Questions I missed on my exams Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following best describes the control of the lac operon?

A

Negative feedback

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2
Q

Which of the following best describes the control of the cAMP operon?

A

Positive gene expression

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3
Q

Which regulatory mechanism in bacteria is indicated by the diagram shown here? (precursor to tryptophan image)

A

Feedback inhibition

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4
Q

In the diagram shown here, what is the role of tryptophan? (precursor to tryptophan image)

A

Allosteric repressor

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5
Q

The bubble image of DNA replication the little fragments (the small darkened portion of the tail)
This portion of the arrow is where DNA synthesis begins. What is the name of this small portion of the newly replicated section of DNA?

A

The primer

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6
Q

Using the pattern explained above write the direction indicator of the DNA molecule indicated by point E (the end that is on the same side as the 5 prime.

A

3 prime end

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7
Q

Write out the name of the functional group that associated with this end of the DNA molecule (same side as the 3 prime end question)

A

Hydroxyl group

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8
Q

Using the pattern explained above write the direction indicator of the DNA molecule indicated by point F (the end that is on the same side as the 3 prime.

A

5 prime end

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9
Q

Write out the name of the functional group that associated with this end of the DNA molecule (the 5 prime end)

A

phosphate group

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10
Q

What is the name of the point where the replication bubble forms?

A

Origin of replication

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11
Q

Which molecule would be added to the growing strand by the enzyme marked as molecule C in the figure shown on the previous page? (molecule C is DNA polymerase)

A

Deoxyribose

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12
Q

Which molecule would be added to the growing strand by the enzyme marked as molecule E in the figure shown on the previous page? (molecule E is DNA primase)

A

Ribose

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13
Q

What specific type of nucleic acid is synthesized by this enzyme? (DNA primase)

A

RNA

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14
Q

What do we call the short length of nucleic acid synthesized by this enzyme? (DNA primase)

A

Primer

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15
Q

What happens when a ribosome encounters a stop codon?

A

A water molecule is added to the chain, causing the chain to terminate and leave the ribosome

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16
Q

In terms of gene 3, which strand is the template strand? (arrow going left the opposite way on the bottom strand)

A

Strand A

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17
Q

Name the type of mutation that would result if a nucleotide in the original sequence was accidentally deleted.

A

Frameshift mutation

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18
Q

Which of the following events is most immediately associated with the absorption of energy by chlorophyll molecules of the reaction-center complex?

An electron is excited
ATP is synthesized from energy absorbed
NADPH+ is reduced to NADPH
A molecule of water is split

A

An electron is excited

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19
Q

Which of the following metabolic process normally occurs in most cells regardless of oxygen availability?

Glycolysis
Oxidation phosphorylation
Fermentation
Citric acid cycle

A

Glycolysis

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20
Q

A person on a strict diet and exercise regimen lost 7kg of body fat in just 2 weeks. In which of the following forms did the loss of fat most likely leave the body?

Released CO2 and H2O
Eliminated from the body as feces
Converted to heat and then released
Converted to ATP, which weighs much less than fat

A

Released CO2 and H2O

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21
Q

Where would you expect is the natural environment of enzyme A (associated with PH levels)?

In an acidic environment
In hot environment
In cold environment
In alkaline environment

A

In an acidic environment

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22
Q

What happen to glucose in glycolysis?

Oxidation
Reduction
Synthesis
combustion

A

Oxidation

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23
Q

Which of the terms below best describes a regulatory mechanism in which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibit an enzyme that catalyzes an early step in the pathway?

Feedback inhibition
Cooperation inhibition
Metabolic inhibition
Allosteric inhibition

A

Feedback inhibition

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24
Q

If the substrate has a positive charge, what properties would you expect to find in the enzyme groove/pocket where the substrate binds?

