Q&A Thorax and Abdomen Flashcards
1
Q
What are the two major parts of a typical vertebra?
A
Body and arch
2
Q
What is an intervertebral foramen?
A
Opening between adjacent vertebrae allowing passage of the spinal nn.
3
Q
How do ribs articulate with the thoracic vertebrae?
A
Head articulates with bodies of contiguous vertebrae and the tubercle articulates with the transverse process of same numbered
4
Q
What is the name of the space between two adjacent ribs?
A
Intercostal space (ICS)
5
Q
What do the costal cartilages of the last sternal and all asternal ribs form?
A
Costal arch
6
Q
What are the first and last sternebrae?
A
Manubrium and xiphoid, respectively
7
Q
What caps the xiphoid process?
A
Xiphoid cartilage
8
Q
what thoracic vertebrae usually has the most vertically oriented spine?
A
Anticlinal vertebrae, usually T11 in dog
9
Q
How is inspiration accomplished?
A
Increased size of thorax decreases pressure = air rushes in
10
Q
What is the main respiratory muscle?
A
Diaphragm
11
Q
Name the 2 muscles extending between adjacent ribs.
A
External and internal intercostal mm.
12
Q
What is the opening into the thorax?
A
Thoracic inlet
13
Q
What forms the thoracic inlet?
A
1st thoracic vertebra, right and left 1st ribs and sternum
14
Q
What palpable structure is formed by the costal cartilages of the false ribs?
A
Costal arch
15
Q
What divides the thorax into two spaces?
A
Mediastinum
16
Q
Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity?
A
(2nd) 3rd to (5th) 6th intercostal space (ICS) in the bottom 2/3rds of the cavity
17
Q
Which side of the aorta does the thoracic esophagus normally cross?
A
Right side of the aortic arch
18
Q
What covers the trachea in the cranial neck?
A
Only strap muscles (sternohyoideus and sternothyroideus mm)
19
Q
What part of the trachea splits into right and left primary bronchi?
A
Tracheal biforcation
20
Q
What separates lobes of the lungs?
A
Interlobar fissures
21
Q
What is the opening between the lobes of the lung where the surgeon’s pericardium comes in contact with the thoracic wall?
A
Cardiac notch
22
Q
What do radiologists call the pulmonary trunk?
A
Main pulmonary artery/segment, MPA
23
Q
What is the mediastinum?
A
Space or wall (depending on text read, wall makes parietal work for the pleura) separating the thoracic cavity into 2 cavities and thus, separating the 2 pleural cavities
24
Q
What are the divisions of the mediastinum?
A
Cranial, middle (contains heart), and caudal (all divided into dorsal and ventral parts)
25
List the parts of the pericardium.
Fibrous pericardium, serous pericardium (visceral and parietal parts)
26
What is located in the pericardial cavity?
scant amount of serous fluid only
27
which side of the heart is part of the pulmonary circulation?
Right side: pulmonary side
28
The left side of the heart is part of what circulation and why?
Systemic circulation, pumps blood to body
29
What side of the heart is the right ventricle on? Left ventricle?
Right: cranial (right, cranial, and left sides); left: caudal
30
What is the vestigial, fetal connection form the pulmonary trunk to the aorta?
Ligamentum arteriosum
31
What is the most caudoventral part of the heart? Is it on the right or left?
Apex, left
32
What is the adult remnant of the fetal foramen ovale?
Fossa ovale
33
What separates the atria?
Interatrial septum
34
Name the wall separating the 2 ventricles.
Interventricular (IV) septum
35
Which ventricle has a thinner wall and why?
Right, less strength needed to reach lungs
36
Name the three layers of the heart.
Endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium
37
What are the valves of the heart?
Right and left atrioventricular (AV); aortic and pulmonic valves (semilunar valves)
38
What is the function of the AV valves?
Prevent back flow into the atria during ventricular contraction
39
What is the function of the semilunar valves?
Prevent return to heart during diastole
40
What abnormal sounds are caused by blood flow turbulence in the heart?
Murmurs
41
What are the three parts of the conduction system of the heart?
Sinoatrial node (SA) (pacemaker), atrioventricular (AV) node, and atrioventricular bundle branches
42
What is the term for ventricular contraction and relaxation?
Ventricular systole, ventricular diastole
43
How do diastole and systole relate to the heart sounds?
Systole: between 1st and 2nd sounds, Diastole: between 2nd and 1st heart sounds
44
What do the 1st and 2nd hearts sounds sound like and roughly represent?
1st ("lub"): closure of AV valves (start of systole),2nd ("dub"): closure of semilunar valve (diastole)
45
What causes closure and opening of the AV and semilunar valves?
Opening: AV: diastole; Semilunar: systole. -Closure: AV: systole; Semilunar: diastole
46
What does the recoil of the elastic aorta at the end of systole cause?
Pushes blood to body and back toward the heart, closing aortic valve and filling the coronary arteries
47
How is the esophagus normally related to the arch of the aorta?
To the right of the arch or aorta
48
What arteries travel up the neck to supply the head and face?
Common carotid aa.
49
What artery travels on the floor of the thorax?
Internal thoracic a.
50
What vessels and nerves travel in the intercostal spaces caudal to the ribs?
Intercostal a., v., and n.
51
What three fetal structures bypass the lungs and liver?
Ductus arteriosus, ductus venosus, and foramen ovale
52
Where does the ductus arteriosus shunt most of the blood in the right ventricle from the pulmonary to the systemic circulation?
From the pulmonary trunk and aorta (2 aa.)
