Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PHARMA > Questions > Flashcards

Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Pharmacokinetics involves the following mechanism/s

A. Metabolism B. Distribution C. Absorption D. Elimination E. All

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Major route of drug administration?

A. Parenteral
B. Sublingual C. Enteral
D. A&C
E. All

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Advantage of oral route.

A. Easilyselfadministered
B. Lessinfections
C. Canbereversed
D. A&C
E. All

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What organ is encountered by oral drugs before it is distributed into the circulation?
A. Stomach
B. Duodenum
C. Liver
D. Kidneys
E. Lung

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

With oral route, where is the major site of entry into systemic circulation?
A. Mouth
B. Stomach C. Duodenum D. A&C
E. All

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

First pass metabolism of oral drugs needs

A. Enhanceofabsorption
B. Limitsefficacy
C. Inhibitsabsorption
D. A&C E. All

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Drug that exhibits first pass metabolism should be given:
A. Parenterally
B. beforemeals
C. Aftermeals
D. Atbedtime
E. Insufficientquantity

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Oral drugs medication taken with food what would happen
A. Delaygastricemptying B. Destroyedwithacids
C. Unavailableforabsorption D. A&C
E. Al

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cholinergic drugs produce effects similar to the effects when the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated

True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The advantage of Ipratropium from atropine is that its effects are isolated in the pulmonary system.

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Scopolamine can be used in anesthetic procedure and can block short term memory

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Norepinephrine produces bradycardia instead of tachycardia because norepinephrine decreases peripheral vascular resistance

True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The following beta blockr/s that exhibit ISA (Intrinsic Sympathomimetic Activity)

None
Propranolol
All
Pindolol
Timolol
Nadolol

A

Pindolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Functional cholinergic receptors are found in the following organs:

Gastric glands
All except one item
All
Sweat Glands Cardiac Cells Smooth muscles in the eye

A

All

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following organs has a relatively greater blood flow?

Intestines
Both
Stomach

A

Intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following organs, where majority of “First-Pass” metabolism will take place?

All
Liver
Oral Kidney
Duodenum

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Insulin is best when taken by mouth and swallowed

True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This is a precursor in the illicit manufacture of shabu

Cocaine
Ephedrine
Amphetamine
Tyramine

A

Ephedrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Beta agonists play a major role in the treatment of bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pheochromocytoma secretes norepinephrine and causes high blood pressure, in what organ is that tumor located?

Adrenal Gland
Heart
Kidney
All
None
Liver

A

Adrenal Gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The following is/are non- selective ALPHA (adrenergic) blockers

Phenoxybenzamine
Tamsulosin
Alfuzosin
None
All
Prazosin

A

Phenoxybenzamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is an irreversible alpha antagonist?

Prazosin
Phentolamine
None
Tamsolusin
Phenoxybenzamine
All

A

Phenoxybenzamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What specialized structure increases the absorptive capacity of an organ?

Vesicles
All
Microvilli
Capillaries

A

Microvilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Route of drug administration that has the highest bioavailability

Intranasal
Intrathecal
Intravascular
Inhalation

A

Intravascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sublingual route of drug administration facilitates direct absorption of drug into the bloodstream

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In order for a drug to interact with nuclear receptors, the drug must be lipid soluble to be able to penetrate the nuclear membrane

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

All drugs must exert some chemical influence on receptors to produce pharmacologic response

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Nitroglycerine can achieve a complete absorption if given orally
True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

They are sensing agents that coordinates the function of all the cells in the body:

Enzymes
Receptors
Ligands
Proteins

A

Receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The stomach and the GIT limits the efficacy of many drugs when taken orally

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Alpha & beta receptors belong the family of G protein-coupled receptors
True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

This is used to restore the cardiac rhythm in patients with cardiac arrest:

Dobutamine
Dopamine
Amphetamine
Epinephrine

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Enteral route introduces an agent direct to a person circulation across the body’s barrier system

True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following receptors is a cardio-selective?
Alpha 1
None
Alpha 2
All
Beta 1
Beta 2

A

Beta 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The following is/are action/s of ATROPINE in the eye

Able to focus near objects
All except one
Mydriasis
All
Pupillary constriction
Responsive to light

A

All except one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which route of drug administration has an erratic and incomplete
absorption of drugs

Subcutaneous
Inhalation
Rectal
Intrathecal

A

Rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Allergic reactions are unpredictable & dose-dependent.

