Question UW Flashcards

1
Q

Nucleic acid amplification test is test used for diagnosis of

A

Gonorrhoea

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2
Q

Untreated of gonococcal and chlamydial infection lead to. : ( in male and female )

A
  1. In male lead to : prostatitis and epididymitis.
  2. In female lead to : pelvic inflammatory disease
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3
Q

Treatment of Chlamydia trachomatis infection ( eg, urethritis, cervivitis)

A

Azithromycin

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4
Q

Drug of choice for all stages of syphillis?

A

Penicillin G

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5
Q

Diphtheria toxin act in a similar to which toxin

A

Exotoxin A that produce by pseudomonas

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6
Q

Diphtheria toxin and exotoxin A ribosylate and inactivate the :

A

Elongation factor- 2

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7
Q

Which vaccine take in the day of birth ?

A

HBV vaccine

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8
Q

HBV vaccine called :

A

Non-infectious glycoprotein vaccine

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9
Q

Which nematode cause perianal serpiginous rash, and rhabditiform larvae seen in faces under microscopy?

A

Strongyloides

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10
Q

Which nematode is Threadworm

A

Strongyloides

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11
Q

Treatment of Strongyloides

A
  1. Bendazole
  2. Ivermectin
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12
Q

Listeria toxin

A

Pore forming toxin { steriolysin O}

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13
Q

Lyme disease :
Cause by :
Transmitted by :
Reservoir{host} :

A

Cause by : borrelia burgdorferi
Transmitted by : Ixodes deer tick
Reservoir{host} : mouse , white tailed deer الغزال الابيض

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14
Q

Grape-like cluster bacteria :

A

S.aureus

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15
Q

Violaceous lesion on the skin exam, which disease?

A

Caposi sarcoma

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16
Q

Caposi sarcoma cause by which virus ?

A

HHV-8

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17
Q

200

A
  1. Oral thrush
  2. Squamous cell carcinoma
  3. HHV-8 { caposi sarcoma}
  4. Oral hairy leokplakia
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18
Q

The most common side of MRSA coloniozation :

A
  1. Nose
  2. Axilla
  3. Hand
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19
Q

Eradication of colonizated MRSA by :

A
  1. Mupirocin nasal ointment ( for nose )
  2. Cholrhexidine hand disinfection ( for hand )
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20
Q

Picornavirus inactivate by

A

Chlorine releasing agent

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21
Q

Which type of TB therapy effected against bacteria that located within the phagolysosome of macrophage ?

A

Pyrazinamide

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22
Q

Which TB drug required acid media to work ?

A

Pyrazinamide

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23
Q

Which virus required viral polymerase ?

A
  1. Negative ssRNA
  2. Naked dsDNA
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24
Q

Which virus can cause poliomyelitis ?

