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Anatomy > Q&A Thorax and Abdomen > Flashcards

Q&A Thorax and Abdomen Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two major parts of a typical vertebra?

A

Body and arch

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2
Q

What is an intervertebral foramen?

A

Opening between adjacent vertebrae allowing passage of the spinal nn.

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3
Q

How do ribs articulate with the thoracic vertebrae?

A

Head articulates with bodies of contiguous vertebrae and the tubercle articulates with the transverse process of same numbered

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4
Q

What is the name of the space between two adjacent ribs?

A

Intercostal space (ICS)

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5
Q

What do the costal cartilages of the last sternal and all asternal ribs form?

A

Costal arch

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6
Q

What are the first and last sternebrae?

A

Manubrium and xiphoid, respectively

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7
Q

What caps the xiphoid process?

A

Xiphoid cartilage

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8
Q

what thoracic vertebrae usually has the most vertically oriented spine?

A

Anticlinal vertebrae, usually T11 in dog

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9
Q

How is inspiration accomplished?

A

Increased size of thorax decreases pressure = air rushes in

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10
Q

What is the main respiratory muscle?

A

Diaphragm

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11
Q

Name the 2 muscles extending between adjacent ribs.

A

External and internal intercostal mm.

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12
Q

What is the opening into the thorax?

A

Thoracic inlet

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13
Q

What forms the thoracic inlet?

A

1st thoracic vertebra, right and left 1st ribs and sternum

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14
Q

What palpable structure is formed by the costal cartilages of the false ribs?

A

Costal arch

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15
Q

What divides the thorax into two spaces?

A

Mediastinum

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16
Q

Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity?

A

(2nd) 3rd to (5th) 6th intercostal space (ICS) in the bottom 2/3rds of the cavity

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17
Q

Which side of the aorta does the thoracic esophagus normally cross?

A

Right side of the aortic arch

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18
Q

What covers the trachea in the cranial neck?

A

Only strap muscles (sternohyoideus and sternothyroideus mm)

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19
Q

What part of the trachea splits into right and left primary bronchi?

A

Tracheal biforcation

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20
Q

What separates lobes of the lungs?

A

Interlobar fissures

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21
Q

What is the opening between the lobes of the lung where the surgeon’s pericardium comes in contact with the thoracic wall?

A

Cardiac notch

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22
Q

What do radiologists call the pulmonary trunk?

A

Main pulmonary artery/segment, MPA

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23
Q

What is the mediastinum?

A

Space or wall (depending on text read, wall makes parietal work for the pleura) separating the thoracic cavity into 2 cavities and thus, separating the 2 pleural cavities

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24
Q

What are the divisions of the mediastinum?

A

Cranial, middle (contains heart), and caudal (all divided into dorsal and ventral parts)

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25
Q

List the parts of the pericardium.

A

Fibrous pericardium, serous pericardium (visceral and parietal parts)

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26
Q

What is located in the pericardial cavity?

A

scant amount of serous fluid only

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27
Q

which side of the heart is part of the pulmonary circulation?

A

Right side: pulmonary side

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28
Q

The left side of the heart is part of what circulation and why?

A

Systemic circulation, pumps blood to body

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29
Q

What side of the heart is the right ventricle on? Left ventricle?

A

Right: cranial (right, cranial, and left sides); left: caudal

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30
Q

What is the vestigial, fetal connection form the pulmonary trunk to the aorta?

A

Ligamentum arteriosum

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31
Q

What is the most caudoventral part of the heart? Is it on the right or left?

A

Apex, left

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32
Q

What is the adult remnant of the fetal foramen ovale?

A

Fossa ovale

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33
Q

What separates the atria?

A

Interatrial septum

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34
Q

Name the wall separating the 2 ventricles.

A

Interventricular (IV) septum

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35
Q

Which ventricle has a thinner wall and why?

A

Right, less strength needed to reach lungs

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36
Q

Name the three layers of the heart.

A

Endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium

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37
Q

What are the valves of the heart?

A

Right and left atrioventricular (AV); aortic and pulmonic valves (semilunar valves)

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38
Q

What is the function of the AV valves?

A

Prevent back flow into the atria during ventricular contraction

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39
Q

What is the function of the semilunar valves?

A

Prevent return to heart during diastole

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40
Q

What abnormal sounds are caused by blood flow turbulence in the heart?

A

Murmurs

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41
Q

What are the three parts of the conduction system of the heart?

A

Sinoatrial node (SA) (pacemaker), atrioventricular (AV) node, and atrioventricular bundle branches

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42
Q

What is the term for ventricular contraction and relaxation?

A

Ventricular systole, ventricular diastole

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43
Q

How do diastole and systole relate to the heart sounds?

A

Systole: between 1st and 2nd sounds, Diastole: between 2nd and 1st heart sounds

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44
Q

What do the 1st and 2nd hearts sounds sound like and roughly represent?

A

1st (“lub”): closure of AV valves (start of systole),2nd (“dub”): closure of semilunar valve (diastole)

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45
Q

What causes closure and opening of the AV and semilunar valves?

A

Opening: AV: diastole; Semilunar: systole. -Closure: AV: systole; Semilunar: diastole

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46
Q

What does the recoil of the elastic aorta at the end of systole cause?

A

Pushes blood to body and back toward the heart, closing aortic valve and filling the coronary arteries

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47
Q

How is the esophagus normally related to the arch of the aorta?

A

To the right of the arch or aorta

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48
Q

What arteries travel up the neck to supply the head and face?

A

Common carotid aa.

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49
Q

What artery travels on the floor of the thorax?

A

Internal thoracic a.

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50
Q

What vessels and nerves travel in the intercostal spaces caudal to the ribs?

A

Intercostal a., v., and n.

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51
Q

What three fetal structures bypass the lungs and liver?

A

Ductus arteriosus, ductus venosus, and foramen ovale

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52
Q

Where does the ductus arteriosus shunt most of the blood in the right ventricle from the pulmonary to the systemic circulation?

A

From the pulmonary trunk and aorta (2 aa.)

