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Question UW Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Nucleic acid amplification test is test used for diagnosis of

A

Gonorrhoea

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2
Q

Untreated of gonococcal and chlamydial infection lead to. : ( in male and female )

A
  1. In male lead to : prostatitis and epididymitis.
  2. In female lead to : pelvic inflammatory disease
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3
Q

Treatment of Chlamydia trachomatis infection ( eg, urethritis, cervivitis)

A

Azithromycin

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4
Q

Drug of choice for all stages of syphillis?

A

Penicillin G

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5
Q

Diphtheria toxin act in a similar to which toxin

A

Exotoxin A that produce by pseudomonas

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6
Q

Diphtheria toxin and exotoxin A ribosylate and inactivate the :

A

Elongation factor- 2

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7
Q

Which vaccine take in the day of birth ?

A

HBV vaccine

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8
Q

HBV vaccine called :

A

Non-infectious glycoprotein vaccine

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9
Q

Which nematode cause perianal serpiginous rash, and rhabditiform larvae seen in faces under microscopy?

A

Strongyloides

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10
Q

Which nematode is Threadworm

A

Strongyloides

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11
Q

Treatment of Strongyloides

A
  1. Bendazole
  2. Ivermectin
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12
Q

Listeria toxin

A

Pore forming toxin { steriolysin O}

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13
Q

Lyme disease :
Cause by :
Transmitted by :
Reservoir{host} :

A

Cause by : borrelia burgdorferi
Transmitted by : Ixodes deer tick
Reservoir{host} : mouse , white tailed deer الغزال الابيض

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14
Q

Grape-like cluster bacteria :

A

S.aureus

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15
Q

Violaceous lesion on the skin exam, which disease?

A

Caposi sarcoma

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16
Q

Caposi sarcoma cause by which virus ?

A

HHV-8

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17
Q

200

A
  1. Oral thrush
  2. Squamous cell carcinoma
  3. HHV-8 { caposi sarcoma}
  4. Oral hairy leokplakia
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18
Q

The most common side of MRSA coloniozation :

A
  1. Nose
  2. Axilla
  3. Hand
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19
Q

Eradication of colonizated MRSA by :

A
  1. Mupirocin nasal ointment ( for nose )
  2. Cholrhexidine hand disinfection ( for hand )
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20
Q

Picornavirus inactivate by

A

Chlorine releasing agent

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21
Q

Which type of TB therapy effected against bacteria that located within the phagolysosome of macrophage ?

A

Pyrazinamide

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22
Q

Which TB drug required acid media to work ?

A

Pyrazinamide

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23
Q

Which virus required viral polymerase ?

A
  1. Negative ssRNA
  2. Naked dsDNA
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24
Q

Which virus can cause poliomyelitis ?

A

Poliovirus

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25
Q

Ureaplasma resistance to B-lactams drugs due to :

A

Absence of cell wall

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26
Q

Drug of choice to ureaplasma :

A
  1. Azithromycin
  2. Tetracycline
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27
Q

Side effect of vancomycin in case of using it oral

A

Altered sense of test { dysgeusia }

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28
Q

Victor of visceral lishmeniasis :

A

Sand-fly

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29
Q

Which virus has icosanderal capsid and (+) CD3, CD4, CD7, can found in japan and west Africa, and cause lymphadenopathy..?

A

HTLV

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30
Q

All the enveloped virus from host plasma membrane except one DNA virus that enveloped from nuclear cell membrane, what’s this virus ?

A

Herpes virus

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31
Q

Source of viral enveloped :

A
  1. Plasma membrane ( all virus except herpes )
  2. Nuclear membrane ( herpes virus )
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32
Q

Medullary sinus contains which cells ‘?