A

Poliovirus

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25
Ureaplasma resistance to B-lactams drugs due to :
Absence of cell wall
26
Drug of choice to ureaplasma :
1. Azithromycin 2. Tetracycline
27
Side effect of vancomycin in case of using it oral
Altered sense of test { dysgeusia }
28
Victor of visceral lishmeniasis :
Sand-fly
29
Which virus has icosanderal capsid and (+) CD3, CD4, CD7, can found in japan and west Africa, and cause lymphadenopathy..?
HTLV
30
All the enveloped virus from host plasma membrane except one DNA virus that enveloped from nuclear cell membrane, what’s this virus ?
Herpes virus
31
Source of viral enveloped :
1. Plasma membrane ( all virus except herpes ) 2. Nuclear membrane ( herpes virus )
32
Medullary sinus contains which cells ‘?
1. Macrophage 2. Reticular cell
33
Vessels-like space located between the cord or lymphatic tissue “:
Medullary sinus
34
Chlorine releasing agent :
1. Chlorine dioxide 2. Sodium hypochlorite
35
Mechanism of Chlorine releasing agent :
Oxidation and denaturation of intracellular structure
36
Clinical uses of Chlorine releasing agent :
1. Highly resistance spore ( clostridium) 2. Some viruses like picornavirus
37
Enlargement of supraclavicular lymph node + (+) interferon gama assy + cough, weight loss, high sweats :
Active pulmonary TB
38
Which antiviral drug does not required any viral kinase to act ?
1. Cidofovir 2. Foscarnet
39
Visceral ulcer on the lips, mouth and gums cause by :
HSV-1
40
Gingivostomatiits
Visceral ulcer on the lips, mouth and gums
41
Daptosone breaks by :
Surfactant
42
Contact dependent host cytotoxicity by:
E.histolotica
43
Cross reaction cause by :
1. Rheumatic fever 2. Gullian barre syndrome
44
Which organism can cause “ villus epithelial destruction “ ?
1. Rota virus 2. Giardia
45
Large endothelial cell with large ovoid nuclei contains prominent basophilic despite
Owel’s eye (CMV)
46
Vaccine of rabies :
Inactivated (killed) vaccine
47
Rabies in united state transmitted by
Bat
48
Rabies in undeveloped country transmitted by :
Dog
49
“Bat in cave” to which virus refer ??
Rabies virus
50
Biofilm of s.epidermides :
Extracellular polysaccharide matrix
51
High fever, irritability, photophobia, hydrocephalus, with Extracellular polysaccharide matrix:
S. Epidermidies
52
What is the cause of S.epidermides disease ?
Biofilm (Extracellular polysaccharide matrix )
53
Obligated intracellular organism :
1.Reckitssia 2. Chlamydia
54
Facultative intracellular organism
1. Legionella 2. Listeria 3. Salmonella 4. Nesseria
55
Malaria appear in blood smear as :
Ring form
56
Babies appear in blood smear as :
Maltese cross form
57
Which organism transmitted by dog bit ?
1. Rabies 2. Pasturella 3. Staph 4. Strep
58
Local Defence against candida infection by :
T-cell
59
Systemic Defence against candida infection by :
Neutrophils
60
Low count of neutrophils in case of immunocompromised lead to :
Disseminated candida infection - systemic infection
61
Low count of T-lymphocytes in case of immunocompromised lead to :
Superficial candidal infection
62
Which species of malaria can cause latent hepatic infection in intra-hepatic state ( hypnozoites) ?
1. Vivax 2. Ovale
63
Plasmodium species :
1. Vivax and ovale 2. Falciparum 3. Malaria
64
Which form of malaria can relapse ?
Hypnozoites
65
HIV drug that can cause hyperglycaemia
Lopinavir
66
Which cell release elastase enzyme in case of acute inflammation ?
1. Neutrophil 2. Macrophage
67
Function of elastase enzyme
Breakdown of collagen
68
Which cell release immunoglobulin ?
Plasma cell
69
In which case we can see the plasma cell under the microscopy ?
Only in case of “ multiple myeloma “ (tumour of plasma cells ).
70
Major basic protein release from :