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53
Q

What in the adult is a remnant of the following structures? Ductus arteriosus, Foramen ovale,Umbilical arteries, Umbilical veins

A

Ductus arteriosus–ligamentum arteriosum; Foramen ovale–oval fossa or fossa oval; Umbilical arteries–round ligaments of urinary bladder;Umbilical veins–round ligament of liver

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54
Q

What is the large lymphatic channel draining the caudal animal?

A

Thoracic duct (from abdomen, pelvis, and pelvic limb)

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55
Q

What lymph nodes are near the bifurcation of the trachea?

A

Tracheobronchial lymph nodes

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56
Q

What is the lymphatic structure in the cranial mediastinum?

A

Cranial mediastinal lymph node

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57
Q

What is the large nerve crossing the heart to the diaphragm?

A

Phrenic n.

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58
Q

What is the branch of the vagus that returns to the neck? Where is it located in the thorax on the left and right sides?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve; Lt: around the arch of the aorta, Rt: around right subclavian artery

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59
Q

What does the recurrent laryngeal nerve innervate? Which is clinically important in dogs and horses with laryngeal paralysis?

A

Most laryngeal skeletal muscles; Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis m.

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60
Q

What supplies cutaneous innervation to the top of the thoracic and abdominal walls?

A

Both the dorsal and ventral branches of the spinal nn. in the thoracic and lumbar region

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61
Q

What is the parasympathetic innervation to the thorax?

A

Vagus nerve

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62
Q

What are the two series of connected ganglia lying on either side of the bodies of the thoracolumbar vertebrae and longus colli muscle?

A

Sympahtetic trunk (chain)

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63
Q

Which way do the motor fibers travel in the vagosympathetic trunk?

A

Sympathetic toward the head, vagus away from the head

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64
Q

What is a serosa (serous membrane)?

A

A thin, continuous membrane lining a closed cavity and covering the cavity’s organs

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65
Q

What are the serous membranes of the pericardial cavity, thorax, abdomen, and spermatic cord called respectively?

A

Pericardial: pericardium; Thorax: pleura; Abdomen: peritoneum; Spermatic cord: vaginal tunics

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66
Q

What serosa covers walls of a cavity?

A

Parietal serosa

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67
Q

What serosa covers an organ?

A

Visceral serosa

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68
Q

What connects parietal and visceral or visceral with visceral serosa?

A

Connecting serosa

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69
Q

What is the serosa lining the thoracic cavity?

A

Pleura

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70
Q

Are the lungs located in the pleural cavities?

A

No, just a scant amount of serous fluid

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71
Q

What is the line of pleural reflection?

A

Point costal pleura reflects onto diaphragm

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72
Q

What is the plural cupula?

A

Cranial pleural sac extending out through the thoracic inlet

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73
Q

How should VD/DV and lateral films be placed on viewing screen?

A

DV/VD: Right side to you left in both; Lateral: Cranial side to the left

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74
Q

What does a R or L marker on different film views indicate?

A

Lateral trunk: right or left lateral=side on cassette

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75
Q

Lateral trunk (thorax or abdomen), DV or VD films, One limb in film

A

DV or VD: side of animal, one limb: limb in film

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76
Q

How are thoracic films evaluated for rotation?

A

Lateral: costochondral junctions and shoulder joints-same level, -VD and DV: sternum and spinal column superimposed

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77
Q

What structure is used to tell an expiratory from an inspiratory film?

A

Position of diaphragm

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78
Q

Once you have picked a method to evaluate films, what should you do each time you evaluate a film?

A

Always read in the same manner (every time!)-get into a routine

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79
Q

What is the cranial limit of the abdomen?

A

Diaphragm

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80
Q

Can you visualize the sides of the diaphragm?

A

Cranial: yes as contrasted air (lungs); Caudal: no, against water densities (liver and stomach)

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81
Q

What is the junction between the two crura?

A

Intercrural cleft

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82
Q

What mediastinal structures are normally seen in the lateral view?

A

Trachea, aorta, heart in the pericardium, caudal vena cava

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83
Q

What mediastinal structures can be seen the VD view?

A

Heart in the pericardium, caudal vena cava, left edge of the descending aorta

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84
Q

Is the esophagus usually visible on radiograph? When is it visible?

A

No, only if it contains swallowed air or contrast material

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85
Q

What is the thick dark line in lateral radiograph of the cranial mediastinum?

A

Trachea

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86
Q

What is the dark oval over the heart base in a lateral radiograph?

A

Tracheal bifurcation, “carina”

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87
Q

The trachea normally makes a _____ angle to the vertebral column in a lateral view.

A

15 degrees

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88
Q

Which way does a megaesophagus displace the trachea and heart?

A

Ventrally

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89
Q

Name a dilation of caudal cervical and thoracic esophagus.

A

Megaesophagus.

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90
Q

What is the line caused by the air in a megaesophagus and air in trachea contrasting the adjacent walls of the two structures?

A

Tracheal-esophageal stripe.

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91
Q

What is the name for the VD appearance of a megaesophagus as it passes caudally to the diaphragm?

A

Esophageal cone

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92
Q

What are the 2 continuations of the trachea into the lungs?

A

Main stem bronchi or primary bronchi

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93
Q

Which is the most ventral (dependent/handing down) of the bronchi?

A

Right middle bronchus

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94
Q

What are the normal longitudinal water densities in the lungs?

A

Pulmonary vessels, not bronchi

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95
Q

What is a lobar bronchus and associated lobar pulmonary artery and vein?

A

Pulmonary triad

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96
Q

What is the normal relative size of the artery and vein of a pulmonary triad?

A

About the same size

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97
Q

Veins are always ______ and _______ (______) to the arteries of pulmonary triads in the lateral and DV views respectively.

A

Ventral and Central (medial)

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98
Q

In the DV/VD films, what is the position of the lobar arteries to the caudal lungs?

A

4 and 8 o’clock positions

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99
Q

What conditions will result in visible lung fissures (lobular pattern)?

A

Collapsed lungs or pleural fluid and pleural thickenings

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100
Q

How many left lung lobes are there anatomically and radiographically?