53
What in the adult is a remnant of the following structures? Ductus arteriosus, Foramen ovale,Umbilical arteries, Umbilical veins
Ductus arteriosus--ligamentum arteriosum; Foramen ovale--oval fossa or fossa oval; Umbilical arteries--round ligaments of urinary bladder;Umbilical veins--round ligament of liver
54
What is the large lymphatic channel draining the caudal animal?
Thoracic duct (from abdomen, pelvis, and pelvic limb)
55
What lymph nodes are near the bifurcation of the trachea?
Tracheobronchial lymph nodes
56
What is the lymphatic structure in the cranial mediastinum?
Cranial mediastinal lymph node
57
What is the large nerve crossing the heart to the diaphragm?
Phrenic n.
58
What is the branch of the vagus that returns to the neck? Where is it located in the thorax on the left and right sides?
Recurrent laryngeal nerve; Lt: around the arch of the aorta, Rt: around right subclavian artery
59
What does the recurrent laryngeal nerve innervate? Which is clinically important in dogs and horses with laryngeal paralysis?
Most laryngeal skeletal muscles; Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis m.
60
What supplies cutaneous innervation to the top of the thoracic and abdominal walls?
Both the dorsal and ventral branches of the spinal nn. in the thoracic and lumbar region
61
What is the parasympathetic innervation to the thorax?
Vagus nerve
62
What are the two series of connected ganglia lying on either side of the bodies of the thoracolumbar vertebrae and longus colli muscle?
Sympahtetic trunk (chain)
63
Which way do the motor fibers travel in the vagosympathetic trunk?
Sympathetic toward the head, vagus away from the head
64
What is a serosa (serous membrane)?
A thin, continuous membrane lining a closed cavity and covering the cavity's organs
65
What are the serous membranes of the pericardial cavity, thorax, abdomen, and spermatic cord called respectively?
Pericardial: pericardium; Thorax: pleura; Abdomen: peritoneum; Spermatic cord: vaginal tunics
66
What serosa covers walls of a cavity?
Parietal serosa
67
What serosa covers an organ?
Visceral serosa
68
What connects parietal and visceral or visceral with visceral serosa?
Connecting serosa
69
What is the serosa lining the thoracic cavity?
Pleura
70
Are the lungs located in the pleural cavities?
No, just a scant amount of serous fluid
71
What is the line of pleural reflection?
Point costal pleura reflects onto diaphragm
72
What is the plural cupula?
Cranial pleural sac extending out through the thoracic inlet
73
How should VD/DV and lateral films be placed on viewing screen?
DV/VD: Right side to you left in both; Lateral: Cranial side to the left
74
What does a R or L marker on different film views indicate?
Lateral trunk: right or left lateral=side on cassette
75
Lateral trunk (thorax or abdomen), DV or VD films, One limb in film
DV or VD: side of animal, one limb: limb in film
76
How are thoracic films evaluated for rotation?
Lateral: costochondral junctions and shoulder joints-same level, -VD and DV: sternum and spinal column superimposed
77
What structure is used to tell an expiratory from an inspiratory film?
Position of diaphragm
78
Once you have picked a method to evaluate films, what should you do each time you evaluate a film?
Always read in the same manner (every time!)-get into a routine
79
What is the cranial limit of the abdomen?
Diaphragm
80
Can you visualize the sides of the diaphragm?
Cranial: yes as contrasted air (lungs); Caudal: no, against water densities (liver and stomach)
81
What is the junction between the two crura?
Intercrural cleft
82
What mediastinal structures are normally seen in the lateral view?
Trachea, aorta, heart in the pericardium, caudal vena cava
83
What mediastinal structures can be seen the VD view?
Heart in the pericardium, caudal vena cava, left edge of the descending aorta
84
Is the esophagus usually visible on radiograph? When is it visible?
No, only if it contains swallowed air or contrast material
85
What is the thick dark line in lateral radiograph of the cranial mediastinum?
Trachea
86
What is the dark oval over the heart base in a lateral radiograph?
Tracheal bifurcation, "carina"
87
The trachea normally makes a _____ angle to the vertebral column in a lateral view.
15 degrees
88
Which way does a megaesophagus displace the trachea and heart?
Ventrally
89
Name a dilation of caudal cervical and thoracic esophagus.
Megaesophagus.
90
What is the line caused by the air in a megaesophagus and air in trachea contrasting the adjacent walls of the two structures?
Tracheal-esophageal stripe.
91
What is the name for the VD appearance of a megaesophagus as it passes caudally to the diaphragm?
Esophageal cone
92
What are the 2 continuations of the trachea into the lungs?
Main stem bronchi or primary bronchi
93
Which is the most ventral (dependent/handing down) of the bronchi?
Right middle bronchus
94
What are the normal longitudinal water densities in the lungs?
Pulmonary vessels, not bronchi
95
What is a lobar bronchus and associated lobar pulmonary artery and vein?
Pulmonary triad
96
What is the normal relative size of the artery and vein of a pulmonary triad?
About the same size
97
Veins are always ______ and _______ (______) to the arteries of pulmonary triads in the lateral and DV views respectively.
Ventral and Central (medial)
98
In the DV/VD films, what is the position of the lobar arteries to the caudal lungs?
4 and 8 o'clock positions
99
What conditions will result in visible lung fissures (lobular pattern)?
Collapsed lungs or pleural fluid and pleural thickenings
100
How many left lung lobes are there anatomically and radiographically?
Anatomically - 2; Radiographically - 3
101
The cranial lobe of the _______ lung is seen in front of the cranial lobe of the _______ lung on a lateral view as a separate round air filled structure.
