesterol

A

A steroid that forms an essential component of animal cell membranes and acts as a precursor molecule for the synthesis of other biologically important steroids, such as many hormones.

529
Q

Proteins are constructed from a set of _____ amino acids.

A

20

530
Q

What is the bond between amino acids called?

A

Peptide Bond

531
Q

Define Polypeptide

A

A polymer of many amino acids joined together by peptide bonds.

532
Q

Define Protein

A

A biologically functional molecule consisting of one or more polypeptides formed and coiled into a specific 3D structure.

533
Q

Define Amino Acid

A

An organic molecule possessing both carboxyl and an amino group. They serve as the monomers for polypeptides.

534
Q

What are the 4 different partners of an amino acid?

A

Carboxyl Group-Amino Group-H-R (Variable Group) ACRH

535
Q

What are the different types of proteins?

A

Enzymatic-Storage-Hormonal-Contractile-Defensive-Transport-Receptor-Structural

536
Q

Describe everything about enzymatic proteins

A

Function: selective acceleration of chemical reactions.
Example: Digestive Enzymes ED

537
Q

Describe everything about Storage Proteins

A

Function: storage of amino acids.
Examples: Casein

538
Q

Explain everything about Hormonal Proteins.

A

Function: coordination of an organisms activities.
Ex: Insulin

539
Q

Explain everything about Contractile and motor proteins.

A

Function: movement.
Example: undulations of the cilia and the flagella.

540
Q

Explain everything about defensive proteins.

A

Function: protection against diseases.
Example: antibodies that inactive and help destroy viruses and bacteria.

541
Q

Explain everything about transport proteins.

A

Function: transport of substances.
Example: Hemoglobin, the iron-containing protein of vertebrate blood.

542
Q

Explain everything about receptor proteins.

A

Function: response of cell to chemical stimuli
Example: receptors built into the membrane of a nerve cell.

543
Q

Explain everything about structural proteins.

A

Function: Support.
Example: keratin.

544
Q

Amino acids have side chains that are generally _____ in charge due to the presence of a Carboxyl group.

A

Negative

545
Q

What are the superimposed structures that proteins have?

A

Primary-Secondary-Tertiary-Quaternary. PSTQ

546
Q

Define Primary Structure

A

The level of protein structure referring to the specific linear sequence of amino acids.

547
Q

Define Secondary Structure

A

Regions of repetitive coiling or folding of the polypeptide backbone of a protein due to hydrogen bonding being between constituents of the backbone.

548
Q

Define Alpha Helix

A

A coiled region constituting one form of the secondary structure of proteins, arising from a specific pattern of hydrogen bonding between atoms of the polypeptide backbone.

549
Q

Define Beta Pleated Sheet

A

One form of the secondary structure of proteins, arising from a specific pattern of hydrogen bonding between atoms of the polypeptide backbone.

550
Q

Define Tertiary Structure

A

The overall shape of the protein molecule due to interactions of the amino acid side chains, including hydrophobic interactions, hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, and disulfide bridges.

551
Q

Define Hydrophobic Interactions

A

A type of weak chemical interaction caused when molecules that do not mix with water coalesce to exclude water.

552
Q

Define Disulfide Bridges

A

A strong covalent bond formed when the sulfur of one cysteine monomer binds to the sulfur of another cysteine monomer.

553
Q

Define Quaternary Structure

A

The particular shape of a complex, aggregate protein, defined by the characteristic 3D arrangement of its constituent subunits, each a polypeptide.

554
Q

Define Selective Permeability

A

A property of biological membranes that allows them to equal treatment the passage of substances across them.

555
Q

What is the most abundant lipid in most membranes?

A

Phospholipids

556
Q

Define Amphipatic

A

Having both a hydrophilic and a hydrophobic region.

557
Q

Define Fluid Mosaic Model

A

The currently accepted model of cell membrane structure, which envisions the membrane as a mosaic of protein molecules drifting laterally in a fluid layer of phospholipids.

558
Q

What is the membrane primarily held together by?

A

Hydrophobic Interactions

559
Q

Are hydrophobic interactions stronger or weaker than chemical bonds?

A

Weaker

560
Q

The temperature at which a membrane solidifies depends on the _____ it is made of.

A

Lipids

561
Q

What is meant by the fluidity of the membrane?

A

Membranes are not static sheets of molecules locked rigidly in place.

562
Q

What happens to the fluidity of the membrane with decreasing temperatures?

A

The fluidity of the membrane decreases.

563
Q

Under what conditions does a membrane continue to keep its fluidity at lower temperatures?