True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Route of drug administration that delivers a local effect of the drug

Rectal
Topical
Transdermal
Sublingual

A

Topical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Allergic reactions are unpredictable & dose-dependent.
True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Non-selective alpha blockers can stimulate beta receptors in the heart, causing tachycardia and arrhythmias.

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In patients with diabetes mellitus, the dose of insulin must be decreased if epinephrine is given because of increased uptake of glucose by the peripheral tissue.

True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Food may delay gastric emptying and therefore can aid in the absorption of drugs

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Dopamine comes from exogenous & endogenous sources

True
Fals

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following is/are ganglionic blockers?

Atropine
All
None
Tropicamide
Nicotine
Scopolamine

A

Nicotine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which of the following is/are 3rd generation beta blockers (non-selective), can produce peripheral vasodilation blocking alpha1 and beta receptors?

Pindolol
None
Labetalol
Nadolol
Propranolol
All

A

Labetalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Atropine can be used to treat gastric ulcers because it reduces gastric activity.
True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which of the following anticholinergic drugs does not enter the CNS?

Ipratropium
Scopolamine
All
Atropine
None

A

Ipratropium

48
Q

The following is or are therapeutic uses neuromuscular blockers

All
None
Facilitates mechanical ventilation Treat enuresis
Antispasmodic
Antidote for insecticide poisoning

49
Q

Atropine increases intraocular pressure therefore can be use in the treatment of narrow angle glaucoma
True
False

50
Q

Beta blockers can penetrate the central nervous system
True
False

51
Q

Antimuscarinic agent of choice for short duration eye procedure or surgery

Tropicamide
Atropine
None
Ipratropium
All
Scopolamine

A

Tropicamide

52
Q

The effect of acetylcholine in decreasing the blood pressure is due to vasodilation which is turn due to nitric oxide
True
False

53
Q

Muscarinic 2 receptors & beta receptors are found in the heart
True
False

54
Q

Antagonists produce no effects by themselves because they have decreased affinity to receptors.
True
False

55
Q

Antimuscarinic agent that results to broncho dilation and reduction of mucus secretion.

All
None
Scopolamine
Cyclopentolate
Tropicamide
Tiotropium
Atropine

A

Tiotropium

56
Q

Which of the following is/are the adverse effects of antimuscarinic drugs?

None
Stasis of urine
Confusion
All
Agitation Blurring of vision Dry mouth

57
Q

This tumor in the adrenal gland releases as much as 97% of norepinephrine:
Adenome
Large cell carcinoma
Pheochromocytoma
Small cell carcinoma

A

Pheochromocytoma

58
Q

Which of the following routes of drug administration has the most complicated means of absorbing drug

Intravenous
Sublingual
Oral
Intramuscular

59
Q

The following is/are selective alpha antagonists that are effective treatment for BPH (Benign Prostate Hypertrophy)

Terazosin
Prazosin
Doxazosin
None
Tamsulosin
All

60
Q

This is used in the treatment of hypertension:

Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Clonidine

61
Q

The following is or are physical that influences drug absorption.
Contact time at the absoprtion surface

Total surface area
Blood flow
Capillary permeability
All except one
All

62
Q

Anticholinergic of choice for motion sickness.