Left, right
102
What is located in the normal pleural space?
only a little fluid
103
What is the cranial extent of the pleural cavity?
Pleural cupula
104
The pleural cupula normally extends cranially past the _____ ______.
First rib
105
What is located between the vessels of the lungs?
Interstitium, parenchyma
106
For what should the parenchyma of the lungs be evaluated?
Increase (more radiopaque) or decrease (more radiolucent) opacity
107
Why don't you see the chambers of the heart in survey radiographs?
Heart is muscle, chambers filled with blood (both water densities)
108
Since you can't see the chambers of the heart in survey radiographs how do you evaluate the heart?
Evaluate the borders or silhouette
109
What are the lateral radiographic location of the different compartments of the heart listed below :1.right ventricle;2.left ventricle 3.caudal heart
1:descending aorta 2.dorsal thorax-well seen 3.lower part of cranial edge
110
What is usually all that can be seen of the cranial vena cava in the lateral projection?
ventral edge
111
Tell if the structures are seen and where they are located in a DV/VD view: 1.Caudal vena cava 2.Right ventricle 3.Pulmonary trunk 4.Left ventricle 5.Apex 6.Descending aorta
1.Caudal vena cava: yes; right side, heart to diaphragm 2.Right ventricle: yes; right side of heart, 3.Pulmonary trunk: yes; cranial/left side of heart; 4.Left ventricle:yes; caudal half of heart Left ventricle:yes; caudal half of heart 5.Apex: yes; pointing to left 6.Descending aorta: yes; left lateral edge
112
On what side of a DV view is the caudal vena cava seen? VD view?
right, right
113
What part of the DV silhouette does the right ventricle make up?
Right side from apex around cranial side to cranial left side
114
The left atrium is over the _______ heart directly above the left ventricle. It is located just caudal to the _______ _______.
Caudal, tracheal bifurcation
115
On what side of the heart is the apex, a radiographic landmark, located?
Left
116
How does the descendign aorta appear in a DV view?
A line to left=left edge of aorta
117
What is the normal amount of sternal contact of the heart?
3 sternebrae (rule of thumb)
118
What is found on the VD/DV and lateral views at each time area according to the clock faced analogy? 1. 2-6 o'clock 2. 5 o'clock 3.6-9 o'clock
1.Left ventricle 2.Apex 3.Right ventricle
119
What is found on the VD/DV at the 1-2 o'clock position on the clock faced analogy?
MPA/pulmonary trunk
120
List some problems needing thoracic radiographs.
Cough, heart problems, dyspnea, abnormal lung sounds, etc.
121
What is a radiographic indication of a diaphragmatic hernia?
Entire diaphragm can't be seen
122
When are the mediastinal lymph nodes visible?
When enlarged (i.e. lymphosarcoma, common in cats)
123
What is moving of the mediastinum to the right or left?
Mediastinal shift
124
What is the common term for bowing of the principal bronchi in VD and DV views?
Cowboy legs
125
Fluid or air in the pleural space will eliminate the _______ pressure of the space and cause the lungs to collapse away from the chest wall.
Negative
126
What is excess fluid in the pleural space?
Pleural effusions
127
What is the main radiographic sign of pleural effusion?
Separation of lungs and body wall allowing visualization of lugn borders and fissure lines
128
What are the 4 basic opaque lung patterns?
Interstitial, alveolar, peribronchiolar and vascular
129
What characterizes each of the opaque lung patterns?
interstitial: opaque lung, "fuzzy"; -Alveolar: air bronchogram; -Peribronchiolar: "donuts and tram lines"- Vascular: increased, decreased, or normal
130
What is the number one cause of an interstitial pattern?
expiratory film (normal)
131
Give two signs of a peribronchiolar pattern.
Perivascular cuffing; donuts ;tram lines
132
What should be the first thing that comes to mind when enlarged arteries of the lungs are seen?
Heart worm diease
133
What is fluid in the lungs?
Pulmonary edema
134
The increased radiographic opacity of pulmonary edema can be either a ______ or ______ pattern or both depending on where the fluid is.
Interstitial or alveolar
135
What is the mechanism of cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
Left heart failure backing up into lungs
136
Right ventricular enlargement is seen as a ______ bulging on the lateral view. This will cause the heart to have more ______ _______.
Cranial; sternal contact
137
On VD view, right ventricular enlargement will bulge to the right. How is this shape often referred to?
Backwards or reverse "D"
138
Give a cause of right ventricular enlargement.
Pulmonic stenosis and heart worm disease
139
What is a common radiographic finding of right ventricular enlargement on a lateral projection.
Increased sternal contact
140
What is a common finding of right ventricle enlargement on the DV projection?
Reversed "D" sign
141
What clinical condition should you think of if you see tortuous, dilated pulmonary arteries?
Heart worm disease
142
What are the three bumps seen on a DV view of a dog with PDA?
MPA, left auricle and aorta
143
What is a possible effect on the main stem bronchi in left atrial enlargement in a VD film?
Spread out ("cowboy legs")
144
List two most common findings of left atrial enlargement in the DV projection.
Auricle projects at 2-3 o'clock position; "cowboy legs"
145
What is the reflex arch for the panniculus response?
Sensation from skin of trunk over thoracic and lumbar spinal nn. to spinal cord, up cord to lateral thoracic n., out to cutaneous trunci m.
146
What is used clinically to evaluate the level of thoracic spinal cord damage?
Panniculus response
147
If the spinal cord damage is at the level of T10, where will the panniculus response not elicit a response?