A

Anatomically - 2; Radiographically - 3

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101
Q

The cranial lobe of the _______ lung is seen in front of the cranial lobe of the _______ lung on a lateral view as a separate round air filled structure.

A

Left, right

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102
Q

What is located in the normal pleural space?

A

only a little fluid

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103
Q

What is the cranial extent of the pleural cavity?

A

Pleural cupula

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104
Q

The pleural cupula normally extends cranially past the _____ ______.

A

First rib

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105
Q

What is located between the vessels of the lungs?

A

Interstitium, parenchyma

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106
Q

For what should the parenchyma of the lungs be evaluated?

A

Increase (more radiopaque) or decrease (more radiolucent) opacity

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107
Q

Why don’t you see the chambers of the heart in survey radiographs?

A

Heart is muscle, chambers filled with blood (both water densities)

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108
Q

Since you can’t see the chambers of the heart in survey radiographs how do you evaluate the heart?

A

Evaluate the borders or silhouette

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109
Q

What are the lateral radiographic location of the different compartments of the heart listed below :1.right ventricle;2.left ventricle 3.caudal heart

A

1:descending aorta 2.dorsal thorax-well seen 3.lower part of cranial edge

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110
Q

What is usually all that can be seen of the cranial vena cava in the lateral projection?

A

ventral edge

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111
Q

Tell if the structures are seen and where they are located in a DV/VD view: 1.Caudal vena cava 2.Right ventricle 3.Pulmonary trunk 4.Left ventricle 5.Apex 6.Descending aorta

A

1.Caudal vena cava: yes; right side, heart to diaphragm 2.Right ventricle: yes; right side of heart, 3.Pulmonary trunk: yes; cranial/left side of heart; 4.Left ventricle:yes; caudal half of heart Left ventricle:yes; caudal half of heart 5.Apex: yes; pointing to left 6.Descending aorta: yes; left lateral edge

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112
Q

On what side of a DV view is the caudal vena cava seen? VD view?

A

right, right

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113
Q

What part of the DV silhouette does the right ventricle make up?

A

Right side from apex around cranial side to cranial left side

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114
Q

The left atrium is over the _______ heart directly above the left ventricle. It is located just caudal to the _______ _______.

A

Caudal, tracheal bifurcation

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115
Q

On what side of the heart is the apex, a radiographic landmark, located?

A

Left

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116
Q

How does the descendign aorta appear in a DV view?

A

A line to left=left edge of aorta

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117
Q

What is the normal amount of sternal contact of the heart?

A

3 sternebrae (rule of thumb)

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118
Q

What is found on the VD/DV and lateral views at each time area according to the clock faced analogy? 1. 2-6 o’clock 2. 5 o’clock 3.6-9 o’clock

A

1.Left ventricle 2.Apex 3.Right ventricle

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119
Q

What is found on the VD/DV at the 1-2 o’clock position on the clock faced analogy?

A

MPA/pulmonary trunk

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120
Q

List some problems needing thoracic radiographs.

A

Cough, heart problems, dyspnea, abnormal lung sounds, etc.

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121
Q

What is a radiographic indication of a diaphragmatic hernia?

A

Entire diaphragm can’t be seen

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122
Q

When are the mediastinal lymph nodes visible?

A

When enlarged (i.e. lymphosarcoma, common in cats)

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123
Q

What is moving of the mediastinum to the right or left?

A

Mediastinal shift

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124
Q

What is the common term for bowing of the principal bronchi in VD and DV views?

A

Cowboy legs

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125
Q

Fluid or air in the pleural space will eliminate the _______ pressure of the space and cause the lungs to collapse away from the chest wall.

A

Negative

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126
Q

What is excess fluid in the pleural space?

A

Pleural effusions

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127
Q

What is the main radiographic sign of pleural effusion?

A

Separation of lungs and body wall allowing visualization of lugn borders and fissure lines

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128
Q

What are the 4 basic opaque lung patterns?

A

Interstitial, alveolar, peribronchiolar and vascular

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129
Q

What characterizes each of the opaque lung patterns?

A

interstitial: opaque lung, “fuzzy”; -Alveolar: air bronchogram; -Peribronchiolar: “donuts and tram lines”- Vascular: increased, decreased, or normal

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130
Q

What is the number one cause of an interstitial pattern?

A

expiratory film (normal)

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131
Q

Give two signs of a peribronchiolar pattern.

A

Perivascular cuffing; donuts ;tram lines

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132
Q

What should be the first thing that comes to mind when enlarged arteries of the lungs are seen?

A

Heart worm diease

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133
Q

What is fluid in the lungs?

A

Pulmonary edema

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134
Q

The increased radiographic opacity of pulmonary edema can be either a ______ or ______ pattern or both depending on where the fluid is.

A

Interstitial or alveolar

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135
Q

What is the mechanism of cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

A

Left heart failure backing up into lungs

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136
Q

Right ventricular enlargement is seen as a ______ bulging on the lateral view. This will cause the heart to have more ______ _______.

A

Cranial; sternal contact

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137
Q

On VD view, right ventricular enlargement will bulge to the right. How is this shape often referred to?

A

Backwards or reverse “D”

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138
Q

Give a cause of right ventricular enlargement.

A

Pulmonic stenosis and heart worm disease

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139
Q

What is a common radiographic finding of right ventricular enlargement on a lateral projection.

A

Increased sternal contact

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140
Q

What is a common finding of right ventricle enlargement on the DV projection?

A

Reversed “D” sign

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141
Q

What clinical condition should you think of if you see tortuous, dilated pulmonary arteries?

A

Heart worm disease

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142
Q

What are the three bumps seen on a DV view of a dog with PDA?

A

MPA, left auricle and aorta

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143
Q

What is a possible effect on the main stem bronchi in left atrial enlargement in a VD film?

A

Spread out (“cowboy legs”)

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144
Q

List two most common findings of left atrial enlargement in the DV projection.

A

Auricle projects at 2-3 o’clock position; “cowboy legs”

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145
Q

What is the reflex arch for the panniculus response?

A

Sensation from skin of trunk over thoracic and lumbar spinal nn. to spinal cord, up cord to lateral thoracic n., out to cutaneous trunci m.