A
  1. Macrophage
  2. Reticular cell
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33
Q

Vessels-like space located between the cord or lymphatic tissue “:

A

Medullary sinus

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34
Q

Chlorine releasing agent :

A
  1. Chlorine dioxide
  2. Sodium hypochlorite
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35
Q

Mechanism of Chlorine releasing agent :

A

Oxidation and denaturation of intracellular structure

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36
Q

Clinical uses of Chlorine releasing agent :

A
  1. Highly resistance spore ( clostridium)
  2. Some viruses like picornavirus
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37
Q

Enlargement of supraclavicular lymph node + (+) interferon gama assy + cough, weight loss, high sweats :

A

Active pulmonary TB

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38
Q

Which antiviral drug does not required any viral kinase to act ?

A
  1. Cidofovir
  2. Foscarnet
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39
Q

Visceral ulcer on the lips, mouth and gums cause by :

A

HSV-1

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40
Q

Gingivostomatiits

A

Visceral ulcer on the lips, mouth and gums

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41
Q

Daptosone breaks by :

A

Surfactant

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42
Q

Contact dependent host cytotoxicity by:

A

E.histolotica

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43
Q

Cross reaction cause by :

A
  1. Rheumatic fever
  2. Gullian barre syndrome
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44
Q

Which organism can cause “ villus epithelial destruction “ ?

A
  1. Rota virus
  2. Giardia
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45
Q

Large endothelial cell with large ovoid nuclei contains prominent basophilic despite

A

Owel’s eye (CMV)

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46
Q

Vaccine of rabies :

A

Inactivated (killed) vaccine

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47
Q

Rabies in united state transmitted by

A

Bat

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48
Q

Rabies in undeveloped country transmitted by :

A

Dog

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49
Q

“Bat in cave” to which virus refer ??

A

Rabies virus

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50
Q

Biofilm of s.epidermides :

A

Extracellular polysaccharide matrix

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51
Q

High fever, irritability, photophobia, hydrocephalus, with Extracellular polysaccharide matrix:

A

S. Epidermidies

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52
Q

What is the cause of S.epidermides disease ?

A

Biofilm (Extracellular polysaccharide matrix )

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53
Q

Obligated intracellular organism :

A

1.Reckitssia
2. Chlamydia

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54
Q

Facultative intracellular organism

A
  1. Legionella
  2. Listeria
  3. Salmonella
  4. Nesseria
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55
Q

Malaria appear in blood smear as :

A

Ring form

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56
Q

Babies appear in blood smear as :

A

Maltese cross form

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57
Q

Which organism transmitted by dog bit ?

A
  1. Rabies
  2. Pasturella
  3. Staph
  4. Strep
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58
Q

Local Defence against candida infection by :

A

T-cell

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59
Q

Systemic Defence against candida infection by :

A

Neutrophils

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60
Q

Low count of neutrophils in case of immunocompromised lead to :

A

Disseminated candida infection - systemic infection

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61
Q

Low count of T-lymphocytes in case of immunocompromised lead to :

A

Superficial candidal infection

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62
Q

Which species of malaria can cause latent hepatic infection in intra-hepatic state ( hypnozoites) ?

A
  1. Vivax
  2. Ovale
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63
Q

Plasmodium species :

A
  1. Vivax and ovale
  2. Falciparum
  3. Malaria
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64
Q

Which form of malaria can relapse ?

A

Hypnozoites

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65
Q

HIV drug that can cause hyperglycaemia

A

Lopinavir

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66
Q

Which cell release elastase enzyme in case of acute inflammation ?

A
  1. Neutrophil
  2. Macrophage
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67
Q

Function of elastase enzyme

A

Breakdown of collagen

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68
Q

Which cell release immunoglobulin ?

A

Plasma cell

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69
Q

In which case we can see the plasma cell under the microscopy ?

A

Only in case of “ multiple myeloma “ (tumour of plasma cells ).

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70
Q

Major basic protein release from :

A

Eosinophils ( hypersensivity reaction )

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71
Q

Yellow white pseudomembranous colitis after antibiotics cause by :

A

C.difficile

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72
Q

Flask shape ulceration in caecum and ascending colon, cause by :

A

E.histolotica

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73
Q

Foamy macrophage in small intestinal lamina propria , which disease ?.

A

Whipple disease

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74
Q

Inflammatory infiltration and necrosis of payer patches, which disease. ?