Level of the 12th thoracic vertebra caudally. (segment 2 vertebrae cranial to level of skin because nerves pass caudoventrally)
148
What is the surgical opening of the thoracic cavity?
Thoracotomy
149
How is the vacuum of the pleural cavity regained when closing the thoracic wall?
Maximally inflate the lungs during last part of closure
150
Where is the intercostal space incised to open the thorax and why?
In center to avoid the vessels caudal to ribs
151
What vessels are of concern in midsternal thoracotomies?
Internal thoracic artery and vein
152
What is the term for segmental fractures of a number of sequential ribs causing the chest wall to move in during inspiration?
Flail chest
153
What is aspiration pneumonia?
Swallowing foreign material into the lungs and subsequent pneumonia
154
Which lobe is the most common site for aspiration pneumonia? What is the second most common lung lobe?
Right middle lobe (most dependent); cranial right lung lobe
155
To which lung lobe will a light, inhaled foreign body (grass awn), which moves by air flow and not gravity, tend to go?
Right caudal lobe, straight shot
156
What is chylothorax?
Lymph in the pleural cavity usually from a ruptured lymphatic vessel (thoracic duct)
157
What are three common locations of clinical blockage of the esophagus in the thorax?
Thoracic inlet, base of heart, esophageal hiatus of diaphragm (start of esophagus)
158
What is air in the mediastinum/
Pneumomediastinum
159
What is the surgeon's pericardium?
Sac opened to access epicardial covered heart
160
What is compression of the heart due to collection of blood or fluid in the pericardial sac?
Cardiac tamponade
161
What is done with the pericardium after open heart surgery?
Left unsutured or only loosely approximated ot avoid cardiac tamponade
162
Where does blood back up into when the right heart is damaged (clinical signs)?
Body (venae cavae (cranial and caudal)-ascites, jugular pulse)
163
What is ascites? What causes it?
Fluid in abdomen, caused by right heart failure
164
Where does blood back up into in left heart failure?
Lungs
165
What are cardiomyopathies?
Progressive cardiac disease
166
What is inflammation of the heart muscle?
Myocarditis
167
What parasite may reside in the right ventricle of the dog's heart?
Heartworms (dirofilariasis): adult round worms (nematodes-Dirofilaria immitis)
168
What is the normal blood pressure of the dog?
120/80
169
Define PRAA (Persistent right aortic arch).
Right instead of left 4th aortic arch becomes the aorta resulting in entrapment of the esophagus
170
What structures constrict the esophagus in a persistent right aortic arch?
Aorta, ligamentum arteriosum, pulmonary trunk, and base of heart
171
What is a clinical sign of a persistent right aortic arch?
Regurgitates undigested food when weaned to solid food as large particles can't get past this constriction
172
The constriction due to a persistent right aortic arch causes food to be stopped and the esophagus to balloon cranial to the ______ ____ ______.
Base of heart
173
How is a persistent right aortic arch treated?
Ligamentum arteriosum surgically isolated, ligated twice and cut between 2 ligatures
174
What is the difference between a congenital and a hereditary defect?
Congenital: present at birth, can be due to hereditary or environmental causes. Hereditary: passed on to offspring, may or may not be present at birth
175
What is a PDA?
Patent ductus arteriosus, a failure of the fetal ductus arteriosus (arterial duct) to close
176
What causes a washing machine murmur, and why?
PDA, continuous, thus, systolic and diastolic
177
How is a PDA treated?
Ends are tied off and cut between them if caught early
178
What would happen if a reversed PDA was tied off?
Blow out lungs, pressure above left ventricle
179
List the developmental anomalies making up Tetralogy of Fallot.
Pulmonic stenosis, overriding aorta, VSD, hypertrophy of right ventricle
180
What does cyanosis mean?
Bluish discoloration of tissues due to poor oxygenation
181
What are the three bumps seen on a DV view of a dog with PDA?
MPA, left auricle, and aorta
182
Of what is a patent ductus venosus an example?
Portosystemic shunt (bypasses liver)
183
What causes the sound heard as a heart murmur?
Blood flow turbulence
184
What are the two types of murmurs related to location heart cycle?
Diastolic or systolic murmurs
185
What causes valvular murmurs?
Leaky (insufficient) or narrowed (stenotic) valves
186
What could cause a systolic murmur?
Semilunar (aortic or pulmonic) stenosis, insufficiency (Left>right AV)
187
What can cause a diastolic murmur?
Semiliunar (aortic or pulmonic) insufficiency; or AV stenosis (very rare)
188
What is the clinical significance of the line of pleural reflection?
Demarcates the pleural from the peritoneal cavity
189
What is pleurocentesis/thoracocentesis?
Surgical puncture of the chest wall for drainage of fluid
190
Where is thoracocentesis done?
Middle of the 7th-8th intercostal space just dorsal to the costochondral junction
191
How can the pleural cupula be clinically important?
Can open the pleural cavity with and incision near the thoracic inlet
192
What is the term for inflammation of the pleura?
Pleuritis
193
Why is pneumothorax or pyothorax usually bilateral in carnivores?
Mediastinum is fenestrated (holes)
194
What is hyaline membrane disease?
Premature parturition before the lungs mature with insufficient surfactant produced
195
What is air or gas, pus or chyle in the pleural space?
Pneumothorax, pyothorax, chylothorax
196
In what could a tear in the thoracic part of the trachea result?
Pneumomediastinum
197
How can infections of the neck migrate to the thorax?
Down the deep fascia to the endothoracic fascia
198
What is the normal respiratory rate for dogs? Cats?