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146
Q

What is used clinically to evaluate the level of thoracic spinal cord damage?

A

Panniculus response

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147
Q

If the spinal cord damage is at the level of T10, where will the panniculus response not elicit a response?

A

Level of the 12th thoracic vertebra caudally. (segment 2 vertebrae cranial to level of skin because nerves pass caudoventrally)

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148
Q

What is the surgical opening of the thoracic cavity?

A

Thoracotomy

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149
Q

How is the vacuum of the pleural cavity regained when closing the thoracic wall?

A

Maximally inflate the lungs during last part of closure

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150
Q

Where is the intercostal space incised to open the thorax and why?

A

In center to avoid the vessels caudal to ribs

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151
Q

What vessels are of concern in midsternal thoracotomies?

A

Internal thoracic artery and vein

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152
Q

What is the term for segmental fractures of a number of sequential ribs causing the chest wall to move in during inspiration?

A

Flail chest

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153
Q

What is aspiration pneumonia?

A

Swallowing foreign material into the lungs and subsequent pneumonia

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154
Q

Which lobe is the most common site for aspiration pneumonia? What is the second most common lung lobe?

A

Right middle lobe (most dependent); cranial right lung lobe

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155
Q

To which lung lobe will a light, inhaled foreign body (grass awn), which moves by air flow and not gravity, tend to go?

A

Right caudal lobe, straight shot

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156
Q

What is chylothorax?

A

Lymph in the pleural cavity usually from a ruptured lymphatic vessel (thoracic duct)

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157
Q

What are three common locations of clinical blockage of the esophagus in the thorax?

A

Thoracic inlet, base of heart, esophageal hiatus of diaphragm (start of esophagus)

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158
Q

What is air in the mediastinum/

A

Pneumomediastinum

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159
Q

What is the surgeon’s pericardium?

A

Sac opened to access epicardial covered heart

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160
Q

What is compression of the heart due to collection of blood or fluid in the pericardial sac?

A

Cardiac tamponade

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161
Q

What is done with the pericardium after open heart surgery?

A

Left unsutured or only loosely approximated ot avoid cardiac tamponade

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162
Q

Where does blood back up into when the right heart is damaged (clinical signs)?

A

Body (venae cavae (cranial and caudal)-ascites, jugular pulse)

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163
Q

What is ascites? What causes it?

A

Fluid in abdomen, caused by right heart failure

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164
Q

Where does blood back up into in left heart failure?

A

Lungs

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165
Q

What are cardiomyopathies?

A

Progressive cardiac disease

166
Q

What is inflammation of the heart muscle?

A

Myocarditis

167
Q

What parasite may reside in the right ventricle of the dog’s heart?

A

Heartworms (dirofilariasis): adult round worms (nematodes-Dirofilaria immitis)

168
Q

What is the normal blood pressure of the dog?

A

120/80

169
Q

Define PRAA (Persistent right aortic arch).

A

Right instead of left 4th aortic arch becomes the aorta resulting in entrapment of the esophagus

170
Q

What structures constrict the esophagus in a persistent right aortic arch?

A

Aorta, ligamentum arteriosum, pulmonary trunk, and base of heart

171
Q

What is a clinical sign of a persistent right aortic arch?

A

Regurgitates undigested food when weaned to solid food as large particles can’t get past this constriction

172
Q

The constriction due to a persistent right aortic arch causes food to be stopped and the esophagus to balloon cranial to the ______ ____ ______.

A

Base of heart

173
Q

How is a persistent right aortic arch treated?

A

Ligamentum arteriosum surgically isolated, ligated twice and cut between 2 ligatures

174
Q

What is the difference between a congenital and a hereditary defect?

A

Congenital: present at birth, can be due to hereditary or environmental causes. Hereditary: passed on to offspring, may or may not be present at birth

175
Q

What is a PDA?

A

Patent ductus arteriosus, a failure of the fetal ductus arteriosus (arterial duct) to close

176
Q

What causes a washing machine murmur, and why?

A

PDA, continuous, thus, systolic and diastolic

177
Q

How is a PDA treated?

A

Ends are tied off and cut between them if caught early

178
Q

What would happen if a reversed PDA was tied off?

A

Blow out lungs, pressure above left ventricle

179
Q

List the developmental anomalies making up Tetralogy of Fallot.

A

Pulmonic stenosis, overriding aorta, VSD, hypertrophy of right ventricle

180
Q

What does cyanosis mean?

A

Bluish discoloration of tissues due to poor oxygenation

181
Q

What are the three bumps seen on a DV view of a dog with PDA?

A

MPA, left auricle, and aorta

182
Q

Of what is a patent ductus venosus an example?

A

Portosystemic shunt (bypasses liver)

183
Q

What causes the sound heard as a heart murmur?

A

Blood flow turbulence

184
Q

What are the two types of murmurs related to location heart cycle?

A

Diastolic or systolic murmurs

185
Q

What causes valvular murmurs?

A

Leaky (insufficient) or narrowed (stenotic) valves

186
Q

What could cause a systolic murmur?

A

Semilunar (aortic or pulmonic) stenosis, insufficiency (Left>right AV)

187
Q

What can cause a diastolic murmur?

A

Semiliunar (aortic or pulmonic) insufficiency; or AV stenosis (very rare)

188
Q

What is the clinical significance of the line of pleural reflection?

A

Demarcates the pleural from the peritoneal cavity

189
Q

What is pleurocentesis/thoracocentesis?

A

Surgical puncture of the chest wall for drainage of fluid

190
Q

Where is thoracocentesis done?

A

Middle of the 7th-8th intercostal space just dorsal to the costochondral junction

191
Q

How can the pleural cupula be clinically important?

A

Can open the pleural cavity with and incision near the thoracic inlet

192
Q

What is the term for inflammation of the pleura?

A

Pleuritis

193
Q

Why is pneumothorax or pyothorax usually bilateral in carnivores?

A

Mediastinum is fenestrated (holes)

194
Q

What is hyaline membrane disease?

A

Premature parturition before the lungs mature with insufficient surfactant produced

195
Q

What is air or gas, pus or chyle in the pleural space?