All
Scopolamine
Atracurium
Atropine
None
Tiotropium
Nicotine
Ipratropium

A

Scopolamine

63
Q

Hepatic dysfunction can markedly retard the metabolism of drugs
True
False

64
Q

A highly potent drug is usually highly effective.
True
False

65
Q

In neuronal uptake of norepinephrine, the norepinephrine’s action is terminated by the drug’s reuptake into the noradrenergic nerve terminals.

True
False

66
Q

A drug with high efficacy may be a full agonist
True
False

67
Q

Epinephrine as a bronchodilator, inhibits the release of inflammatory mediators like heparin from the mast cells.
True
False

68
Q

The following is or are advantage(s) of intravenous route.

Irreversible
Hemolysis
Pain
All except one of the above
All
None

69
Q

Beta 2 receptors antagonists can be used in asthmatic patients and with COPD
True
False

70
Q

Oral Penicillin is ideally given in

Empty stomach
With food
With other drugs
Sublingually
None

A

Empty stomach

71
Q

Goal/s of sublingual route is/are
Diffuses into the capillary network

Avoids first-pass metabolism
Enters the systemic circulation directly
A & C
All

72
Q

Indication/s parenteral

Poor GI absorption/
Unstable GI absorption/
Unconscious patients/
A & C
All

73
Q

Disadvantages of parenteral

Irreversible
Pain
Infection
A &C
All

74
Q

Route of drug administration in which introduces through the CSF

Intrathecal
Intraarterial
Intraventricular
A & C
All

75
Q

Disadvantages of rectal route

Erratic absorption
Irritates the rectal mucosa
Incomplete absorption
A & C
All

76
Q

Parasympatholytic use as adjuvants in anesthesia during surgery ( Cholinergic )

Anti-muscarinic agents
Ganglionic blockers
Neuromuscular blockers
A &C
All

A

Neuromuscular blockers

77
Q

Which cholinergic blocker act/s on the nicotinic receptor

Ganglionic Blockers
Anti-muscarinic agents
Neuromuscular blockers
A &C
All

78
Q

The following is/are effect of nicotine in cigarette

High BP
Tachycardic ( increase heart rate)
Increase secretion
A &C
All

79
Q

Which among the parasympatholytic drugs do not possess therapeutic use

Anti-muscarinic
Nicotine
Neuromuscular blockers
A &C
All

80
Q

Stimulation of sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system will result to

Increase heart rate bp
Increase flow to skeletal muscles
Pupillary dilation
A &C
All

81
Q

Chemical signaling between cells is done through, how

Chemical mediators
Hormones
Neurotransmitters
A &C
All

82
Q

Cholinergic blockers that will now inhibit sympathetic neuron of the salivary and the sweat glands

Anti-muscarinic
Ganglionic Blockers
Neuromuscular blockers
All
None

A

Anti-muscarinic

83
Q

Atropine produces the following effects

Decrease GI and GUT motility
Decrease acid production
Pupillary dilation
A & C
All

84
Q

Cholinergic blockers that has the ability to enter the CNS

Atropine
Ipratropium
Scopolamine
A & C
All

85
Q

Which of the following may be use to overcome atropine toxicity at a low dose

Physostigmine
Scopolamine
Tiotropium
Cyclopentolate
None

A

Physostigmine

86
Q

The following are the action of atropine on the eyes

Mydriasis
Anti-motion sickness
Cyclopegia
A & C
All

87
Q

The following are the action of atropine exert on the GIT

Reduce gastric motility
Reduce hydrochloric acid production
For treatment of ulcers
All
None

A

Reduce gastric motility

88
Q

High dose of atropine in the heart will have the following effects

Rapid heart rate
Blurring of vision
Palpitations
A & C
All

89
Q

Main reasons why atropine was replaced by cyclopentolate and tropicamide

Permits measurement of retractive errors

Prolong mydriasis

Interface the capacity of the eye

A & C
All

90
Q

Preferred drug for pupillary dilation is cyclopedia is not required

Cyclopentolate
Phenylephrine
Tropicamide
A & C
All

91
Q

Which of the following agents are used in the treatment of insecticide or mushroom poisoning

Scopolamine
Nicotine
Atropine
A & C
All

92
Q

The following statements are true with adrenergic antagonists.