Dogs: 20 breaths/min; Cats: 25/min
199
How do the olecranon and the intercostal spaces relate when standing?
Olecranon at the 5th intercostal space or 5th rib
200
How far cranially does the dome of the diaphragm extend?
6th intercostal space just behind the olecranon/heart
201
Where is the heart located in relationship to the intercostal spaces and the arm muscles?
Between 2(3)-5(6) intercostal space, mostly under muscles
202
What is a memory aid for the heart valve's point of maximum intensity?
PAM 345, right AV: low 5th right
203
Outline how you auscultate the heart with a stethoscope.
1st locate the point of elbow (5th ICS), find Lt. AV: 5th ICS, move 1 ICS cranial and up; aortic, then 1 ICS cranial and up: pulmonic
204
What vessels should be considered when opening the thorax? How?
Internal thoracic aa. on thoracic floor of the thorax (don't cut near sternum); intercostal vessels and nn.: caudal to rib (cut in center of intercostal spaces)
205
Describe the cavity entered when inserting a needle to either side of the line of pleural reflection.
Craniodorsal=thorax 1st; caaudoventral=abdomen
206
Where is the basal border of the lung?
Roughly 1-2" craniodorsal to and parallel to the line of pleural reflection
207
What are the boundaries of the auxcultation triangle?
Cranial: caudal border of the triceps brachii m.; -dorsal: epaxial mm.; caudoventral: curved line from olecranon to next to the last dorsal intercostal space
208
Generally in relationship to what structure is a lung biopsy performed?
Craniodorsal to the basal border of the lung
209
How is cardiocentesis performed?
Into 5th ICS (intercostal space) (behind elbow) into palpated heartbeat
210
What is the location for thoracocentesis?
7th-8th ICS (intercostal space) at intercostal space level of the olecranon on right
211
what are the four quadrants of the abdomen?
right and left cranial, right and left caudal
212
what is the lateral part of the middle region of the abdomen?
flank
213
what are the inguinal regions?
lateral abdominal area next to the junction with thigh
214
what is the dorsal part of the flank region?
paralumbar fossa
215
where is the fundus of the stomach located?
left cranial/dorsal abdomen
216
how many mammar are generally present in the *****? cat?
usually 10 in dog, 8 in cat and small dogs
217
what are extra mammary glands called?
supernumerary mammary glands
218
generally where do the mammary glands lymphatics drain?
caudal: superficial inguinal ln.; cranial: to axillary ln (also accessory axillary if present sternal)
219
list the abdominal muscles from superficial to deep
external abdominal oblique (EAO), internal abdominal oblique (IAO), transverse abdominus, rectus abdominis (ventrally)
220
what is a flat thin tendon called?
aponeurosis
221
what is the caudal free edge of the aponeurosis of EAO extending from the tuber coxae around the iliopsoas muscle to the prepubic tendon?
inguinal ligament
222
what is the rectus sheath?
aponeuroses of the abdominal mm. around the rectus abdominis m., meet/fuse at the linea alba
223
which rectus sheath is most clinically important?
external rectus sheath
224
what passes through the openings of the diaphragm?
aortic: aorta, azygous, cisterna chyli/thoracic duct; Esophageal: esophagus, dorsal and ventral vagal trunks, Caval foramen: caudal vena cava
225
what is the motor nerve of the diaphragm?
phrenic nerve (somatic)
226
how does the cavity of the bony thorax relate to the thoracic cavity?
larger, dome of diaphragm extends into bony thorax to 6th intercostal space (encases abdomen)
227
what is the intrathoracic part of the abdominal cavity?
cranial part, protected by caudal ribs and costal cartilages
228
what is a directional terms for a part further from and closer to the mouth?
further: abroad, closer: orad
229
What are the two named curvatures of the stomach?
Greater and lesser curvature
230
What is the muscular sphincter surrounding the stomach's outflow?
Pylorus
231
List the parts of the stomach
Cardia, fundus, body, pylorus (pyloric antrim, pylorus, pyloric opening)
232
What is the least vascular part if the stomach?
Body between two curvatures
233
On which sides of the animal is the pylorus? The fundus?
Pylorus: right (as duodenum) and ventral, fundusvleft and dorsal
234
Which is more ventral the fundus or the pylorus of the stomach?
Pylorus
235
the descending duodenum is on what side of the abdomen?
right
236
list the parts of the small and large intestine?
small: duodenum, jejunum, ileum
large: cecum, colon (ascending, transverse, descending), rectum, and anal canal
237
on what side is the cecum located?
right side
238
to what are species differences in the large intestine due?
modification of the ascending colon
239
what is the opening of the ileum into the colon (not cecum)?
ileocolic (ileal) opening (orifice)
240
what is the course of the transverse colon in all domestic species?
right to left cranial to root of mesentery
241
on which side of the animal is the descending colon?
left, often called the left colon
242
where do the anal sacs open in the anal canal?
4 and 8 o'clock positions
243
where is the liver located?
cranial abdomen abutting diaphragm, almost completely intrathoracic
244
the renal impression is in which liver lobe? which side of liver?
caudate lobe (caudate process), right
245
what ligament attaches the liver to the stomach?
lesser omentum
246
the (common) bile duct enters the duodenum at the _____ along with the __________ duct
major duodenal papillae
| -pancreatic duct
247
list the parts of the pancreas and their locations
right limb: mesoduodenum, body: near pylorus; left limb: deep leaf greater omentum
248
where is the dorsal end of spleen located? ventral?
dorsal: on left (fixated to greater curvature)
ventral: variable
249
what is the elongated area of the spleen where vessels enter?
hilus
250
which arteries pass from the spleen to the fundus of the stomach?
short gastric aa.