A

Pneumothorax, pyothorax, chylothorax

196
Q

In what could a tear in the thoracic part of the trachea result?

A

Pneumomediastinum

197
Q

How can infections of the neck migrate to the thorax?

A

Down the deep fascia to the endothoracic fascia

198
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for dogs? Cats?

A

Dogs: 20 breaths/min; Cats: 25/min

199
Q

How do the olecranon and the intercostal spaces relate when standing?

A

Olecranon at the 5th intercostal space or 5th rib

200
Q

How far cranially does the dome of the diaphragm extend?

A

6th intercostal space just behind the olecranon/heart

201
Q

Where is the heart located in relationship to the intercostal spaces and the arm muscles?

A

Between 2(3)-5(6) intercostal space, mostly under muscles

202
Q

What is a memory aid for the heart valve’s point of maximum intensity?

A

PAM 345, right AV: low 5th right

203
Q

Outline how you auscultate the heart with a stethoscope.

A

1st locate the point of elbow (5th ICS), find Lt. AV: 5th ICS, move 1 ICS cranial and up; aortic, then 1 ICS cranial and up: pulmonic

204
Q

What vessels should be considered when opening the thorax? How?

A

Internal thoracic aa. on thoracic floor of the thorax (don’t cut near sternum); intercostal vessels and nn.: caudal to rib (cut in center of intercostal spaces)

205
Q

Describe the cavity entered when inserting a needle to either side of the line of pleural reflection.

A

Craniodorsal=thorax 1st; caaudoventral=abdomen

206
Q

Where is the basal border of the lung?

A

Roughly 1-2” craniodorsal to and parallel to the line of pleural reflection

207
Q

What are the boundaries of the auxcultation triangle?

A

Cranial: caudal border of the triceps brachii m.; -dorsal: epaxial mm.; caudoventral: curved line from olecranon to next to the last dorsal intercostal space

208
Q

Generally in relationship to what structure is a lung biopsy performed?

A

Craniodorsal to the basal border of the lung

209
Q

How is cardiocentesis performed?

A

Into 5th ICS (intercostal space) (behind elbow) into palpated heartbeat

210
Q

What is the location for thoracocentesis?

A

7th-8th ICS (intercostal space) at intercostal space level of the olecranon on right

211
Q

what are the four quadrants of the abdomen?

A

right and left cranial, right and left caudal

212
Q

what is the lateral part of the middle region of the abdomen?

A

flank

213
Q

what are the inguinal regions?

A

lateral abdominal area next to the junction with thigh

214
Q

what is the dorsal part of the flank region?

A

paralumbar fossa

215
Q

where is the fundus of the stomach located?

A

left cranial/dorsal abdomen

216
Q

how many mammar are generally present in the *****? cat?

A

usually 10 in dog, 8 in cat and small dogs

217
Q

what are extra mammary glands called?

A

supernumerary mammary glands

218
Q

generally where do the mammary glands lymphatics drain?

A

caudal: superficial inguinal ln.; cranial: to axillary ln (also accessory axillary if present sternal)

219
Q

list the abdominal muscles from superficial to deep

A

external abdominal oblique (EAO), internal abdominal oblique (IAO), transverse abdominus, rectus abdominis (ventrally)

220
Q

what is a flat thin tendon called?

A

aponeurosis

221
Q

what is the caudal free edge of the aponeurosis of EAO extending from the tuber coxae around the iliopsoas muscle to the prepubic tendon?

A

inguinal ligament

222
Q

what is the rectus sheath?

A

aponeuroses of the abdominal mm. around the rectus abdominis m., meet/fuse at the linea alba

223
Q

which rectus sheath is most clinically important?

A

external rectus sheath

224
Q

what passes through the openings of the diaphragm?

A

aortic: aorta, azygous, cisterna chyli/thoracic duct; Esophageal: esophagus, dorsal and ventral vagal trunks, Caval foramen: caudal vena cava

225
Q

what is the motor nerve of the diaphragm?

A

phrenic nerve (somatic)

226
Q

how does the cavity of the bony thorax relate to the thoracic cavity?

A

larger, dome of diaphragm extends into bony thorax to 6th intercostal space (encases abdomen)

227
Q

what is the intrathoracic part of the abdominal cavity?

A

cranial part, protected by caudal ribs and costal cartilages

228
Q

what is a directional terms for a part further from and closer to the mouth?

A

further: abroad, closer: orad

229
Q

What are the two named curvatures of the stomach?

A

Greater and lesser curvature

230
Q

What is the muscular sphincter surrounding the stomach’s outflow?

A

Pylorus

231
Q

List the parts of the stomach

A

Cardia, fundus, body, pylorus (pyloric antrim, pylorus, pyloric opening)

232
Q

What is the least vascular part if the stomach?

A

Body between two curvatures

233
Q

On which sides of the animal is the pylorus? The fundus?

A

Pylorus: right (as duodenum) and ventral, fundusvleft and dorsal

234
Q

Which is more ventral the fundus or the pylorus of the stomach?

A

Pylorus

235
Q

the descending duodenum is on what side of the abdomen?

A

right

236
Q

list the parts of the small and large intestine?

A

small: duodenum, jejunum, ileum
large: cecum, colon (ascending, transverse, descending), rectum, and anal canal

237
Q

on what side is the cecum located?

A

right side

238
Q

to what are species differences in the large intestine due?

A

modification of the ascending colon

239
Q

what is the opening of the ileum into the colon (not cecum)?

A

ileocolic (ileal) opening (orifice)

240
Q

what is the course of the transverse colon in all domestic species?

A

right to left cranial to root of mesentery

241
Q

on which side of the animal is the descending colon?

A

left, often called the left colon

242
Q

where do the anal sacs open in the anal canal?

A

4 and 8 o’clock positions

243
Q

where is the liver located?

A

cranial abdomen abutting diaphragm, almost completely intrathoracic

244
Q

the renal impression is in which liver lobe? which side of liver?

A

caudate lobe (caudate process), right

245
Q

what ligament attaches the liver to the stomach?