Eosinophils ( hypersensivity reaction )
71
Yellow white pseudomembranous colitis after antibiotics cause by :
C.difficile
72
Flask shape ulceration in caecum and ascending colon, cause by :
E.histolotica
73
Foamy macrophage in small intestinal lamina propria , which disease ?.
Whipple disease
74
Inflammatory infiltration and necrosis of payer patches, which disease. ?
Typhoid fever
75
Reassortment of genetic material between viral and human occurs by :
Segmented virus
76
Segmented virus :
1. Orthomyoxivirus 2. Rotavirus 3. Bunyavirus 4. Arenovirus
77
Latent infection + flair + resolution =
HSV infection
78
HSV latent infection in :
Neural cell bodies
79
Bacterial gene transport between the organism by
Plasmid conjugation
80
Face mask uses for
Respiratory droplet infection
81
Face mask + non-sterile gloves +gown use for protection from which organism ?
1. N.meningitis 2. Influenza 3. Pertussis 4. M.pneumonia
82
Respiratory mask uses :
For airborne
83
N-95 mask :
Respiratory mask
84
Respiratory mask + sterile gloves + grown, uses :
1. TB 2. VZV
85
Protection from methicillin sensitive s.aureus by
Hand hygiene
86
Toxic shock syndrome, in man cause
Nasal packing
87
Toxic shock syndrome, in women cause
Vaginal tampons
88
Endotoxin activate _____ by bacterial component.
Toll like receptor
89
Function of capsule
Anti-phagocytosis
90
Function of fambrial Ag {pilli} :
Bacterial Adhesion
91
Septic shock in gram (-) bacteria cause by
Lipid A
92
Which organism activate electrolytes transporter ?
1. C.jejune 2. Cholera
93
The great risk factor of c. Septicum :
Clonic malignancy
94
The greatest risk factor of fulminant vibro-vulnificus :
Hematochrmoatosis
95
Which tumour decrease the B-lymphocytes, plasma cell, IgG production ?
Multiple myeloma
96
Patient with multiple myeloma have risk factor to infect by which organism ?
1. Influenza 2. S.pneumonia 3. E.coli
97
Administration of isoniazid mono-therapy for TB result in :
Bacterial resistance to isoniazid ( rapid gene mutation ).
98
Which drug decrease transporting protein expression on the cell surface ?
1. Floroquinilon 2. Macrolide 3. Aminoglycoside
99
Granuloma formation lead to activation of which cell ?
Macrophage
100
Outer polysaccharide capsule =
Encapsulated bacteria
101
Antimicrobial drug that work intracellular :
1. Macrolide 2. Tetracycline
102
Mechanism of resistance of antimicrobial drug that work intracellular :
Transmembrane efflux pumps
103
Rod =
Bacilli
104
Most common cause of septic arthritis in sexual active young women :
Disseminated gonococcal infection
105
Rout of transmission of typhoid fever :
Contaminated food ingestion
106
Lymphadenopathy refers to :
Enlargement of lymph-node
107
Lymphadenopathy + painful ulcer + irregular, ragged border =
Chancroid
108
Exchange of genomic segment between bacterial strain and human strain, this process called :
Reassortment of genetic material
109
Reassortment of genetic material, result in :
Formation of new bacteria
110
Patient that take chemotherapy usually this therapy associated with _____ fever .
Neutropenic fever .
111
Chemotherapy decrease_____ and increase risk factor of _____ infection .
Decrease immunity and increase risk factor of bacterial infection
112
Opportunistic infection in immunocompromised patient :
1. M.avium 2. Cryptoccus 3. Histoplasma
113
The most common bacterial infection in case of burn :
1. Pseudomonas 2. S.aureus 3. Enterococci 4. E.coli 5. Klebsiella
114
Which derivatives of fluroquinilone has anti-pseudomonal activity ?
1. Levofloxacin 2. Ciprofloxacin
115
Which derivatives of fluroquinilone does not effect against pseudomona ?
Moxifloxacin
116
The most common cause of otitis media in children.
S.pneumonia ( most common cause of MOPSS ).