251
what is an easy way to remember which kidney is more cranial or caudal?
right in renal impression of liver, or left is left behind
252
what is the expanded proximal end of ureters?
renal pelvis
253
where does urine drip from the kidney?
renal crest
254
which specie has capsular veins on the outside of its kidneys?
cat
255
what parts of the renal pelvis surround the pseudopapillae?
pelvic recesses/diverticulae
256
how do the ureters pass through the bladder wall and why?
oblique angle to prevent back flow
257
where is the trigone of the urinary bladder?
dorsal internal area between the two ureteral openings and opening of the urethra
258
what is a serous membrane?
a thin, continuous membrane lining a closed cavity of the obdy and covering its organs
259
name the serous membranes of the pericardium, thorax, abdomen, and vaginal process
serous pericardium; pleura; peritoneum; vaginal tunic
260
what serous membrane covers the walls of a cavity?
parietal (parietal means wall)
261
what serous membrane or serosa covers an organ?
visceral peritoneum (often just called serosa or peritoneum)
262
what serous membrane connects parietal and visceral or visceral with visceral serosa?
connecting
263
list three different types of peritoneum.
parietal, visceral, and connecting
264
list three or four types of connecting peritoneum
mesenteries, omenta, ligaments and folds
265
what peritoneum connects the liver and the ventral abdominal wall?
falciform ligamet
266
how many layers are in the different classifications of peritoneum?
parietal and visceral-1; connecting-2
267
what is the peritoneal cavity?
potential space between parietal and visceral peritoneum
268
what does retroperitoneal mean?
behind peritoneum
269
what are the two layers of the greater omentum?
superficial and deep leaves
270
what is the opening into the omental bursa from the peritoneal cavity?
epiploic (omental) foramen
271
how are mesenteries named?
meso + organ connected
272
what is the root of the mesentery?
attachment of the mesentery to the dorsal abdomen
273
name the 3 main unpaired branches of the abdominal aorta?
celiac a, cranial and caudal mesenteric arteries
274
what do the celiac, cranial and caudal mesenteric arteries supply?
viscera drained by portal vein
275
what are the three branches of the celiac artery?
hepatic, splenic, and left gastric
276
how do the jejunal arteries terminate to supply the jejunum?
form arcades and vasa recti to jejunum
277
what vessels supply the fundus of the stomach?
short gastric arteries from splenic artery
278
how are the ovarian arteries located?
lift up ovary and look for vessels in mesovarium
279
how are testicular arteries located in the abdomen?
passing caudal to kidney to vaginal ring
280
what vein carries the blood from the abdominal viscera to the liver?
portal vein (hepatic portal vein)
281
what are the 1˚ abdominal organs not drained by the portal vein?
kidneys, adrenal glands, gonads, liver
282
why aren't the kidneys, adrenals and gonads drained by the portal vein?
their hormones would be destroyed by liver
283
where does the left gonadal vein empty?
into left renal v. instead of crossing aorta to vena cava
284
what lymphatic vessel drains the lymph from cisterna chyli that drains the caudal animal?
thoracic duct
285
to which lymph nodes does lymph drain to from the caudal and cranial mammae?
Ca.: superficial inguinal, Cr.: axillary
286
what are the large lymph nodes beneath the termination of the aorta?
medial iliac lymph nodes
287
what are the intestinal lymphatic vessels that absorb fats?
lacteals
288
what directions do the ventral branches of the spinal nerve travel?
caudoventral direction
289
what supplies cutaneous innervation to the top of the thoracic and abdominal walls?
both the dorsal and ventral branches of the spinal nn. in the thoracic and lumbar region
290
where are the collateral ganglia of the sympathetic division located?
near branches of abdominal aorta
291
what gland is part if the sympathetic ANS?
adrenal glands (medulla)
292
what are standing lateral views using a horizontal beam direction through a standing animal used to detect?
fluid levels in bowel or abdomen
293
on what does peritoneal (serosal) detail depend?
serosal (peritoneal) fat around organs
294
what is the term for an abdomen with an overall gray appearance due to loss of serosal detail?
"ground glass" appearance
295
what is the use of opaque media (positive contrast agents) or gas (negative contrast agent) to delineate portions of the GI tract called?
contrast studies
296
what must always precede all contrast studies?
survey radiographs
297
name one structure that normally is in the left caudal quadrant
descending colon
298
which sides of the diaphragm can be seen in radiographs?
yes: cranial surface (lungs);
no: caudal (water densities against it)
299
where are the parts of the stomach located in VD and lateral films?
fundus VD: left, Lat: dorsal
body: VD: midline (dog), left (cat)
pylorus: DV: right (dog), midline (cat) Lat: ventral
300
where is the air likely to be seen in the stomach of a radiograph taken in right lateral recumbency (right view)? left view?
right: fundus (eft side up, fundus is up), left: pylorus
301
where would gas be expected in the stomach in a DV view? VD?
DV: fundic region (dorsal up), VD: pylorus
302
what is the normal stomachs axis used for clinically?
between lines vertical to spine and parallel to ribs
303
what is the use of air and contrast material within an organ called?
double contrast studies (applied to bladder also)
304
how would you precisely locate a radiopaque foreign body to the stomach?
take 2 radiographs 90˚ to each other (lateral and VD)
305
what does full 360˚ gastric dilation and volvulus look like on a lateral radiograph?
enlarged gas filed stomach with a fold dividing the stomach into dorsal and ventral compartments (fold in volvulus)
306
what is the large distended loop of small intestine, named because they indicate trouble?
sentinel loop
307
what is the shape and location of the cecum in a VD radiograph?