A

lesser omentum

246
Q

the (common) bile duct enters the duodenum at the _____ along with the __________ duct

A

major duodenal papillae

-pancreatic duct

247
Q

list the parts of the pancreas and their locations

A

right limb: mesoduodenum, body: near pylorus; left limb: deep leaf greater omentum

248
Q

where is the dorsal end of spleen located? ventral?

A

dorsal: on left (fixated to greater curvature)
ventral: variable

249
Q

what is the elongated area of the spleen where vessels enter?

A

hilus

250
Q

which arteries pass from the spleen to the fundus of the stomach?

A

short gastric aa.

251
Q

what is an easy way to remember which kidney is more cranial or caudal?

A

right in renal impression of liver, or left is left behind

252
Q

what is the expanded proximal end of ureters?

A

renal pelvis

253
Q

where does urine drip from the kidney?

A

renal crest

254
Q

which specie has capsular veins on the outside of its kidneys?

A

cat

255
Q

what parts of the renal pelvis surround the pseudopapillae?

A

pelvic recesses/diverticulae

256
Q

how do the ureters pass through the bladder wall and why?

A

oblique angle to prevent back flow

257
Q

where is the trigone of the urinary bladder?

A

dorsal internal area between the two ureteral openings and opening of the urethra

258
Q

what is a serous membrane?

A

a thin, continuous membrane lining a closed cavity of the obdy and covering its organs

259
Q

name the serous membranes of the pericardium, thorax, abdomen, and vaginal process

A

serous pericardium; pleura; peritoneum; vaginal tunic

260
Q

what serous membrane covers the walls of a cavity?

A

parietal (parietal means wall)

261
Q

what serous membrane or serosa covers an organ?

A

visceral peritoneum (often just called serosa or peritoneum)

262
Q

what serous membrane connects parietal and visceral or visceral with visceral serosa?

A

connecting

263
Q

list three different types of peritoneum.

A

parietal, visceral, and connecting

264
Q

list three or four types of connecting peritoneum

A

mesenteries, omenta, ligaments and folds

265
Q

what peritoneum connects the liver and the ventral abdominal wall?

A

falciform ligamet

266
Q

how many layers are in the different classifications of peritoneum?

A

parietal and visceral-1; connecting-2

267
Q

what is the peritoneal cavity?

A

potential space between parietal and visceral peritoneum

268
Q

what does retroperitoneal mean?

A

behind peritoneum

269
Q

what are the two layers of the greater omentum?

A

superficial and deep leaves

270
Q

what is the opening into the omental bursa from the peritoneal cavity?

A

epiploic (omental) foramen

271
Q

how are mesenteries named?

A

meso + organ connected

272
Q

what is the root of the mesentery?

A

attachment of the mesentery to the dorsal abdomen

273
Q

name the 3 main unpaired branches of the abdominal aorta?

A

celiac a, cranial and caudal mesenteric arteries

274
Q

what do the celiac, cranial and caudal mesenteric arteries supply?

A

viscera drained by portal vein

275
Q

what are the three branches of the celiac artery?

A

hepatic, splenic, and left gastric

276
Q

how do the jejunal arteries terminate to supply the jejunum?

A

form arcades and vasa recti to jejunum

277
Q

what vessels supply the fundus of the stomach?

A

short gastric arteries from splenic artery

278
Q

how are the ovarian arteries located?

A

lift up ovary and look for vessels in mesovarium

279
Q

how are testicular arteries located in the abdomen?

A

passing caudal to kidney to vaginal ring

280
Q

what vein carries the blood from the abdominal viscera to the liver?

A

portal vein (hepatic portal vein)

281
Q

what are the 1˚ abdominal organs not drained by the portal vein?

A

kidneys, adrenal glands, gonads, liver

282
Q

why aren’t the kidneys, adrenals and gonads drained by the portal vein?

A

their hormones would be destroyed by liver

283
Q

where does the left gonadal vein empty?

A

into left renal v. instead of crossing aorta to vena cava

284
Q

what lymphatic vessel drains the lymph from cisterna chyli that drains the caudal animal?

A

thoracic duct

285
Q

to which lymph nodes does lymph drain to from the caudal and cranial mammae?

A

Ca.: superficial inguinal, Cr.: axillary

286
Q

what are the large lymph nodes beneath the termination of the aorta?

A

medial iliac lymph nodes

287
Q

what are the intestinal lymphatic vessels that absorb fats?

A

lacteals

288
Q

what directions do the ventral branches of the spinal nerve travel?

A

caudoventral direction

289
Q

what supplies cutaneous innervation to the top of the thoracic and abdominal walls?

A

both the dorsal and ventral branches of the spinal nn. in the thoracic and lumbar region

290
Q

where are the collateral ganglia of the sympathetic division located?

A

near branches of abdominal aorta

291
Q

what gland is part if the sympathetic ANS?

A

adrenal glands (medulla)

292
Q

what are standing lateral views using a horizontal beam direction through a standing animal used to detect?

A

fluid levels in bowel or abdomen

293
Q

on what does peritoneal (serosal) detail depend?

A

serosal (peritoneal) fat around organs

294
Q

what is the term for an abdomen with an overall gray appearance due to loss of serosal detail?

A

“ground glass” appearance

295
Q

what is the use of opaque media (positive contrast agents) or gas (negative contrast agent) to delineate portions of the GI tract called?

A

contrast studies

296
Q

what must always precede all contrast studies?

A

survey radiographs

297
Q

name one structure that normally is in the left caudal quadrant

A

descending colon

298
Q

which sides of the diaphragm can be seen in radiographs?

A

yes: cranial surface (lungs);
no: caudal (water densities against it)

299
Q

where are the parts of the stomach located in VD and lateral films?

A

fundus VD: left, Lat: dorsal

body: VD: midline (dog), left (cat)
pylorus: DV: right (dog), midline (cat) Lat: ventral

300
Q

where is the air likely to be seen in the stomach of a radiograph taken in right lateral recumbency (right view)? left view?

A

right: fundus (eft side up, fundus is up), left: pylorus

301
Q

where would gas be expected in the stomach in a DV view? VD?