Negative charge
Non-polar
Polar
Positive charge

A

Negative charge

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25
Which of the following statements best describe the function of the nuclear pore complex found in the eukaryotic cells? It regulates the movement of proteins and RNAs into and out of the nucleus It synthesizes secreted proteins It assembles ribosomes from f=raw materials that are synthesized in the nucleus It synthesizes the proteins required to copy DNA and make mRNA
It regulates the movement of proteins and RNAs into and out of the nucleus
26
Which of the following structures is not associated with the endomembrane system in eukaryotic cells? Chloroplast Plasma membrane Golgi apparatus Nuclear envelope
Chloroplast
27
Movement of amoebae across a surface requires which of the following activities by components of the cytoskeleton? Assembly of actin filaments to form bulges in the plasma membrane Localized contractions driven by myosin and microtubules Reinforcement of pseudopod with intermediate filaments Assembly of microtubule extensions that vesicles can follow in the direction of movement
Assembly of actin filaments to form bulges in the plasma membrane
28
Certain animal cells normally have well-defined spherical nuclei. Cells with a genetic defect have irregularly nuclei. Which of the following cytoskeletal elements is most likely affected by genetic defect? Intermediate filaments Myosin proteins Microfilaments microtubules
Intermediate filaments
29
Which of the following molecules would likely diffuse through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane most rapidly? O2 Sucrose An amino acid NA+
O2
30
A defect in which of the following molecules would dramatically reduce the rate of diffusion of water across the cell membrane? Aquaporins Sodium-potassium pump ATP Gated ion channels
Aquaporins
31
Which of the following results is most likely when a plant cell is submerged in a hypertonic solution? Plasmolysis will shrink the interior of the cell The cell will burst The cell will become turgid The cell will become flaccid
Plasmolysis will shrink the interior of the cell
32
Which of the following is the most likely result when the system has reached equilibrium? The water levels will be unchanged The concentration of sucrose on side A will be greater than the concentration of sucrose on side B The water levels will be unchanged The water level will be higher in side A than in side B
The water levels will be unchanged
33
When the system illustrated above reaches equilibrium, what will the sugar concentrations of both sides of the U-tube be? 1.5M and 1.5M 1M sucrose, 1M glucose 2M sucrose, 1M glucose 1M sucrose, 2M glucose
1.5M and 1.5M
34
Which of the following examples describes a type of potential rather than kinetic energy? A sucrose molecule Water rushing out of hoover dam Heat released by a campfire Flashes of light emitted by a firefly
A sucrose molecule
35
A decrease in entropy is associated with which of the following types of reactions? Dehydration Hydrolysis Catabolic depolymerization
Dehydration
36
Which of the following types of reactions would decrease the entropy within a cell? Anabolic reaction Hydrolysis Catabolic reactions digestion
Anabolic reaction
37
Which of the following statements best summarizes an important consequence of the first law of thermodynamics for living organism? Each organism ultimately must obtain all the necessary energy for life from its environment The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows completely The energy content of a single organism is constant An organism grows by converting energy into organic matter
Each organism ultimately must obtain all the necessary energy for life from its environment
38
What is the valence of this atom? (atom has a full valence shell)
8
39
How many covalent bonds can this atom form? ( that has a full valance shell)
0
40
Which functional group when added to DNA, would alter gene expression?
Methyl group
41
Which functional group when part of an organic molecule, would be responsible for storing and transferring energy cells?
Phosphate group
42
Which functional group would form crosslinks (covalent bonds) that bind the molecules, such as 2 proteins together?
Sulfhydryl group
43
Which structures would be used as a lipid component of a membrane?
Glycerol or a fatty acid (look at pics of those)
44
Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You are asked to determine how long a plant must be exposed to these bacteria to become infected, Which if the following experiments will provide the best data to address this question? Measure the number of tumors formed on a plant when exposed to various concentration of Agrobacterium Determine the survival rate of agrobacterium when exposed to different concentrations of an antibiotic Measure the concentration of agrobacterium in different soil environments where the plants grow Measure the number of tumors formed on plants, which are exposed to agrobacterium for different lengths of time
Measure the number of tumors formed on plants, which re exposed to agrobacterium for different lengths of time
45