A

Typhoid fever

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75
Q

Reassortment of genetic material between viral and human occurs by :

A

Segmented virus

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76
Q

Segmented virus :

A
  1. Orthomyoxivirus
  2. Rotavirus
  3. Bunyavirus
  4. Arenovirus
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77
Q

Latent infection + flair + resolution =

A

HSV infection

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78
Q

HSV latent infection in :

A

Neural cell bodies

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79
Q

Bacterial gene transport between the organism by

A

Plasmid conjugation

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80
Q

Face mask uses for

A

Respiratory droplet infection

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81
Q

Face mask + non-sterile gloves +gown use for protection from which organism ?

A
  1. N.meningitis
  2. Influenza
  3. Pertussis
  4. M.pneumonia
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82
Q

Respiratory mask uses :

A

For airborne

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83
Q

N-95 mask :

A

Respiratory mask

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84
Q

Respiratory mask + sterile gloves + grown, uses :

A
  1. TB
  2. VZV
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85
Q

Protection from methicillin sensitive s.aureus by

A

Hand hygiene

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86
Q

Toxic shock syndrome, in man cause

A

Nasal packing

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87
Q

Toxic shock syndrome, in women cause

A

Vaginal tampons

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88
Q

Endotoxin activate _____ by bacterial component.

A

Toll like receptor

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89
Q

Function of capsule

A

Anti-phagocytosis

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90
Q

Function of fambrial Ag {pilli} :

A

Bacterial Adhesion

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91
Q

Septic shock in gram (-) bacteria cause by

A

Lipid A

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92
Q

Which organism activate electrolytes transporter ?

A
  1. C.jejune
  2. Cholera
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93
Q

The great risk factor of c. Septicum :

A

Clonic malignancy

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94
Q

The greatest risk factor of fulminant vibro-vulnificus :

A

Hematochrmoatosis

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95
Q

Which tumour decrease the B-lymphocytes, plasma cell, IgG production ?

A

Multiple myeloma

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96
Q

Patient with multiple myeloma have risk factor to infect by which organism ?

A
  1. Influenza
  2. S.pneumonia
  3. E.coli
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97
Q

Administration of isoniazid mono-therapy for TB result in :

A

Bacterial resistance to isoniazid ( rapid gene mutation ).

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98
Q

Which drug decrease transporting protein expression on the cell surface ?

A
  1. Floroquinilon
  2. Macrolide
  3. Aminoglycoside
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99
Q

Granuloma formation lead to activation of which cell ?

A

Macrophage

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100
Q

Outer polysaccharide capsule =

A

Encapsulated bacteria

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101
Q

Antimicrobial drug that work intracellular :

A
  1. Macrolide
  2. Tetracycline
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102
Q

Mechanism of resistance of antimicrobial drug that work intracellular :

A

Transmembrane efflux pumps

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103
Q

Rod =

A

Bacilli

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104
Q

Most common cause of septic arthritis in sexual active young women :

A

Disseminated gonococcal infection

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105
Q

Rout of transmission of typhoid fever :

A

Contaminated food ingestion

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106
Q

Lymphadenopathy refers to :

A

Enlargement of lymph-node

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107
Q

Lymphadenopathy + painful ulcer + irregular, ragged border =

A

Chancroid

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108
Q

Exchange of genomic segment between bacterial strain and human strain, this process called :

A

Reassortment of genetic material

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109
Q

Reassortment of genetic material, result in :

A

Formation of new bacteria

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110
Q

Patient that take chemotherapy usually this therapy associated with _____ fever .

A

Neutropenic fever .

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111
Q

Chemotherapy decrease_____ and increase risk factor of _____ infection .

A

Decrease immunity and increase risk factor of bacterial infection

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112
Q

Opportunistic infection in immunocompromised patient :

A
  1. M.avium
  2. Cryptoccus
  3. Histoplasma
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113
Q

The most common bacterial infection in case of burn :

A
  1. Pseudomonas
  2. S.aureus
  3. Enterococci
  4. E.coli
  5. Klebsiella
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114
Q

Which derivatives of fluroquinilone has anti-pseudomonal activity ?