A

As the temperature decreases, the membrane remains fluid to a lower temperature if it is rich with phospholipids with UNSATURATED carbon tails.

564
Q

How does cholesterol affect the fluidity of the membrane at high temperatures?

A

Cholesterol makes the membrane less fluid by restraining phospholipid movements. However, because cholesterol also hinders the close packing of phospholipids, it lowers the temperature required for the membrane required to solidify. Thus, it can be thought of as a fluidity buffer.

565
Q

What does the fluidity of the membrane afffect?

A

The permeability and the ability of the membrane proteins to move to where the function is needed.

566
Q

What are the different types of membrane proteins?

A

Integral and Peripheral.

567
Q

Define Integral Proteins

A

A trasnmembrane protein with hydrophobic regions that extend into and often completely span the hydrophobic interior of the membrane and the hydrophilic regions in contact with the aqueous solution on one or both sides of the membrane.

568
Q

Define Peripheral Proteins

A

A protein loosely bound to the surface of a membrane to part of an integral protein and not embedded in the lipid bilayer.

569
Q

What are some functions of the membrane proteins?

A

Transport-Enzymatic Activity-Signal Transduction-Cell Cell Recognition-Intercellular Joining-Attachment to the Cytoskeleton-Extracellular Matrix TES-CIE

570
Q

Define Glycolipids

A

A lipid with one or more covalently attached carbs.

571
Q

Define Glycoproteins

A

A protein with one or more attached carbs.

572
Q

Are membrane carbs primarily bounded to glycoproteins or glycolipids?

A

Glycoproteins

573
Q

Can non-polar molecules dissolve quickly across the bilayer?

A

Yes, he they can cross it easily.

574
Q

Can polar molecules cross the bilayer quickly?

A

No

575
Q

Define Transport Proteins

A

A transmembrane protein that helps a certain substance or class of closely related substances cross the membrane.

576
Q

What are a subdivision of transport proteins?

A

Channel Proteins; they function by having a hydrophilic channel that certain molecules or atomic ions use as a tunnel through the membrane.

577
Q

Define Aquaporins

A

A channel protein that specifically facilitates osmosis, the diffusion of free water across the membrane.

578
Q

Define Carrier Proteins

A

One type of transport protein. They hold onto their passengers and change shape in a way that shuttles them across the membrane.

579
Q

_____ is the diffusion of substances across a membrane with no energy investment.

A

Passive Transport

580
Q

Define Concentration Gradient

A

A region along which the density of a chemical substance increases or decreases.

581
Q

Each substance diffuses _____ its concentration gradient.

A

Down

582
Q

Define Tonicity

A

The ability of a solution surrounding a cell that cause the cell to gain/lose water.

583
Q

Define Isotonic

A

Referring to a solution that, when surrounding a cell, causes no net movement of water into or out of the cell. Water diffuses across the membrane, but at the same rate in both directions.

584
Q

Define Hypertonic

A

Referring to a solution that, when surrounding a cell, causes the cell to lose water. HYPER-L

585
Q

Define Hypotonic

A

Referring to a solution that, when surrounding a cell, will cause the cell to take up water.

586
Q

Define Osmoregulation

A

Regulations of solute concentrations and water balance by an organism.

587
Q

_____ diffusion is the same thing as passive transport.

A

Facilitated

588
Q

Define Ion Channels

A

A transmembrane protein channel that allows a specific ion to diffuse across the membrane down its concentration gradient.

589
Q

Define Gated Channels

A

A transmembrane protein channel that opens or closes in response to chemical stimuli.

590
Q

In which type of transport protein does a shape change happen?

A

Carrier

591
Q

In which type of transport protein does a shape change happen?

A

Carrier Proteins

592
Q

Define Active Transport

A

The movement of a substance across a cell membrane against its concentration gradient or electrochemical gradient, mediated by specific transport proteins and requiring an expenditure of energy.

593
Q

How can ATP power active transport?

A

When its terminal phosphate group is transferred directly to the transport protein, the protein can be induced to change its shape in a manner that translocates a solute bound to the protein across the membrane.

594
Q

Define Sodium-Potassium Pump

A

A transport protein in the plasma membrane of animal calles that actively transports sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell. SO-PI 3 sodiums out and 2 potassium’s in.

595
Q

Define Membrane Potential

A

The difference in electrical charge across a cell’s plasma membrane due to the differential distributions of ions.

596
Q

Are both Carrie proteins and channel proteins used in facilitated diffusion?

A

Yes, they can be used.

597
Q

What are the two forces that can affect diffusion of ions across a membrane?