A

DV: fundic region (dorsal up), VD: pylorus

302
Q

what is the normal stomachs axis used for clinically?

A

between lines vertical to spine and parallel to ribs

303
Q

what is the use of air and contrast material within an organ called?

A

double contrast studies (applied to bladder also)

304
Q

how would you precisely locate a radiopaque foreign body to the stomach?

A

take 2 radiographs 90˚ to each other (lateral and VD)

305
Q

what does full 360˚ gastric dilation and volvulus look like on a lateral radiograph?

A

enlarged gas filed stomach with a fold dividing the stomach into dorsal and ventral compartments (fold in volvulus)

306
Q

what is the large distended loop of small intestine, named because they indicate trouble?

A

sentinel loop

307
Q

what is the shape and location of the cecum in a VD radiograph?

A

“C” corkscrew shape; right side level of L3, seen only if air filled

308
Q

is the descending colon seen in VD and lateral survey films?

A

yes if fecal filled

309
Q

what structure may be surmised to be enlarged in lateral radiographs by ventral displacement of the descending coon?

A

medial iliac lymph nodes

310
Q

linear foreign bodies in the small intestine, such as string, will cause the bowel to ________ __________ on the string due to peristalsis

A

bunch up, plicated or accordion pleating, very apparent with a contrast study

311
Q

what should you do if you see a string hanging out of either end of a cat or god?

A

do not pull or it may saw through bunched up bowel (peritinitis). surgically remove

312
Q

in normal adult dogs on an expiratory abdominal radiograph, the liver usually doesn’t extend past the _____.

A

rib

313
Q

how is the stomach axis positioned in a lateral film when there is an enlarged liver?

A

exceeds angle parallel to ribs

314
Q

why is the cranial pole of the right kidney not visualized in a lateral radiograph?

A

in renal impression of liver: same density

315
Q

where is the speen seen in VD and lateral radiographs?

A

VD: triangular water density caudal to stomach on left

Rt, Lat: triangle

316
Q

what causes a focal loss of detail to the right cranial abdomen

A

pancreatitis

317
Q

what part of the right kidney can’t be seen normally?

A

cranial pole embedded in liver

318
Q

where is the left kidney in relationship to the right kidney?

A

1/2 kidney length caudal, slightly ventral

319
Q

on what does visualization of the renal borders depend?

A

amount of perirenal fat present

320
Q

are the ureters visible on survey radiographs?

A

no

321
Q

what structure of the renal pelvis shows up in contrast studies of the kidney that can give clues to problems?

A

pelvic diverticula/recesses

322
Q

what is a protrusion of an organ or tissue through the umbilicus?

A

umbilical hernia

323
Q

what is a direct and indirect inguinal hernia?

A

direct: explodes directly through the wall
indirect: passes down inguinal canal (scrotal hernia)

324
Q

what is paracentesis?

A

puncture of peritoneal cavity to remove fluid

325
Q

define a laparotomy or celiotomy incision

A

an incision opening the abdomen

326
Q

what is done with a falciform ligament that obscures the view of the abdomen?

A

removed

327
Q

what structures can be visualized through a xiphoid to pubic laparotomy incision without manipulation, and their locations?

A

cranial: falciform ligament
middle: greater omentum and +- tail of spleen
caudal: bladder

328
Q

where is the spleen located when doing a laparotomy incision? how does this affect your incision?

A

left side of across midline

tent wall when opening the abdomen

329
Q

what is an incision into the abdomen just off the midline?

A

paramedian incision (approach)

330
Q

what is the most important layer that must be opposed when closing a paramedian midline incision?

A

external rectus sheath

331
Q

what is an abdominal incisio made in the paralumbar fossa?

A

paralumbar incision, flank incision

332
Q

what must be blocked to anesthetize the paralumbar fossa of the large animal’s flank?

A

both the dorsal and ventral branch’s must be blocked

333
Q

what type of restraint is used for small animal surgery?

A

general anesthesia anesthesia instead of ocal

334
Q

what is a common sequela to peritonitis (inflammation of the peritoneum)?

A

adhesions between sheets of peritoneum

335
Q

visualize what is seen through a long midline incision

A

faciform ligament (cr.), greater omentum, urinary bladder (caudal), and +- spleen

336
Q

must the peritoneum be apposed when closing the ventral midline incision?

A

no, best to leave it alone

337
Q

why must including the falciform ligament or its fat in the closure of the abdomen be avoided?

A

lt may delay healing and contribute to wound dehiscence

338
Q

what is the most important structure to close in a midline incision?

A

linea albe

339
Q

what is a common cause of diaphragmatic hernias?

A

trauma (cars #1, fights, kicks, falls)

340
Q

how is a diaphragmatic hernia reached surgically?

A

from abdominal side

341
Q

when opening the abdomen of a dog with diaphragmatic hernia, what must you be prepared to do?

A

breath for dog, as when the abdomen opened there will be a pneumothorax

342
Q

is the peritoneum opposed when closing the abdomen?

A

no, less trauma

343
Q

what is wound dehiscence?

A

separation of layers of a surgical wound

344
Q

what is paracentesis? abdominocentesis/abdominal puncture?

A

surgical puncture of a cavity for an aspiration of fuid; puncture of abdomen

345
Q

what is a common sequela to inflammation of the peritoneum?

A

adhesions between sheets of peritoneum

346
Q

where is a gastrotomy performed in the stomach?

A

through body between curvatures (less blood)

347
Q

what emergency twisting of the stomach occurs in large and giant breed dogs with deep chests, rarely occuring in small dogs?

A

gastric dilation/volvulus complex, bloat

348
Q

what common problems results in projectile vomiting?

A

pyloric stenosis/obstruction

349
Q

where is the descending duodenum?

A

right side

350
Q

what is intussusception?

A

telescoping of a segment of the intestine into the lumen of an adjacent segment

351
Q

what is an incision into the intestines?

A

enterotomy

352
Q

what structure identifies and locates the rest of the large and small intestines during an exploratory surgery?

A

cecum

353
Q

what is the inflammation of the cecum?

A

typhlitis

354
Q

what is the surgical removal of the cecum?