A
  1. Levofloxacin
  2. Ciprofloxacin
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115
Q

Which derivatives of fluroquinilone does not effect against pseudomona ?

A

Moxifloxacin

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116
Q

The most common cause of otitis media in children.

A

S.pneumonia ( most common cause of MOPSS ).

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117
Q

Gram (-) bacteria induce TNF and IL1 by

A

Lipid A

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118
Q

Gram (+) bacteria induce TNF and IL1 by

A

Lipoteichoic acid

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119
Q

Lung abscess after influenza infection cause by

A

S. Aureus

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120
Q

Fever, nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, myalgia =

A

Influenza symptoms

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121
Q

Cough, fever, sputum sample =

A

Lung abscess

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122
Q

Alpha toxin of c.perferingines cause on blood agar :

A

Double zone of hemolysis

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123
Q

Capsule of B.anthrax contains :

A

D-glutamate

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124
Q

Painless black ulcer cause by :

A

B.anthrax

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125
Q

S.epidermidis adhere to catheter by :

A

Glycocalyx

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126
Q

Glycoprotein structure that allow bacterial adherence to the cell surface :

A

Fimbria ( pilus )

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127
Q

Prosthetic valve endocarditis causes :
1. Endocarditis after more than 6 months
2. Endocarditis after less than 6 months

A
  1. Endocarditis after more than 6 months, cause by s.aureus
  2. Endocarditis after less than 6 months , cause by s.epidermides
128
Q

Gram (+) bacteria that composed dipicolnic acid and peptidoglycan

A

Spore forming bacteria

129
Q

Chemical compound that play role in the heat resistance of bacteria endospores :

A

Dipiclonic acid

130
Q

Location of oxidative and transporting enzyme in the bacteria :

A

In cytoplasmic membrane

131
Q

Periplasm contains :

A

Hydrolytic enzyme ( B-lactamase )

132
Q

Cytoplasmic membrane contains

A

Oxidative and transport enzyme

133
Q

E.coli cause septic shock by.

A

Lipid A

134
Q

Destruction of capsule by

A

Opsonization (IgG, C3b )

135
Q

Opsonization does not occurs in which patient ?

A

Sickle cell disease

136
Q

Epidermis easily comes off with gentle pressure =

A

Nikolsky’s sign

137
Q

SSSS by s.aureus which sign cause ?

A

Nikolsky sign

138
Q

SSSS:
1. Locally cause :
2. Systemically cause :

A
  1. Locally cause :bullous impetigo
  2. Systemically cause :Nikolsky’s sign
139
Q

Impetigo types :

A
  1. Bullous
  2. Non bullous
140
Q

Bullous impetigo cause by

A

S.aureus

141
Q

Non-bullous impetigo cause by

A
  1. Aureus
  2. Pyogenes
142
Q

Honey crusted lesion =

A

No-bullous impetigo

143
Q

IV drug abuser, may lead to. Endocarditis in _____ .

A

Tricuspid valve

144
Q

The most common cause of infective endocarditis in IV drug abuser :

A
  1. S.aureus
  2. Pseudomonas
145
Q

Complication of Infection endocarditis by IV drug abuser

A

Multiple septic pulmonary embolism

146
Q

Swelling in post-auricular area on the right side extending to the angel of the mandible :

A

Acute parotitis

147
Q

Acute parotitis diagnosis by

A

Serum amylase

148
Q

Initial treatment of s.epedermides :

A

Vancomycin

149
Q

Factor that act as antiphagocytic and cross react with myosin ( Ag mimicry ) :

A

M protein

150
Q

Ag mimicry cause :

A

Rheumatic fever

151
Q

TB virulence factor that inhibit fusion of lysosome and phagosome :

A

Sulfatide

152
Q

Which type of E.coli cause persistent diarrhea in infant in developing country ?

A

EAEC

153
Q

Which type of E.coli cause acute watery diarrhea in children in developed country ?