A

Electrical-Chemical

598
Q

Define Electrochemical Gradient.

A

The diffusion gradient of an ion, which is affected by both the concentration differences of an ion across a membrane and the ion’s tendency to move relative to the membrane potential.

599
Q

Define Electrogenic Pump

A

An active transport protein that generates voltage across a membrane while pumping ions.

600
Q

Define Proton Pump

A

An active transport protein in a cell that uses ATP to transport hydrogen ions out of a cell against their concentration gradient, generating a membrane potential in the process.

601
Q

_____ across the plasma membrane occur by exocytosis and endocytosis.

A

Bulk Transport

602
Q

Define Exoocytosis

A

The cellular secretion of biological molecules by fusion of vesicles containing them within the plasma membrane.

603
Q

Define Endo cytosis

A

Cellular uptake of biological macromolecules and particulate matter via formation of vesicles from the plasma membrane.

604
Q

What are the different types of Endocytosis?

A

Phagocytosis (cellular eating)-Pinocytosis (cellular drinking)-Receptor Mediated Endocytosis

605
Q

In phagocytosis, a cell engulfs a particle by extending _____ around it and packing it within a membranous sac called a _____.

A

Pseudopodia-Food Vacuole

606
Q

Which molecules can easily pass through the bilayer?

A

Gases, hydrophilic molecules, small polar uncharged molecules.

607
Q

What are some basic features that ALL cells share?

A

They are all bounded by a plasma membrane-All cells contain chromosomes-All cells have ribosomes.

MCR

608
Q

Define Cytosol

A

The semi-fluid portion of the cytoplasm.

609
Q

Define Prokaryotic Cell

A

A type of cell lacking a membrane-enclosed nucleus and membrane-enclosed organelles.

610
Q

What is the major difference between Prokayotes and Eukaryotes?

A

In eukaryotic cells, most of the DNA is in an organelle called the nucleus, which is bounded by a double membrane. In a prokaryotic cell, the DNA is concentrated in a region that is not membrane-enclosed called the nucleoid.

611
Q

A smaller object has a greater ratio of _____ to _____.

A

Surface Area-Volume

612
Q

The eukaryotic cell’s giant instructions are housed in the _____ and carried out by the _____.

A

Nucleus-Ribosome

613
Q

Define Nucleus

A

The organelle of a eukaryotic cell that contains the genetic information in the forms of chromosomes, made of chromatin.

614
Q

Define Nuclear Envelope

A

In eukaryotic cells, the double membrane that surrounds the nucleus, perforated with pores that regulate traffic with the cytoplasm. The outside membrane is continuous with the ER.

615
Q

Define Chromosomes

A

A structure containing DNA and its associated proteins. In eukaryotes, chromosomes are linear and located in the nucleus. In prokaryotes, the chromosomes are circular and located in the nucleoid.

616
Q

Define Chromatin

A

The complex of DNA and proteins that makes up the chromosomes.

617
Q

Define Ribosomes

A

A complex of rRNA and protein molecules that functions as a site of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm; consists of a small and large subunit.

618
Q

What are the two types of ribosomes and where are they located?

A

Free ribosomes and bound ribosomes.

Free ribosomes are suspended in the cytosol, while bound ribosomes are attached to rough ER.

619
Q

What is the function of free ribosomes?

A

Most the proteins made on free ribosomes function within the cytosol.

620
Q

What is the function of bound ribosomes?

A

They generally make proteins that are destined for insertion into membranes.

621
Q

What is the endo-membrane system responsible for?

A

Regulating the traffic of proteins and performing metabolic functions.

622
Q

Define Vesicle

A

A membranous sac in the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell.

623
Q

Define Endoplasmic Reticulum

A

An extensive membranous network, continuous with the outer membrane of the nucleus and composed of ribosome free and studded regions.

624
Q

Define Smooth ER

A

The portion of the ER that is free of ribosomes.

625
Q

Define Rough ER

A

The portion of the ER that contains the ribosomes.

626
Q

What are the general functions of the smooth ER.

A

Diverse metabolic processes.

627
Q

How does the smooth ER detoxify drugs and poisons?

A

They usually involve the addition of a hydroxyl group, making them more soluble and easier to flush out of the system.

628
Q

Define Transport Vesicles

A

A small membranous sac in a eukaryotic cell’s cytoplasm carrying molecules produced by the cell.

629
Q

Define Golgi Apparatus

A

An organelle in eukaryotic cells consisting of stacks of flat membranous sacs that modify, store, and route the products of the ER and synthesize some products, notably non-cellulose carbs. G-MSR

630
Q

What are the two sides of the Golgi called?