"C" corkscrew shape; right side level of L3, seen only if air filled
308
is the descending colon seen in VD and lateral survey films?
yes if fecal filled
309
what structure may be surmised to be enlarged in lateral radiographs by ventral displacement of the descending coon?
medial iliac lymph nodes
310
linear foreign bodies in the small intestine, such as string, will cause the bowel to ________ __________ on the string due to peristalsis
bunch up, plicated or accordion pleating, very apparent with a contrast study
311
what should you do if you see a string hanging out of either end of a cat or god?
do not pull or it may saw through bunched up bowel (peritinitis). surgically remove
312
in normal adult dogs on an expiratory abdominal radiograph, the liver usually doesn't extend past the _____.
rib
313
how is the stomach axis positioned in a lateral film when there is an enlarged liver?
exceeds angle parallel to ribs
314
why is the cranial pole of the right kidney not visualized in a lateral radiograph?
in renal impression of liver: same density
315
where is the speen seen in VD and lateral radiographs?
VD: triangular water density caudal to stomach on left
| Rt, Lat: triangle
316
what causes a focal loss of detail to the right cranial abdomen
pancreatitis
317
what part of the right kidney can't be seen normally?
cranial pole embedded in liver
318
where is the left kidney in relationship to the right kidney?
1/2 kidney length caudal, slightly ventral
319
on what does visualization of the renal borders depend?
amount of perirenal fat present
320
are the ureters visible on survey radiographs?
no
321
what structure of the renal pelvis shows up in contrast studies of the kidney that can give clues to problems?
pelvic diverticula/recesses
322
what is a protrusion of an organ or tissue through the umbilicus?
umbilical hernia
323
what is a direct and indirect inguinal hernia?
direct: explodes directly through the wall
indirect: passes down inguinal canal (scrotal hernia)
324
what is paracentesis?
puncture of peritoneal cavity to remove fluid
325
define a laparotomy or celiotomy incision
an incision opening the abdomen
326
what is done with a falciform ligament that obscures the view of the abdomen?
removed
327
what structures can be visualized through a xiphoid to pubic laparotomy incision without manipulation, and their locations?
cranial: falciform ligament
middle: greater omentum and +- tail of spleen
caudal: bladder
328
where is the spleen located when doing a laparotomy incision? how does this affect your incision?
left side of across midline
| tent wall when opening the abdomen
329
what is an incision into the abdomen just off the midline?
paramedian incision (approach)
330
what is the most important layer that must be opposed when closing a paramedian midline incision?
external rectus sheath
331
what is an abdominal incisio made in the paralumbar fossa?
paralumbar incision, flank incision
332
what must be blocked to anesthetize the paralumbar fossa of the large animal's flank?
both the dorsal and ventral branch's must be blocked
333
what type of restraint is used for small animal surgery?
general anesthesia anesthesia instead of ocal
334
what is a common sequela to peritonitis (inflammation of the peritoneum)?
adhesions between sheets of peritoneum
335
visualize what is seen through a long midline incision
faciform ligament (cr.), greater omentum, urinary bladder (caudal), and +- spleen
336
must the peritoneum be apposed when closing the ventral midline incision?
no, best to leave it alone
337
why must including the falciform ligament or its fat in the closure of the abdomen be avoided?
lt may delay healing and contribute to wound dehiscence
338
what is the most important structure to close in a midline incision?
linea albe
339
what is a common cause of diaphragmatic hernias?
trauma (cars #1, fights, kicks, falls)
340
how is a diaphragmatic hernia reached surgically?
from abdominal side
341
when opening the abdomen of a dog with diaphragmatic hernia, what must you be prepared to do?
breath for dog, as when the abdomen opened there will be a pneumothorax
342
is the peritoneum opposed when closing the abdomen?
no, less trauma
343
what is wound dehiscence?
separation of layers of a surgical wound
344
what is paracentesis? abdominocentesis/abdominal puncture?
surgical puncture of a cavity for an aspiration of fuid; puncture of abdomen
345
what is a common sequela to inflammation of the peritoneum?
adhesions between sheets of peritoneum
346
where is a gastrotomy performed in the stomach?
through body between curvatures (less blood)
347
what emergency twisting of the stomach occurs in large and giant breed dogs with deep chests, rarely occuring in small dogs?
gastric dilation/volvulus complex, bloat
348
what common problems results in projectile vomiting?
pyloric stenosis/obstruction
349
where is the descending duodenum?
right side
350
what is intussusception?
telescoping of a segment of the intestine into the lumen of an adjacent segment
351
what is an incision into the intestines?
enterotomy
352
what structure identifies and locates the rest of the large and small intestines during an exploratory surgery?
cecum
353
what is the inflammation of the cecum?
typhlitis
354
what is the surgical removal of the cecum?
typhlectomy
355
how are the "abdominal gutters" (paravertebral gutters) visualized?
pull the duodenum and mesoduodenum or colon and mesocolon medially, packing off the rest of the viscera.