Which of these is an example of inductive reasoning? If two species are members of the same genus, they are alike than each of them could be to a different genus These organisms live in sunny regions. Therefore, they are using photosynthesis If protists are all single-celled, they are incapable of aggregations Hundreds of individuals of species have been observed and all are photosynthetic, therefore the species is photosynthetic
Hundreds of individuals of species have been observed and all are photosynthetic, therefore the species is photosynthetic
46
In the 1850's 2 scientists studied a wide number of organisms and together wrote what we know today as cell theory. The cell is the basic unit of life and all living organism consist of one or more cells. Of what type of reasoning is this an example of? Inductive reasoning Deductive reasoning Controlled experimentation Illogical reasoning
Inductive reasoning
47
How many electrons will a single atom of nitrogen with no charge and no bonds have in its valence shell? 14 2 7 5
5
48
How many amino acids and peptide bonds does tetrapeptide have? Four amino acids and three peptide bonds Three amino acids and four peptide bonds Four amino acids and four peptide bonds Four amino acids and two peptide bonds
Four amino acids and three peptide bonds
49
Which of the following chemical reactions is represented in the figure? Results in peptide bond (OH and O binding and making a H2O molecule) Links two polymers to form a monomer Is a hydrolysis reaction Joins two fatty acids together
Results in peptide bond (OH and O binding and making a H2O molecule) a carboxyl group binds to an amino group
50
Which of the following best compares dehydration reactions and hydrolysis? Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break polymers apart Hydrolysis assemble polymers, dehydration reactions break polymers apart Dehydration reactions and hydrolysis assemble polymers from monomers Dehydration reactions eliminate water from membranes, hydrolysis reactions add water to membranes
Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break polymers apart
51
Which of the following is a biological advantage of storing glucose molecules in branched polymers? They have more sites for enzymatic attack than do unbranched polymers They are resistant to enzymes They are insoluble and so provide strength to molecule They can be stacked together to save space
They have more sites for enzymatic attack than do unbranched polymers
52
Miotic spindle connects with centromeres in……
prometaphase
53
Sister chromatids become attached to microtubules on opposite poles in……
Metaphase
54
What occurs at G1 phase?
The cell synthesizes nucleotides, DNA polymerase, DNA primase, SSBP, Helicase and telomerase (answer)
55
What occurs in the S phase?
The cell initiates reactions at origins of replication (answer)
56
How do free radicals affect cells?
They steal electrons from biological molecules leading to DNA damage (answer)
57
If a diploid organism in G0 possess 28 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would it's gametes contain? 7 14 26 20
14 chromosomes
58
List and explain 4 reasons we discussed in class as to why the garden pea was ideal for Mendel's research
1. Closed reproduction 2. Short breeding cycle 3. Many characteristics 4. Easy to maintain
59
Consider one of the traits Mendel studied in pea plants. According to Mendel's laws of inheritance, how many copies of the heritable factor for that trait are present in a single gamete? 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
1
60
Consider one of the traits Mendel studied in pea plants. According to Mendel's laws of inheritance, how many copies of the heritable factor for that trait are present in a single zygote? 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
2
61
Consider one of the traits Mendel studied in pea plants. According to menders laws of inheritance, which heritable factor determines the organisms phenotype for a specific trait?
The dominate allele
62
Sperm contain no sex chromosomes; eggs carry two sex chromosomes?
Z-W system
63
Cockroaches and many other insects use this sex determination system?
X-0 system
64
Sex is determined by the number of sex chromosomes inherited when egg and sperm combine?
X-0 system
65
Sex is determined by the combination of sex chromosomes that are inherited when egg and sperm combine?
X-Y system
66
Sex is determined by the combination of sex chromosomes inherited in the egg?
Z-W system
67
What type of system do bees use?
the X-0 system
68
Unfertilized eggs produce one sex, while fertilized eggs produce the other?
Haplo-diploid system
69
Asexual reproduction occurs during which of the following processes? Meiosis Mitosis Fertilization The exchange of chromosomes between organisms of different species
Mitosis
70
Which of the following statements about the human X chromosome is correct? It carries genes that influence an individual's biological sex It is present in every gametic cell of male and females It is smaller than other chromosomes It is referred to as an autosome
It carries genes that influence an individual's biological sex
71
How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCdEE? 4 8 16 64
8