A

Cis/Trans

631
Q

Where is the cis side and the trans side of the Golgi located?

A

Cis is facing the ER; trans is the opposite side of cis. CG

632
Q

What are the functions of the cis/trans side of the Golgi respectively?

A

Cis —-> Recieving; Trans—-> Sending. CRTS

633
Q

Define Lysosome

A

A membrane-enclosed sac of hydrolytic enzymes found in the cytoplasm of animal cells and some plant cells.

634
Q

In which environments do lysosomes do best?

A

Acidic

635
Q

What is the main function of the lysosome?

A

Carrying out intracellular digestion in a variety of circumstances.

636
Q

Define Authopagy

A

When lysosomes use their hydrolytic enzymes to recycle a cell’s own organic material.

637
Q

Define Vacuoles

A

A membrane-bound vesicles whose specialized function varies in the cell.

638
Q

Vacuoles are derived from the _____ and the ______.

A

ER-Golgi

639
Q

Define Central Vacuole

A

In a mature plant cell, a large membranous sac with diverse roles in growth, storage, and sequestration of toxic substances. C-GSS

640
Q

How do plant cells grow?

A

With the absorption of water, the central vacuoles of cells grow, causing the cell to become larger.

641
Q

Define Mitochondria

A

An organelle in eukaryotes that serves as the site of cellular respiration; uses oxygen to break down organic molecules and synthesize ATP.

642
Q

_____ and _____ change energy from one form to a another.

A

Mitochondria-Chloroplast

643
Q

Define Chloroplasts

A

An organelle found in plants that absorbs sunlight and uses it to drive the synthesis of organic compounds from carbon dioxide and water.

644
Q

Define the Endosymbiont Theory

A

The theory that the mitochondria and chloroplasts originated as prokaryotic cells engulfed by a host cell. The engulfed cell and its host cell the evolved into a single organism.

645
Q

How many membranes does the mitochondria have?

A

2

646
Q

The outer membrane of the mitochondria is _____, but the inner membrane is _____.

A

Smooth-Convoluted

647
Q

Define Cristae

A

An inner folding of the inner membrane of the mitochondria. The inner membrane houses electron transport chains and molecules of the enzyme catalyzing the synthesis of ATP.

648
Q

Define Mitochondrial Matrix

A

The part of the mitochondria of the inner membrane that contains the enzymes and the substances on which an enzyme acts on for the citric acid cycle, as well as ribosomes and RNA.

649
Q

Define Thylakoids

A

A flattened, membranous sac inside a chloroplast.

650
Q

Define Granum

A

A stack of membrane bound thylakoids in the chloroplast. They function in the light reactions of photosynthesis.

651
Q

Define Stroma

A

The dense fluid within the chloroplast surrounding the thylakoids membrane.

652
Q

Define Peroxisome

A

An organelle containing enzymes that transfer hydrogen atoms from various substrates to oxygen, producing and then degrading H2O2.

653
Q

Peroxisomes are bound by a _____ membrane.

A

Single

654
Q

What are some functions of the peroxisomes?

A

They use oxygen to break down fatty acids; in the liver, they break down alcohol.

655
Q

The _____ is a network of fibbers that organize structures and activities in the cell.

A

Cytoskeleton

656
Q

Define Cytoskeleton

A

A network of microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments that extend throughout the cytoplasm and serve a variety of mechanical, transport, and signaling functions.

657
Q

Which of the three components of the cytoskeleton are the thinnest/thickest?

A

Thickest: Microtubules

Thinnest: Microfilaments

658
Q

Define Microtubules

A

A hollow rod composed of tubulin proteins that makes up part of the cytoskeleton in all eukaryotic cells that are found in the cilia and the flagella.

659
Q

What are the main functions of Microtubules?

A

They support the cell structure and also act as a track along which organelles equipped with motor proteins can move along.

660
Q

In animal cells, microtubules grow out of the _____.

A

Centrosome.

661
Q

Define Centrosome

A

A structure present in the cytoplasm of animal cells that functions as the microtubule organizing center and is important during cell division. A Centrosome has 2 centrioles.

662
Q

Define Flagella

A

A long cellular appendage specialized for locomotion.

663
Q

Define Cilia

A

A short appendage containing microtubules in eukaryotic cells.

664
Q

Do motile cilia and flagella have a similar structure?

A

Yes

665
Q

Define Microfilaments

A

A cable composed of actin proteins in the cytoplasm of almost every eukaryotic cell, making up part of the cytoskeleton and acting alone or with myosin to cause cell contraction.