117
Gram (-) bacteria induce TNF and IL1 by
Lipid A
118
Gram (+) bacteria induce TNF and IL1 by
Lipoteichoic acid
119
Lung abscess after influenza infection cause by
S. Aureus
120
Fever, nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, myalgia =
Influenza symptoms
121
Cough, fever, sputum sample =
Lung abscess
122
Alpha toxin of c.perferingines cause on blood agar :
Double zone of hemolysis
123
Capsule of B.anthrax contains :
D-glutamate
124
Painless black ulcer cause by :
B.anthrax
125
S.epidermidis adhere to catheter by :
Glycocalyx
126
Glycoprotein structure that allow bacterial adherence to the cell surface :
Fimbria ( pilus )
127
Prosthetic valve endocarditis causes : 1. Endocarditis after more than 6 months 2. Endocarditis after less than 6 months
1. Endocarditis after more than 6 months, cause by s.aureus 2. Endocarditis after less than 6 months , cause by s.epidermides
128
Gram (+) bacteria that composed dipicolnic acid and peptidoglycan
Spore forming bacteria
129
Chemical compound that play role in the heat resistance of bacteria endospores :
Dipiclonic acid
130
Location of oxidative and transporting enzyme in the bacteria :
In cytoplasmic membrane
131
Periplasm contains :
Hydrolytic enzyme ( B-lactamase )
132
Cytoplasmic membrane contains
Oxidative and transport enzyme
133
E.coli cause septic shock by.
Lipid A
134
Destruction of capsule by
Opsonization (IgG, C3b )
135
Opsonization does not occurs in which patient ?
Sickle cell disease
136
Epidermis easily comes off with gentle pressure =
Nikolsky’s sign
137
SSSS by s.aureus which sign cause ?
Nikolsky sign
138
SSSS: 1. Locally cause : 2. Systemically cause :
1. Locally cause :bullous impetigo 2. Systemically cause :Nikolsky’s sign
139
Impetigo types :
1. Bullous 2. Non bullous
140
Bullous impetigo cause by
S.aureus
141
Non-bullous impetigo cause by
1. Aureus 2. Pyogenes
142
Honey crusted lesion =
No-bullous impetigo
143
IV drug abuser, may lead to. Endocarditis in _____ .
Tricuspid valve
144
The most common cause of infective endocarditis in IV drug abuser :
1. S.aureus 2. Pseudomonas
145
Complication of Infection endocarditis by IV drug abuser
Multiple septic pulmonary embolism
146
Swelling in post-auricular area on the right side extending to the angel of the mandible :
Acute parotitis
147
Acute parotitis diagnosis by
Serum amylase
148
Initial treatment of s.epedermides :
Vancomycin
149
Factor that act as antiphagocytic and cross react with myosin ( Ag mimicry ) :
M protein
150
Ag mimicry cause :
Rheumatic fever
151
TB virulence factor that inhibit fusion of lysosome and phagosome :
Sulfatide
152
Which type of E.coli cause persistent diarrhea in infant in developing country ?
EAEC
153
Which type of E.coli cause acute watery diarrhea in children in developed country ?
EPEC
154
Fibrin platelet aggregation cause by destruction of ____ that covered the valves .
Endothelium
155
Child with skin infection, dark urine , facial puffiness, Edema =
Acute post-streptococcal glumerlonephritis
156
B-hemolytic with PYR+
S.pyogenes
157
B-hemolytic with PYR (-)
S.agalactia
158
Gamma hemolytic with PYR (+)
Enterococci
159
Alpha-hemolytic with PYR (-)
S.bovis
160
Golden yellow cluster :
Non bullous impetigo
161
Non bullous impetigo follow by :
APSGN
162
Which disease has bilateral facial nerve palsy
Lyme disease
163
Joint pain + eye redness =
Reactive arthritis
164
Most common organ that bleed in case of accident :
Spleen
165
Which organ responsible for systemic bacterial clearance ?
Spleen
166
Spleen release ____ that responsible for systemic bacterial clearance.
Splenic macrophage
167
Which bacteria called gallolytivcus
S.bovis
168
Dysuria, urine frequency, urgency, hypertension =
UTI
169
Leukocyte esterase detect the ___ in the urine .
Pus
170
Which pet animal associated with campylobacter infection ?
Puppies
171
Bacteria transmitted by pet faces :
Yersinia
172
C.difficile treatment : * 1’st line * 2nd line
1. 1st line: oral vancomycin, oral fidaxomicin 2. 2nd line: metronidazole
173
Listeria cause meningitis in ____ and ____.
1. Neonatal 2. Immunocompromised
174
Treatment of meningitis:
* Ceftriaxone + vancomycin + {ampicillin in case of neonatal, old age, immunocompromised)
175
Add ampicillin to the combination to treat the meningitis in case :
1. Neonatal meningitis 2. Old age 3. Immunocompromised
176
Yellow pus through the over line skin , anaerobic bacteria, branching :
Actinomcyces
177
Treatment of actinomyces
Penicillin G,V
178
Test of TB :
1. PPD 2. Interferon gamma release assy ( increase T-lymphocyte )
179
C.difficile can be asymptomatic due to present of _______ that prevent the infection by C.difficile .
Bacteria microflora
180
Aspirate pneumonia treatment :
Clindamycin
181
Most common cause of purulent tonsillar exudate in children :
S.pyogenes
182
Which organism can transmitted in case Stepping on rusty nail ?
C. Tetani
183
Trismus =
Lack jaw
184
Trismus cause by
C. Tetani
185
Infant with HBV diagnosis by :
1. Maternal viral load 2. Maternal HBe Ag (+)
186
HBV can cause ___ by integration of HBV-DNA with liver cell-DNA, that lead to mutation .
Hepatocellular carcinoma
187
Toxoplasma in HIV patient, CD4<100, can cause :
Multiple ring enhanced lesion in brain
188
Pseudomembrane on erythematous base, cause by :
Candida albicanis
189
TB virulence factor by :
Cord factor
190
Multiple ring enhanced lesion in brain cause by
Toxoplasma in case of HIV CD4<100
191
Which factor characterised by: inactivate neutrophil , damage of mitochondria, increase releasing of TNF-alpha?
TB cord factor
192
Which factor of E.coli cause UTI
Fambria
193
E.coli factor that can cause neonatal meningitis :
K1 capsular polysacchride
194
When would we see charcot-leyden crystal: 1. In stool 2. In sputum
1. In stool : intestinal helminthic infection ( increase eosinophil) 2. In sputum : in asthma patient ( due to high eosinophil )
195
Treatment of reactive arthritis by :
NSAIDs
196
Patient recently recovered from GIT infection + sacroiliitis (back pain) + achillobursitis =
Reactive arthritis
197
Sacroiliitis :
Back pain
198
Cocci grow in chain and cause UTI
Enterococci
199
Virus use cellular integrant to entry the cell
CMV
200
Organism cause cellulitis after exposure to salt water ?
Vibro vulnificus
201
Mechanism of alpha toxin induced hepatocellular carcinoma
P-53 mutation
202
Stage of malaria cycle that infect the mosquito :
Gametocyte
203
Stage of malaria life cycle that rapture to release merozioites
Schizont
204
* Stage of malaria life cycle that found in RBC * stage of malaria life cycle that infect ~RBC
1. Found in RBC :Trophozoites 2. Infect ~RBC : merozoites
205
Bacteria toxin induces 5-HT release from enterochromaffin cells ?
Cholera toxin
206
Legionella diagnosis by :
Urine Ag
207
Pruritus associated with sarcoptes scablei, which type of hypersinsivity reaction ?
Type 4
208
Painful ,burning rash, dermatome rash ( laterally ) :
Shingles
209
Multinucleated epidermal giant cell + intranuclear inclusion =
HSV
210
Gram (+) cocci cause spongiotic dermatitis
S.aureus
211
Fever, sore throat , fatigue , splenomegaly lymphadenopathy, (+) heterophil agglutination test, under-microscopy: atypical lymphocytes (T-cell)
Infectious mononucleosis
212
Disease appears as atypical lymphocyte ( similar to monocytes )
Infectious mononucleosis
213
⬆️ ESR { erythrocyte sedmhnation rate } in case of ____ .
Auto-immune disease
214
Parvovirus B-19 in normal child cause :
Erythema infectiosum
215
Parvovirus B-19 in normal adult cause :
Acute systemic arthropathy
216
Green sputum , blue-green pigment , septic shock, capsulated bacilli :
Pseudomonas
217
Contact with sheep may lead to transmission of which disease :
B.anthrax
218
Cirumoral polar, lace-like erthematous rash on face and trunk , slapped cheeks :
Erythema infectiosum
219
Rash of Erythema infectious cause by :
Local immune complex deposition
220
Parvovirus b19 attach to___ that foun in the erythroid progenitor cell surface .
P-Ag
221
Destruction of p-Ag that found in erythroid progenitor cells surface by parvovirus B-19 lead to :
Aplastic anemia
222
Which type of anemia cause by parvovirus B-19 ?
Aplastic anemia
223
If only anti-HBs (+) it mean :
Vaccinated
224
If Anti-HBs (+) with another Antibodies present it refer to
Recovery
225
HBV progress to chronic form after ___.
6 months
226
Increase viral load, (-) antiHBs , (+) HBe AG, (+) IgG, (-) IgM =
chronic HBV
227
HBe Ag refer to ____.
Viral replication
228
____fungi, it mean certain temperature has specific form, other temperature has another form .
Dimorphic fungi
229
Eg, for dimorphic fungi :
1. Blastomycosis’ 2. Sporotrichosis
230
Cigar-shaped fungi, rosettes of candida , lymphangitis , dimorphic :
Sporotrichosis
231
1.HIV + multiple enhanced lesion = 2.HIV + solitary enhanced lesion =
1.HIV + multiple enhanced lesion =cerebral toxoplasmosis 2.HIV + solitary enhanced lesion =primary cerebral lymphoma
232
HIV + ⬆️opening pressure of lumbar puncture +normal MRI =
Cryptoccus meningitis
233
Dacrilitis
Painful swelling of fingers
234
Childrens with sickle cell anemia all of them have :
Autosplenoctomy
235
Yellow sclerae =
⬆️ bilirubin (in hemolytic anemia. )
236
Dacritis , pain crisis, low haemoglobin level =
Sickle cell anemia
237
Children with sickle cell disease exposure to encapsulated organism due to :
Autosplenoctomy, the spleen responsible fore clearance of blood from the bacteria, therefore this childrens have deficiency in “ bacterial clearance “
238
Solitary , round pink colored plaque with ulcerated centre:
Cutaneus Leishmaniasis
239
Leishmania diagnosis by
Skin biopsy
240
skin biopsy show macrophage with amastigotes, what’s the organism ?
Leishmania
241
Influenza virus vaccine against. :
Hemagglutinin
242
H-influenza vaccine against. :
Poly-ribosylribitol phosphate
243
Erythema multiform cause by
1. HSV 2. M.pneumonia
244
Erythema migrans cause by
Lyme disease
245
Erythema infectiousm cause by
Parvovirus B-19
246
Erythema marginatum cause by
Rheumatic fever
247
Erythema nodusum cause by
1.Sarcoidosis 2. Coccidiodiomycosis
248
Child with Maculopapular rash in whole the body, crusted lesion, vesicles =\
Chicken pox
249
Calamice lotion use for
Chickenpox
250
Treatment of measles rash :
Vitamin A therapy
251
Rapid strep test for :
Scarlet fever
252
Tzanck test for
HSV
253
Bacteria composed of the VI-Ag :
Salmonella
254
Acute diarrhrea + fecal mononuclear leukocytes :
Salmonella typhi
255
Non-sepatate hyphae with wide angle branching :
Mucor and rhizopus
256
Oval, budding yeast with pseudohyphae
Candida
257
Sepatate hyphae with acute angle branching
Aspergillius
258
Round yeast surrounded by buddy yeast cell
Paracoccidoidomycosis
259
HIV + CD4<50 + ⬆️cerebrospinal fluid =
JC virus
260
`greatest predisposing factor of candida albicanis :
Diabetes mellitus
261
Spaghetti under microscopy appears as :
Long hyphae
262
Meat balls under-microscopy appears as
Round yeast cell
263
Bacteriostatic drug cause aplastic anemia
Chlormphinicol
264
Which vaccine induce maximum immunological response( humeral & cell mediated ) :
Live attenuated vaccine
265
Killed vaccine activate only. :
Humeral immunity
266
Toxoid vaccine activate
Cell mediated immunity only