A

EPEC

154
Q

Fibrin platelet aggregation cause by destruction of ____ that covered the valves .

A

Endothelium

155
Q

Child with skin infection, dark urine , facial puffiness, Edema =

A

Acute post-streptococcal glumerlonephritis

156
Q

B-hemolytic with PYR+

A

S.pyogenes

157
Q

B-hemolytic with PYR (-)

A

S.agalactia

158
Q

Gamma hemolytic with PYR (+)

A

Enterococci

159
Q

Alpha-hemolytic with PYR (-)

A

S.bovis

160
Q

Golden yellow cluster :

A

Non bullous impetigo

161
Q

Non bullous impetigo follow by :

A

APSGN

162
Q

Which disease has bilateral facial nerve palsy

A

Lyme disease

163
Q

Joint pain + eye redness =

A

Reactive arthritis

164
Q

Most common organ that bleed in case of accident :

A

Spleen

165
Q

Which organ responsible for systemic bacterial clearance ?

A

Spleen

166
Q

Spleen release ____ that responsible for systemic bacterial clearance.

A

Splenic macrophage

167
Q

Which bacteria called gallolytivcus

A

S.bovis

168
Q

Dysuria, urine frequency, urgency, hypertension =

A

UTI

169
Q

Leukocyte esterase detect the ___ in the urine .

A

Pus

170
Q

Which pet animal associated with campylobacter infection ?

A

Puppies

171
Q

Bacteria transmitted by pet faces :

A

Yersinia

172
Q

C.difficile treatment :
* 1’st line
* 2nd line

A
  1. 1st line: oral vancomycin, oral fidaxomicin
  2. 2nd line: metronidazole
173
Q

Listeria cause meningitis in ____ and ____.

A
  1. Neonatal
  2. Immunocompromised
174
Q

Treatment of meningitis:

A
  • Ceftriaxone + vancomycin + {ampicillin in case of neonatal, old age, immunocompromised)
175
Q

Add ampicillin to the combination to treat the meningitis in case :

A
  1. Neonatal meningitis
  2. Old age
  3. Immunocompromised
176
Q

Yellow pus through the over line skin , anaerobic bacteria, branching :

A

Actinomcyces

177
Q

Treatment of actinomyces

A

Penicillin G,V

178
Q

Test of TB :

A
  1. PPD
  2. Interferon gamma release assy ( increase T-lymphocyte )
179
Q

C.difficile can be asymptomatic due to present of _______ that prevent the infection by C.difficile .

A

Bacteria microflora

180
Q

Aspirate pneumonia treatment :

A

Clindamycin

181
Q

Most common cause of purulent tonsillar exudate in children :

A

S.pyogenes

182
Q

Which organism can transmitted in case Stepping on rusty nail ?

A

C. Tetani

183
Q

Trismus =

A

Lack jaw

184
Q

Trismus cause by

A

C. Tetani

185
Q

Infant with HBV diagnosis by :

A
  1. Maternal viral load
  2. Maternal HBe Ag (+)
186
Q

HBV can cause ___ by integration of HBV-DNA with liver cell-DNA, that lead to mutation .

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

187
Q

Toxoplasma in HIV patient, CD4<100, can cause :

A

Multiple ring enhanced lesion in brain

188
Q

Pseudomembrane on erythematous base, cause by :

A

Candida albicanis

189
Q

TB virulence factor by :

A

Cord factor

190
Q

Multiple ring enhanced lesion in brain cause by

A

Toxoplasma in case of HIV CD4<100

191
Q

Which factor characterised by: inactivate neutrophil , damage of mitochondria, increase releasing of TNF-alpha?