Trigger the usual receptor-mediated intracellular effects.

Sympathomimetics

Act either reversibly or irreversibly attaching to the adrenoceptors.

A & C
None

A

Act either reversibly or irreversibly attaching to the adrenoceptors.

93
Q

Which of the following organ-systems in the human body is primarily managed or treated with adrenergic antagonists/blockers?

Gastrointestinal
Genito-urinary
Cardiovascular
Reproductive
None

A

Cardiovascular

94
Q

The following are the effects upon blockade of alpha 1 adrenoceptors.

Profoundly affects blood pressure-
Reduces sympathetic tone of blood vessels
Decreases peripheral vascular resistance
A&C
All

95
Q

A catecholamine-secreting tumor of the adrenal medulla which is associated with sweating and hypertension and is treated with phenoxybenzamine.

Raynaud’s disease
Pheochromocytoma
Frostbite
A&C
All

A

Pheochromocytoma

96
Q

Which of the following are selective competitive blockers of the alpha receptors?

Prazosin
Terazosin
Doxazosin
A& C
All

97
Q

Which of the following selective alpha 1 blockers which are indicated by the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

Tamsulosin
Alfuzosin
Silodosin
A&C
All

98
Q

Which of the following drugs can result in a “First -dose” effect ____

Phenoxybenamine
Propranolol
Phentolamine
A & C
NOne

99
Q

Which of the following ways ‘first dose’ effect can be minimized?

Give the drug at bedtime
Double the dose
Adjust dose to one third or one fourth of the normal dose
A&C
ALL

100
Q

Which of the following is alpha 2 selective blocker?

Yohimbine
Prazosin
Timolol
Propranolol
All

101
Q

Which of the cardioselective Beta blockers?

Atenolol
Propranolol
Metoprolol
A& C
All

102
Q

Which of the following is the reason why Beta blockers do not induce postural hypotension?

Alpha adrenaceptors remain functional

Lowers blood pressure

Normal Sympathetic control of vasculature is maintained

A&C
All

A

Normal Sympathetic control of vasculature is maintained

103
Q

Propranolol is contraindicated in which group of patients?

COPD
Hypertensives
Asthma
A&C
All

104
Q

The following are therapeutic uses of Propranolol.

Angina pectoris
Myocardial infarction
Migraine
A&C
All

105
Q

Which of the following Nonselective Beta blocker/s is/are used for the treatment of chronic glaucoma?

Nadolol
Pilocarpine
Timolol
A&C
AlI

106
Q

To provide effective antimicrobial therapy, the clinically obtained antibiotics concentration must be greater than

T/F

107
Q

The total amount of drug present in the serum is important in order for it to pass through the blood-brain barrier

T/F

108
Q

True or false

Newer drugs should be used initially to treat serious infections when the identity of the causative organism is still unknown to avoid resistance.

109
Q

True or false

Susceptibility testing is done to narrow the list of possible antimicrobials that could be used in empiric therapy

110
Q

True or false

Susceptibility testing does not predict the patient’s response to the treatment.

111
Q

Combination therapy enhances therapeutic efficacy by the use of synergistic interactions of antibiotics

True or false

112
Q

True or false

Hydrophilic drugs tend to get concentrated in the cell membrane

113
Q

True or false

Alcoholism can affect the patient’s immune competence, thus a higher-than- dose with shorter course of treatment is indicated. (

114
Q

Antibiotic taken in by a nursing infant via the breast milk cannot cause adverse effect because the concentration of antibiotic in milk is usually low.

True or false

115
Q

True or false

in patients with hepatic dysfunction, the dosage of antibiotic need not be because antibiotics are usually eliminated by the kidneys.

PHARMA (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions