Gram (+) Bacteria Flashcards

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1
Q

Staphylococcus aureus -inflammatory diseases

A

APOE-3S

  1. hepatic abscess
  2. pneumonea
  3. osteomylitis
  4. endocarditis
  5. surgical infection
  6. supporative parotitis
  7. septic arthritis
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2
Q

S.aureus toxic mediated diseases

A
  1. Toxic shock sendrome
  2. scalded skin syndrome
  3. Rapid onest food poisoning
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3
Q

General diseases of s.aureus

A
  1. Inflammatory
  2. toxic mediated
  3. MRSA
  4. VRSA
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4
Q

S,aureus virulence

A

Protein A

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5
Q

Supporative parotits risk factor (4)

A
  1. medication: anticholenergic
  2. obstruction: neoplasm, calculi
  3. dehhydration
  4. intubation
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6
Q

Diagnosis of suppurative parotits in adult

A

Elevated serum amylase

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7
Q

MRSA resistance to:

A
  1. oxa-cillin
  2. mithi-cillin
  3. naf-cillin
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8
Q

Which bacteria produce adherent biofilm and infects prosthetic devices and IV catheters?

A

S.epidermidis

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9
Q

Most common cause of endocarditis in patient with artificial valves?

A

S.epidermidis

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10
Q

Treatment of infection by s.epidermidis( 2 types)

A
  1. Vancomycin

2. Replacment of infected devices

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11
Q

Most common cause of nosocomial bloodstream infection(the first 4)

A
  1. S.epidermis
  2. S.aureus
  3. Enterococcus
  4. candida
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12
Q

Which bacteria found normally in flora of genital tract and perinum of female?

A

Staph. Saprophyticus

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13
Q

Most and secode common cause of UTI in sxually active young female?

A
  1. E.coli

2. Staph.saprophyticus

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14
Q

Cause of Infective endocarditis after colon cancer

A

S.bovis

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15
Q

Cause of infective endocarditis after colonoscopy(GU procedures)?

A

Enterococci

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16
Q

S.pneumonia virulence

A
  • CIPT
    1. capsule
    2. IgA protease
    3. peptidoglycan
    4. teichoic acid
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17
Q

Most common cause of MOPSS

A

S.pneumonia

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18
Q

2 types of vaccine for s.pneumonea

A
  1. for adult PPV

2. for pediatric PCV

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19
Q

S.viridans virulence

A

Biofilm production

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20
Q

S.virdans diseases

A
  1. dental caries

2. subacute bacterial endocarditis

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21
Q

Biofilm of s.viridans cand adhere to two site :

A
  1. Tooth enamel

2. fibrin platelet aggrigates on damaged heart valves

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22
Q

General virulence of s.pyogenes

A
  1. evasion
  2. invasion
  3. adherence
  4. toxin
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23
Q

Evasion virulence of s.pyogenes

A

MHSS

  1. M-protein
  2. lyaluronic acid
  3. streptolysin o
  4. Streptolysin s
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24
Q

Invasion virulence of s.pyogenes

A
  1. strepto-dor-nas (DNase)
  2. streptokinase
  3. Hyaloronicdase
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25
Q

Adhesion of s.pyogenes by?

A

Protein F

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26
Q

Toxin of s.pyrogenes

A
  1. pyrogenic exotoxin

2. lipoteichoic acid

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27
Q

Types and the disease that causes by pyrogenic toxin of s.pyrogenes

A
  1. sepA and sepC cause toxic shock like syndrome

2. sepB cause necrotizing fasciitis

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28
Q

Pyogenic diseases of s.pyogenes

A
  1. pharyngitis
  2. cellulitis
  3. impetigo (honey crusted lesion)
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29
Q

Toxigenic disease of s.pyogenes

A
  1. Scarlet fever
  2. Toxic shock like syndrome
  3. necrotizing fasciitis
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30
Q

Immunologic diseases of s.pyogenes

A
  1. reumatic fever

2. acute postsreptococcal glomerlunephritis

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31
Q

Which disease cause the following symptomes:

Sandpaper like body rash, strawberry tongue, circumoral pallor

A

Scarlet fever

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32
Q

Rheumatic fever symptomes

A

J❤️NES

  1. joint-polyarthritis
  2. carditis
  3. nodules
  4. erthema marginatum
  5. sydenhman chorea(سيدي نعمان كوري)
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33
Q

Diagnosis of s.pyogenes

A
  1. ASO

2. Anti-DNase

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34
Q

Which bacteria produce CAMP factor

A

S.agalactiae

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35
Q

Which bacteria cause pneumonia, memingitis and sepsis mainly in babies?

A

S.agalactiae

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36
Q

Prophylaxis of s.agalactiae

A

Intrapartum penicillin

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37
Q

Which bacteria cause subacute endocarditis assosiated with colon cancer

A

S.bovis

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38
Q

Which bacteria colonizing the gut

A

S.bovis

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39
Q

S.agalactia where we can found it?

A

Vagina

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40
Q

MAP kinase enzyme that important for cell proliferation, inhibition of this enzyme lead to cell necrosis -cell death.
Which factor can cleavage MAP kinase enzyme ?

A

Lethal factor: that act as protease

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41
Q

Lethal factor release by which bacteria?

A

B.anthracs

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42
Q

SNARE it’s responsible for transporting of GABA and glycin. Whcih toxin can cleavage it ?

A
  1. Tetanospasmin

2. Botulinum tixn

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43
Q

The main two symptomes of infective endocarditis :

A

Fever, murmur

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44
Q

Which bacteria can cause Actin polymerization ?

A

Shigella

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45
Q

Which bacteria can cause Actin depolymerization ?

A
  1. C.difficle

2. Listeria

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46
Q

Dental caries bacteria :

A
  1. S.viridance

2. Actinomyces

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47
Q

Which toxin inhibit\damage the cytoskeleton integrate ?

A

Toxin B (Cyto-toxin) of c.difficile

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48
Q

Which toxin inhibit cell membrane integrate ?

A

Alphatoxin (c.perifiringes)

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49
Q

What’s the chemical element that can inhibit mitochondrial energy production?

A

Cyanide poisoning

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50
Q

Which toxin inhibit rebosomal protein synthesis ?

A

Shiga toxin

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51
Q

Acid fast bacteria

A

Nocardia, mycobacterium

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52
Q

What’s the satellite phenomenon?

A

When S.aureus breakdown the blood( hematin formation), influnza utilized the hematin to grow. This process called satellite phenomenon.

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53
Q

Which bacteria have polyribitol phosphate capsule ?

A

H-influnza type B

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54
Q

Which bacteria have Diglotanate capsule. ?

A

B. Anthracs

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55
Q

Prophylaxis of meningitis by ?

A

Rifampicin

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56
Q

Bacteria that cause atypical pneumonia :

A
  1. Mycoplasma
  2. Chlymidia
  3. Legionella
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57
Q

The most common cause of brain infection:

A

Pseudomonas

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58
Q

Which diseases transmitteds by Cat :

  1. Bite
  2. Feces
  3. Scratch
A
  1. Bite - pasturella
  2. Faces- c.jijuni
  3. Scratch -bartonella
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59
Q

Which bacteria can cause cellulitis ?

A
  1. S.pyogens
  2. S.aureus
  3. Vibro parahemolyticus
60
Q

Which bacteria cause gastroenteritis after eating seafood ?

A

Vibro parahemolyticus

61
Q

Tampling motile bacteria

A

Listeria

62
Q

Organism that can cause Culture (-) endocarditis:

A
  1. Bartonella
  2. Coxiella
  3. Eicenella
63
Q

The most common cause of tricuspid endocarditis in intravenous drug users :

A
  1. S.aureus

2. Pseudomonas

64
Q

Skin infection by s.aureus called :

A

Bullous impetigo

65
Q

Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza A virus can cause by

A
  1. Strp.pneumonia
  2. Staph.aureus
  3. H-influenza
66
Q

Mechanism of protein A of s.aureus :

A

Bind to Fc-IgG, inhibit complement activation and phagocytosis .

67
Q

Eepidermolytic toxin A and B of scalded skin syndrome against :

A

Desmoglein-1 in stratum granulosum

68
Q

What’s Nikolsky’s sign ?

A

Nikolsky sign is a skin finding in which the top layers of the skin slip away from the lower layers when rubbed.

69
Q

Function of desmoglein :

A
  1. Maintain tissue integrity.

2. Facilitates cell–cell communication.

70
Q

Rapid onset food poisoning cause by ingestion of :

A

Performed toxin

71
Q

Why the MRSA resistance to methicillin and nafcillin ?

A

Due to altered of PBP

72
Q

Treatment of MRSA :

A
  1. Vancomycin
  2. Daptomycin
  3. Linezolid
  4. Doxycycline
  5. Tigecycline
  6. Ceftraoline
73
Q

Treatment of VRSA:

A

Streptogramins :

  1. Quinupristin
  2. Dalfopristin
74
Q

Most common of endocarditis in patient with artificial valve

A

S.epidermis

75
Q

Diplococci bacteria :

A
  1. Gram(+)- s.pneumonia

2. Gram (-) -nesseria

76
Q

Sepsis that cause by s.pneumonia present in which patients :?

A
  1. Sickle cell disease

2. Asplenic patient

77
Q

The most common cause of MOPSS

A

S.pneumonia

78
Q

Protein M and protein A function

A
  1. Inhibit complement activation

2. Inhibit phagocytosis

79
Q

Mechanism of hyaluronic acid capsule

A

Inhibit phagocytosis

80
Q

Function of streptolysin O and streptolysin S

A

Lyses of RBC and PMNs

81
Q

The different between streptolysin O and streptolysin S?

A
  1. Streptolysin O: immunologic ( the immune system produce Ab against it “anti-streptolysin O “).
  2. Streptolysin S: non-immunologic
82
Q

Function of streptodoranase (DNase) :

A

Degrades DNA in pus to facilitate spread of the organism .

83
Q

Function of streptokinase :

A

Converts plasminogen to plasmin by phosphorylation it

84
Q

Protein F function

A

Adhesion

85
Q

Types of pyogenic exotoxin of s.pyogenes

A
  1. SepA: “superAG”
  2. SepB :protease
  3. SepC: superAG
86
Q

Toxic shock like syndrome cause by which types of toxin

A

Pyrogenic toxin : sepA & sepC

87
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis (الكبار بالعمر لبنامو على ظهرهن وبتحركوش) cause by which type of toxin

A

Pyrogenic toxin: sepB

88
Q

Lipoteichoic acid cause

A

Septic shock

89
Q

Pharyngitis can result in :

A
  1. Rheumatic fever

2. Glomerlunephritis (APSGN)

90
Q

Aschoff body present in which disease

A

Rheumatic fever

91
Q

Causes of nonbullous impetigo

A
  1. S.aureus (more common )

2. S.pyogenes (less common )

92
Q

Which disease have honey crusted lesions as clinical features ?

A

Nonbullous impetigo

93
Q

Acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis occurs two weeks after :

A
  • Pharyngitis or impetigo
94
Q

Disease that characterised by “pain out of proportion “ :

A
  1. Necrtotizing facilities

2. compartmental syndrome

95
Q

Prophylaxis of pregnant woman that carrier to group B streptococci :

A

Intrapartum penicillin G or ampicillin

96
Q

Which gram + cocci colonizes the gut ?

A

S.bovis

97
Q

Which gram(+) bacteria is variable hemolysis -that form green area hemolysis

A

Enterococci

98
Q

Types of enterococci resistance to antibodies

A
  1. Intrinsic : beta-lactams, macrolids, aminoglycoides , TMP-SMX
  2. Aquired (VRE): vancomycin
99
Q

Which bacteria show medusa head in colonies ?

A

Aanathracs

100
Q

The only bacteria with polypeptide capsule (deglutinate capsule ):

A

Anathracs

101
Q

Polypeptide capsule contains:

A

D-glutamate

102
Q

Lethal factor cleaves of

A

MAP kinase

103
Q

Which disease transmitted by goat hair

A

Cuteness anthrax

104
Q

Treatment of anthraces diseases

A
  1. Ciprofloxacin

2. Doxycycline

105
Q

Woolsorter’s disease

A

Pulmonary anthrax disease that transmitted via inhalation of spores

106
Q

Which disease cause by anthrax present with hemorrhagic mediastinitis

A

Pulmonary anthraxs

107
Q

Which bacteria have tennis racket shape

A

Clostridia

108
Q

C.tetani found in

A

Soil

109
Q

Tetansospasmin travel to CNS via :

A

Retrograde axonal transport

110
Q

Shape of diphtheria

A

Club shape

111
Q

Diphtheria characters ?

A

Chinese characters

  1. V-shape.
  2. Y-shape.
112
Q

The cytoplasm of diphtheria contains :

A

Meta-chromatin granules

113
Q

Diphtheria toxin encoded by

A

B-prophage

114
Q

Mechanism of diphtheria toxin

A

Inhibit protein synthesis via ADP-ribosylation of EF-2

115
Q

Diphtheria disease transmitted via

A

Respiratory droplets

116
Q

Symptoms of diphtherial. Disease

A
  1. Pseudomembranous pharyngitis ( greyish-white membrane ).
  2. Lymphadenopathy (bull-neck).
  3. Myocarditis (cardiomyopathy the most common cause of death )
  4. Neuritis
117
Q

the most common cause of death of diphtherial disease. :

A

Cardiomyopathy

118
Q

Mechanism of cardiomyopathy of diphtheria :

A

Removal of pseudomembranous pharyngitis of diphtheria lead to “ severe bleeding “, and separates the toxin to the heart and neural cell, when the toxin reach to the heart it bind to “Heparin-binding epidermal growth factor “, by B-subunit, after binding it can cause myocarditis that lead to cardiomyopathy and death.

119
Q

In which site in heart , the diphtheria toxin bind?

A

Heparin- binding epidermal growth factor

120
Q

What’s the phage ?

A

It’s virus especially for bacteria, that transports the DNA from bacteria to other.

121
Q

Types of phage :

A
  1. Lytic phage

2. Lysogenic phage

122
Q

Mechanism of lytic phage

A

Lysis the bacteria immediately after penetration it.

123
Q

Mechanism of lysogenic phage :

A
  • Penetrate the bacteria
  • Integrates with bacterial DNA
  • Bacterial cell “ Explode “.
  • lysogenic phage exit the bacteria and take flanking region from bacterial DNA(include toxigen)
  • Transporting of lysogenic phage to another bacteria and give the another bacteria the flanking region that cut it from the first one
124
Q

B-prophage of diphtheria which type of phage ?

A

Lysogenic phage

125
Q

Elongation factor-2 responsible for :

A

Translocation of rRNA

126
Q

EF-2 inhibit by :

A

ADP-ribosylation

127
Q

Which bacteria inhibit EF-2

A
  1. Diphtheria

2. Pseudomonas

128
Q

Diphtheria test :

A

Elek test

129
Q

Elek test check :

A

If the diphtheria toxigenic or non-toxigenic

130
Q

Treatment of diphtheria :

A
  1. Diphtheria antitoxin: ( Ig ) for neutralization of diphtherial toxin .
  2. Antibiotics : erythromycin or penicillin
  3. DPT vaccine
131
Q

Diphtheria antitoxin have no effects in case of :

A

If the toxin attached to the neural and heart cells .

132
Q

TB virulence

A
  1. Cord factor: activate macrophage , induces release of TNF-alpha
  2. Slufatide: inhibit phagolysosomal fusion
133
Q

Gonorrhoea in women can cause

A

Ectopic pregnancy

134
Q

When occurs the neonatal conjunctivitis ?

A

In the first 5 days of life

135
Q

Virulence of H-influenza :

A
  1. IgA potease

2. Polysaccharide capsule (PRP)

136
Q

Malignant otitis externa seen in

A

Elderly diabetic patient

137
Q

What’s seen within the ear canal in case of malignant otitis extgerna ?

A

Granulation tissue

138
Q

Progression of malignant otitis externa can lead to

A
  1. Osteomyelitis

2. Cranial nerve damage

139
Q

Typhoid fever cause by

A

Salmonella typhi

140
Q

The most common cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease

A
  1. S.aureus

2. Salmonella

141
Q

Which bacteria can proliferation in mesenteric lymph node ?

A
  1. Yerisina

2. Salmonella

142
Q

Triple of H.pylori :

A
  1. Catalase +
  2. Oxidase +
  3. Urease +
143
Q

H.pylori colonizes in

A

Antrum of stomach

144
Q

Salmonella typhi colonizied in

A

Gallbladder

145
Q

Screening test of syphilis

A

PRP of VDRL

146
Q

Confirmatory test of syphilis

A

FTA-ABS