A

TB cord factor

192
Q

Which factor of E.coli cause UTI

A

Fambria

193
Q

E.coli factor that can cause neonatal meningitis :

A

K1 capsular polysacchride

194
Q

When would we see charcot-leyden crystal:
1. In stool
2. In sputum

A
  1. In stool : intestinal helminthic infection ( increase eosinophil)
  2. In sputum : in asthma patient ( due to high eosinophil )
195
Q

Treatment of reactive arthritis by :

A

NSAIDs

196
Q

Patient recently recovered from GIT infection + sacroiliitis (back pain) + achillobursitis =

A

Reactive arthritis

197
Q

Sacroiliitis :

A

Back pain

198
Q

Cocci grow in chain and cause UTI

A

Enterococci

199
Q

Virus use cellular integrant to entry the cell

A

CMV

200
Q

Organism cause cellulitis after exposure to salt water ?

A

Vibro vulnificus

201
Q

Mechanism of alpha toxin induced hepatocellular carcinoma

A

P-53 mutation

202
Q

Stage of malaria cycle that infect the mosquito :

A

Gametocyte

203
Q

Stage of malaria life cycle that rapture to release merozioites

A

Schizont

204
Q
  • Stage of malaria life cycle that found in RBC
  • stage of malaria life cycle that infect ~RBC
A
  1. Found in RBC :Trophozoites
  2. Infect ~RBC : merozoites
205
Q

Bacteria toxin induces 5-HT release from enterochromaffin cells ?

A

Cholera toxin

206
Q

Legionella diagnosis by :

A

Urine Ag

207
Q

Pruritus associated with sarcoptes scablei, which type of hypersinsivity reaction ?

A

Type 4

208
Q

Painful ,burning rash, dermatome rash ( laterally ) :

A

Shingles

209
Q

Multinucleated epidermal giant cell + intranuclear inclusion =

A

HSV

210
Q

Gram (+) cocci cause spongiotic dermatitis

A

S.aureus

211
Q

Fever, sore throat , fatigue , splenomegaly lymphadenopathy, (+) heterophil agglutination test, under-microscopy: atypical lymphocytes (T-cell)

A

Infectious mononucleosis

212
Q

Disease appears as atypical lymphocyte ( similar to monocytes )

A

Infectious mononucleosis

213
Q

⬆️ ESR { erythrocyte sedmhnation rate } in case of ____ .

A

Auto-immune disease

214
Q

Parvovirus B-19 in normal child cause :

A

Erythema infectiosum

215
Q

Parvovirus B-19 in normal adult cause :

A

Acute systemic arthropathy

216
Q

Green sputum , blue-green pigment , septic shock, capsulated bacilli :

A

Pseudomonas

217
Q

Contact with sheep may lead to transmission of which disease :

A

B.anthrax

218
Q

Cirumoral polar, lace-like erthematous rash on face and trunk , slapped cheeks :

A

Erythema infectiosum

219
Q

Rash of Erythema infectious cause by :

A

Local immune complex deposition

220
Q

Parvovirus b19 attach to___ that foun in the erythroid progenitor cell surface .

A

P-Ag

221
Q

Destruction of p-Ag that found in erythroid progenitor cells surface by parvovirus B-19 lead to :

A

Aplastic anemia

222
Q

Which type of anemia cause by parvovirus B-19 ?

A

Aplastic anemia

223
Q

If only anti-HBs (+) it mean :

A

Vaccinated

224
Q

If Anti-HBs (+) with another Antibodies present it refer to

A

Recovery

225
Q

HBV progress to chronic form after ___.

A

6 months

226
Q

Increase viral load, (-) antiHBs , (+) HBe AG, (+) IgG, (-) IgM =

A

chronic HBV

227
Q

HBe Ag refer to ____.

A

Viral replication

228
Q

____fungi, it mean certain temperature has specific form, other temperature has another form .

A

Dimorphic fungi

229
Q

Eg, for dimorphic fungi :

A
  1. Blastomycosis’
  2. Sporotrichosis
230
Q

Cigar-shaped fungi, rosettes of candida , lymphangitis , dimorphic :

A

Sporotrichosis

231
Q

1.HIV + multiple enhanced lesion =
2.HIV + solitary enhanced lesion =

A

1.HIV + multiple enhanced lesion =cerebral toxoplasmosis
2.HIV + solitary enhanced lesion =primary cerebral lymphoma

232
Q

HIV + ⬆️opening pressure of lumbar puncture +normal MRI =

A

Cryptoccus meningitis

233
Q

Dacrilitis

A

Painful swelling of fingers

234
Q

Childrens with sickle cell anemia all of them have :

A

Autosplenoctomy

235
Q

Yellow sclerae =

A

⬆️ bilirubin (in hemolytic anemia. )

236
Q

Dacritis , pain crisis, low haemoglobin level =

A

Sickle cell anemia

237
Q

Children with sickle cell disease exposure to encapsulated organism due to :

A

Autosplenoctomy, the spleen responsible fore clearance of blood from the bacteria, therefore this childrens have deficiency in “ bacterial clearance “

238
Q

Solitary , round pink colored plaque with ulcerated centre:

A

Cutaneus Leishmaniasis

239
Q

Leishmania diagnosis by

A

Skin biopsy

240
Q

skin biopsy show macrophage with amastigotes, what’s the organism ?

A

Leishmania

241
Q

Influenza virus vaccine against. :

A

Hemagglutinin

242
Q

H-influenza vaccine against. :

A

Poly-ribosylribitol phosphate

243
Q

Erythema multiform cause by

A
  1. HSV
  2. M.pneumonia
244
Q

Erythema migrans cause by

A

Lyme disease

245
Q

Erythema infectiousm cause by

A

Parvovirus B-19

246
Q

Erythema marginatum cause by

A

Rheumatic fever

247
Q

Erythema nodusum cause by

A

1.Sarcoidosis
2. Coccidiodiomycosis

248
Q

Child with Maculopapular rash in whole the body, crusted lesion, vesicles =\

A

Chicken pox

249
Q

Calamice lotion use for

A

Chickenpox

250
Q

Treatment of measles rash :

A

Vitamin A therapy

251
Q

Rapid strep test for :

A

Scarlet fever

252
Q

Tzanck test for

A

HSV

253
Q

Bacteria composed of the VI-Ag :

A

Salmonella

254
Q

Acute diarrhrea + fecal mononuclear leukocytes :

A

Salmonella typhi

255
Q

Non-sepatate hyphae with wide angle branching :

A

Mucor and rhizopus

256
Q

Oval, budding yeast with pseudohyphae

A

Candida

257
Q

Sepatate hyphae with acute angle branching

A

Aspergillius

258
Q

Round yeast surrounded by buddy yeast cell

A

Paracoccidoidomycosis

259
Q

HIV + CD4<50 + ⬆️cerebrospinal fluid =

A

JC virus

260
Q

`greatest predisposing factor of candida albicanis :

A

Diabetes mellitus

261
Q

Spaghetti under microscopy appears as :

A

Long hyphae

262
Q

Meat balls under-microscopy appears as

A

Round yeast cell

263
Q

Bacteriostatic drug cause aplastic anemia

A

Chlormphinicol

264
Q

Which vaccine induce maximum immunological response( humeral & cell mediated ) :

A

Live attenuated vaccine

265
Q

Killed vaccine activate only. :

A

Humeral immunity

266
Q

Toxoid vaccine activate

A

Cell mediated immunity only

267
Q

Diffuse flaccid bullae cause by :

A

SSSS

268
Q

Rose spots

A

Typhoid fever

269
Q

Petechial rash

A

E.coli

270
Q

Petechial haemorrhage

A

N.meningitis

271
Q

Infiltration of right lower lobe + narrow zone of green hemolysis without clearing =

A

S.pneumonia

272
Q

Which factor cause “narrow zone of green hemolysis without clearing “

A

Polysaccharide capsule of s.pneumonia

273
Q

Treatment of diphylobothrium

A

Praziquantel

274
Q

Tap-worm cause vit B-12 deficiency, megaloblastic anemia, hyper-segmentation neutrophils, infect by ingestion of larvae in raw freshwater :

A

Diphylobothrium

275
Q

Mechanism of paraziquentel

A

Cause severe spasm and paralysis of the worm muscle by “⬆️ Ca influx into the sarcoplasm

276
Q

Virulence factor of N.menigitis :

A

Adhesive pilli

277
Q

(-) anti-HCs Ab , (+) HCs Ag =

A

Acute HCV

278
Q

1\3 of chronic hepatitis patient after several years { ±20 years ) will develop:

A

Liver cirrhosis

279
Q

If someone who fully recovered from HBV, still have risk factor to hepatic cell carcinoma ?