356
how are plugged anal sacs treated?
manually evacuation (gloved hand holds 4x4 gauze pushed forward cranial to the sacs, squeeze in and pull caudally evacuating sac; or gloved finger in anus, thumb lateral and deep to a sac, squeeze ad withdraw)
357
what must be avoided when surgically removing the anal sac?
external anus sphincters and caudal rectal nerves
358
what are pathological tracts between rectum and skin surrounding anus?
rectucutaneous fistulas
359
what is eversion of the inner rectum through the anus?
rectal prolapse
360
what is the removal of part of the liver?
partial hepatectomy
361
how is a liver biopsy taken in a dog?
laparotomy caudal to the xiphoid process, finger holds the liver in place, biopsy needle through a separate stab incision
362
what is inflammation of the gall bladder?
cholecystitus
363
how is the right limb of the pancreas exposed during exploratory surgery?
retract duodenum ventromedially
364
how is the left lobe of the pancreas exposed surgically?
retract stomach and spleen cranially and transverse colon caudally
365
what is the removal of the spleen?
splenectomy
366
how are the vessels ligated during a splenectomy and why?
close to hilus, preserve short gastrics and eft gastroepiploic supply to the stomach
367
what arteries to the stomach come off the splenic artery?
short gastrics and left gastroepiploic arteries
368
how would you locate the adrenal gland during surgery?
phrenicoabdomina v. crosses it ventrally.
369
how do you visualize the kidneys during a laparotomy?
pull the descending colon and its mesocolon or descending duodenum and its mesdoduodenum medially and look in the "abdominal gutter" for left and right kidneys respectivey
370
what is inflammation of the kidney?
nephritis
371
what structure of the renal pelvis shows up in contrast studies of the kidney that can give clues to problems?
pelvic recesses
372
what is the removal of a kidney? what should be checked first?
nephrectomy; check for another kidney
373
what is an incision into the kidney?
nephrotomy
374
what is inflammation of the kidney and its pelvis?
pyelonephritis
375
what is a patent urachus?
persistent urachus from the bladder to umbilicus
376
what is a clinical sign of a patent urachus?
dribbling of urine from the bladder to umbilicus
377
what is an abnormal concentration in any part of the urinary system?
urinary calculi
378
what is FUS (feline urinary syndrome) in tom cat?
urinary tract disease characterized by dysuria and hematuria with or without obstruction
379
what is the common site of urethra obstruction in the tomcat?
penie urethra
380
what is the creation of a permanent opening for the urethra in the perineum, a common treatments for FUS?
urethrostomy
381
what abnormal termination of a ureter some place besides the urinary bladder?
ectopic ureter
382
how is an ectopic ureter corrected?
surgically reimplant ureter obliquely through the bladder wall
383
what is tapping the uriary bladder with a needle to remove urine?
cystocentesis
384
what is surgical opening of the urinary bladder?
cystotomy
385
what is the #1 iatrogenic ureteral injury occurring during a spay?
ligature or clamp mistakenly applied to ureter
386
what vessles have to be considered when opening in the abdomen?
cranial and caudal superficial epigastric vessels
387
where would you make an incision to open the stomach and why?
between curvatures, less vessels
388
what artery is surgically important in operations of the cecum?
large ceca artery hidden on the dorsal surface
389
what must not be ligated when removing the spleen?
short gastrics and left gastroepiploic arteries or artery supplying them
390
how are vessels ligated during a splenectomy and why?
close to hilus, preserving short gastrics and left gastroepiploic supply to the stomach
391
where is the largest artery (cecal) of the cecum located?
hidden on dorsal side of cecum
392
how is the intestine cut when doing a resection and anastomoses?
"angle cuts toward lesion" (antimesenteric> mesenteric side of removed piece)
393
what arteries should surgeons watch for when doing nephrectomies?
renal arteries: usually singular but double or triple possible
394
what vascular incidence can cause paralysis of the rear limb of cats?
saddle thrombus in caudal aorta, blocking external iliac arteries
395
what is the landmark for finding adrenal glands?
phrenicoabdominal vein over ventral surface
396
what is a portosystemic shunt?
splanchnic (visceral) circulation bypasses normal hepatic system and empties into systemic veins
397
what is the removal of one or more mammary glands?
mastectomy
398
when wouldn't a mastectomy be performed on a mammary tumor?
if distal lung metastasis present already
399
what is a metastasis?
transfer of disease from 1 part of body to another
400
what do the following surgical suffixes mean?
- ectomy
- ostomy
- otomy
- plexy
- plasty
- ectomy: removal of organ or part by surgery (hysterectomy)
- ostomy: surgically creating an artifical opening between a hollow organ and abdomina wall ( tracheostomy/tracheotomy)
- otomy: surgical incision
- plexy: fixation (pyloroplexy)
- plasty: shaping or surgical formation of (rhinoplasty)
401
how are the "abdomina gutters" (paravertebral gutters) exposed?
pull descending duodenum and mesoduodenum or colon and mesocolon medially
402
what is ileus?
obstruction of the intestines
403
can the liver be palpable in the normal dog?
no
404
how is the descending colon palpated? when is this easiest?
on left side; when constipated
405
can the kidneys be palpated in the dog?
in some dogs, right is more difficult
406
how easy can the cat's kidneys be palpated through the abdominal wall?
usually left pendulous enough to palpate, right may also be palpated
407
is the urinary bladder palpable in the dog and cat?
readily
408
when can and can't the uterus be palpated?
can't/rarely: nonpregnant *****
| -pregnant: vesicle palpable ranging (marble to egg) at 25-35 days then horns uniformly enarged: nonpalpable
409
how is the superficial inguinal lymph node papated?
subcutaneoulsy just craniomedial to thigh
410
how are plugged anal sacs treated?
manually evaculation (gloved hand holds 4x4 gauze pushed forward cranial to sacs, squeeze in and pull caudally evacuation sac; or gloved finger in anus, thumb lateral and deep to a sac, squeeze and withdraw)