267
Diffuse flaccid bullae cause by :
SSSS
268
Rose spots
Typhoid fever
269
Petechial rash
E.coli
270
Petechial haemorrhage
N.meningitis
271
Infiltration of right lower lobe + narrow zone of green hemolysis without clearing =
S.pneumonia
272
Which factor cause “narrow zone of green hemolysis without clearing “
Polysaccharide capsule of s.pneumonia
273
Treatment of diphylobothrium
Praziquantel
274
Tap-worm cause vit B-12 deficiency, megaloblastic anemia, hyper-segmentation neutrophils, infect by ingestion of larvae in raw freshwater :
Diphylobothrium
275
Mechanism of paraziquentel
Cause severe spasm and paralysis of the worm muscle by “⬆️ Ca influx into the sarcoplasm
276
Virulence factor of N.menigitis :
Adhesive pilli
277
(-) anti-HCs Ab , (+) HCs Ag =
Acute HCV
278
1\3 of chronic hepatitis patient after several years { ±20 years ) will develop:
Liver cirrhosis
279
If someone who fully recovered from HBV, still have risk factor to hepatic cell carcinoma ?
Yes, due to the DNA material of HBV integrated with hepatocytes, and it still after recovery .
280
Parasite cause infectious mononucleosis
Toxoplasma
281
Child younger than 2 years, particularly vulnerable to septic arthritis due to :
H-influnza
282
Whats the serum marker that present during the window period of HBV ?
IgM anti-HBc Ag
283
HBc Ag have two types of Ab :
1. IgM :acute infection 2. IgG : chronic infection
284
Do the child who acquired HBV during the birth have elevated liver enzyme ?
No, due to underdeveloped immune system
285
Red itchy eye + swelling around them =
Conjunctivitis
286
Small lesion with white centre
Koplic spot
287
Tender left epi-trochlear lymphoma cause by
HSV-1
288
Malaria relapse infection by
Hypnozoites
289
Scleral icterus =
Jaundice
290
Hepatomegaly + scleral icterus =
HBV
291
Essential step of replication of HBV by :
Reverse transcriptase
292
Rash on foot and hand + several superfacial ulcer on buccal mucosa and soft plate =
Hand-foot-mouth disease
293
Diffuse expiratory wheezes +rhinorrhrea + cough + difficult breathing +infect children <2
RSV
294
HDV required ___ of HBs Ag to penetration of hepatocytes
Coating
295
Coating of viral particle =
Superinfection
296
HIV cause esophagitis by 3 organisms :
1. Candida{ most common} 2. CMV 3. HSV-1
297
Pharyngeal hyperaemia + linear ulcer =
CMV esophagitis
298
Mononuclear Ab against cell surface complement receptor CD 21
EBV
299
Enveloped glycoprotein {GP} of EBV called
GP-350
300
GP-350 of EBV bind to
CD-21 {CR2}
301
Concentration dependent killing :
1. Aminoglycosides 2. Fluroguinolone
302
Time dependent killing :
B-lactamase drugs
303
Treatment of bacteriods
Zosyn (peperacillin +tazobactam )
304
Lopinavir can’t used as mono-therapy due to
Developing resistance very quickly + metabolic complication( hyperglycemia, dyslipidemia, insulin resistance…)
305
Bioavailability of IV drugs
100%
306
____ and____ uses for disinfected agent.
Ethanol and isopropanol
307
Mechanism of ethanol and isopropanol :
1. Destruction of cell membrane by destruction of lipid structure of cell membrane. 2. Denaturation of protein
308
Normal concentration of ethanol and isopropanol :
60%-90% { 70% the best}
309
Drug cause hepatitis (hepatotoxicity )
TB medication
310
Drug cause myopathy
1. Daptomycin 2. Integrase inhibitor
311
Drug cause Pancrititis
NRTIs (ddi)
312
Antibiotics disintegrate rapidly when placed in hypotonic solution :
Cell wall inhibitor antibiotics
313
Drug that cause hearing loss ( ototoxicity )
1. Aminoglycosides 2. Vancomycin
314
Drug cause esophagitis
Tetracycline
315
Drug cause tendon rapture
Fluroquinolone
316
Transplantation + immune suppressive therapy, it’s risk factor for
CMV
317
1st line to treatment of CMV :
Ganciclovir