A

Yes, due to the DNA material of HBV integrated with hepatocytes, and it still after recovery .

280
Q

Parasite cause infectious mononucleosis

A

Toxoplasma

281
Q

Child younger than 2 years, particularly vulnerable to septic arthritis due to :

A

H-influnza

282
Q

Whats the serum marker that present during the window period of HBV ?

A

IgM anti-HBc Ag

283
Q

HBc Ag have two types of Ab :

A
  1. IgM :acute infection
  2. IgG : chronic infection
284
Q

Do the child who acquired HBV during the birth have elevated liver enzyme ?

A

No, due to underdeveloped immune system

285
Q

Red itchy eye + swelling around them =

A

Conjunctivitis

286
Q

Small lesion with white centre

A

Koplic spot

287
Q

Tender left epi-trochlear lymphoma cause by

A

HSV-1

288
Q

Malaria relapse infection by

A

Hypnozoites

289
Q

Scleral icterus =

A

Jaundice

290
Q

Hepatomegaly + scleral icterus =

A

HBV

291
Q

Essential step of replication of HBV by :

A

Reverse transcriptase

292
Q

Rash on foot and hand + several superfacial ulcer on buccal mucosa and soft plate =

A

Hand-foot-mouth disease

293
Q

Diffuse expiratory wheezes +rhinorrhrea + cough + difficult breathing +infect children <2

A

RSV

294
Q

HDV required ___ of HBs Ag to penetration of hepatocytes

A

Coating

295
Q

Coating of viral particle =

A

Superinfection

296
Q

HIV cause esophagitis by 3 organisms :

A
  1. Candida{ most common}
  2. CMV
  3. HSV-1
297
Q

Pharyngeal hyperaemia + linear ulcer =

A

CMV esophagitis

298
Q

Mononuclear Ab against cell surface complement receptor CD 21

A

EBV

299
Q

Enveloped glycoprotein {GP} of EBV called

A

GP-350

300
Q

GP-350 of EBV bind to

A

CD-21 {CR2}

301
Q

Concentration dependent killing :

A
  1. Aminoglycosides
  2. Fluroguinolone
302
Q

Time dependent killing :

A

B-lactamase drugs

303
Q

Treatment of bacteriods

A

Zosyn (peperacillin +tazobactam )

304
Q

Lopinavir can’t used as mono-therapy due to

A

Developing resistance very quickly + metabolic complication( hyperglycemia, dyslipidemia, insulin resistance…)

305
Q

Bioavailability of IV drugs

A

100%

306
Q

____ and____ uses for disinfected agent.

A

Ethanol and isopropanol

307
Q

Mechanism of ethanol and isopropanol :

A
  1. Destruction of cell membrane by destruction of lipid structure of cell membrane.
  2. Denaturation of protein
308
Q

Normal concentration of ethanol and isopropanol :

A

60%-90% { 70% the best}

309
Q

Drug cause hepatitis (hepatotoxicity )

A

TB medication

310
Q

Drug cause myopathy

A
  1. Daptomycin
  2. Integrase inhibitor
311
Q

Drug cause Pancrititis

A

NRTIs (ddi)

312
Q

Antibiotics disintegrate rapidly when placed in hypotonic solution :

A

Cell wall inhibitor antibiotics

313
Q

Drug that cause hearing loss ( ototoxicity )

A
  1. Aminoglycosides
  2. Vancomycin
314
Q

Drug cause esophagitis

A

Tetracycline

315
Q

Drug cause tendon rapture

A

Fluroquinolone

316
Q

Transplantation + immune suppressive therapy, it’s risk factor for

A

CMV

317
Q

1st line to treatment of CMV :

A

Ganciclovir

Microbiology (13 decks)

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