A

typhlectomy

355
Q

how are the “abdominal gutters” (paravertebral gutters) visualized?

A

pull the duodenum and mesoduodenum or colon and mesocolon medially, packing off the rest of the viscera.

356
Q

how are plugged anal sacs treated?

A

manually evacuation (gloved hand holds 4x4 gauze pushed forward cranial to the sacs, squeeze in and pull caudally evacuating sac; or gloved finger in anus, thumb lateral and deep to a sac, squeeze ad withdraw)

357
Q

what must be avoided when surgically removing the anal sac?

A

external anus sphincters and caudal rectal nerves

358
Q

what are pathological tracts between rectum and skin surrounding anus?

A

rectucutaneous fistulas

359
Q

what is eversion of the inner rectum through the anus?

A

rectal prolapse

360
Q

what is the removal of part of the liver?

A

partial hepatectomy

361
Q

how is a liver biopsy taken in a dog?

A

laparotomy caudal to the xiphoid process, finger holds the liver in place, biopsy needle through a separate stab incision

362
Q

what is inflammation of the gall bladder?

A

cholecystitus

363
Q

how is the right limb of the pancreas exposed during exploratory surgery?

A

retract duodenum ventromedially

364
Q

how is the left lobe of the pancreas exposed surgically?

A

retract stomach and spleen cranially and transverse colon caudally

365
Q

what is the removal of the spleen?

A

splenectomy

366
Q

how are the vessels ligated during a splenectomy and why?

A

close to hilus, preserve short gastrics and eft gastroepiploic supply to the stomach

367
Q

what arteries to the stomach come off the splenic artery?

A

short gastrics and left gastroepiploic arteries

368
Q

how would you locate the adrenal gland during surgery?

A

phrenicoabdomina v. crosses it ventrally.

369
Q

how do you visualize the kidneys during a laparotomy?

A

pull the descending colon and its mesocolon or descending duodenum and its mesdoduodenum medially and look in the “abdominal gutter” for left and right kidneys respectivey

370
Q

what is inflammation of the kidney?

A

nephritis

371
Q

what structure of the renal pelvis shows up in contrast studies of the kidney that can give clues to problems?

A

pelvic recesses

372
Q

what is the removal of a kidney? what should be checked first?

A

nephrectomy; check for another kidney

373
Q

what is an incision into the kidney?

A

nephrotomy

374
Q

what is inflammation of the kidney and its pelvis?

A

pyelonephritis

375
Q

what is a patent urachus?

A

persistent urachus from the bladder to umbilicus

376
Q

what is a clinical sign of a patent urachus?

A

dribbling of urine from the bladder to umbilicus

377
Q

what is an abnormal concentration in any part of the urinary system?

A

urinary calculi

378
Q

what is FUS (feline urinary syndrome) in tom cat?

A

urinary tract disease characterized by dysuria and hematuria with or without obstruction

379
Q

what is the common site of urethra obstruction in the tomcat?

A

penie urethra

380
Q

what is the creation of a permanent opening for the urethra in the perineum, a common treatments for FUS?

A

urethrostomy

381
Q

what abnormal termination of a ureter some place besides the urinary bladder?

A

ectopic ureter

382
Q

how is an ectopic ureter corrected?

A

surgically reimplant ureter obliquely through the bladder wall

383
Q

what is tapping the uriary bladder with a needle to remove urine?

A

cystocentesis

384
Q

what is surgical opening of the urinary bladder?

A

cystotomy

385
Q

what is the #1 iatrogenic ureteral injury occurring during a spay?

A

ligature or clamp mistakenly applied to ureter

386
Q

what vessles have to be considered when opening in the abdomen?

A

cranial and caudal superficial epigastric vessels

387
Q

where would you make an incision to open the stomach and why?

A

between curvatures, less vessels

388
Q

what artery is surgically important in operations of the cecum?

A

large ceca artery hidden on the dorsal surface

389
Q

what must not be ligated when removing the spleen?

A

short gastrics and left gastroepiploic arteries or artery supplying them

390
Q

how are vessels ligated during a splenectomy and why?

A

close to hilus, preserving short gastrics and left gastroepiploic supply to the stomach

391
Q

where is the largest artery (cecal) of the cecum located?

A

hidden on dorsal side of cecum

392
Q

how is the intestine cut when doing a resection and anastomoses?

A

“angle cuts toward lesion” (antimesenteric> mesenteric side of removed piece)

393
Q

what arteries should surgeons watch for when doing nephrectomies?

A

renal arteries: usually singular but double or triple possible

394
Q

what vascular incidence can cause paralysis of the rear limb of cats?

A

saddle thrombus in caudal aorta, blocking external iliac arteries

395
Q

what is the landmark for finding adrenal glands?

A

phrenicoabdominal vein over ventral surface

396
Q

what is a portosystemic shunt?

A

splanchnic (visceral) circulation bypasses normal hepatic system and empties into systemic veins

397
Q

what is the removal of one or more mammary glands?

A

mastectomy

398
Q

when wouldn’t a mastectomy be performed on a mammary tumor?

A

if distal lung metastasis present already

399
Q

what is a metastasis?

A

transfer of disease from 1 part of body to another

400
Q

what do the following surgical suffixes mean?

  • ectomy
  • ostomy
  • otomy
  • plexy
  • plasty
A
  • ectomy: removal of organ or part by surgery (hysterectomy)
  • ostomy: surgically creating an artifical opening between a hollow organ and abdomina wall ( tracheostomy/tracheotomy)
  • otomy: surgical incision
  • plexy: fixation (pyloroplexy)
  • plasty: shaping or surgical formation of (rhinoplasty)
401
Q

how are the “abdomina gutters” (paravertebral gutters) exposed?

A

pull descending duodenum and mesoduodenum or colon and mesocolon medially

402
Q

what is ileus?

A

obstruction of the intestines

403
Q

can the liver be palpable in the normal dog?

A

no

404
Q

how is the descending colon palpated? when is this easiest?

A

on left side; when constipated

405
Q

can the kidneys be palpated in the dog?

A

in some dogs, right is more difficult

406
Q

how easy can the cat’s kidneys be palpated through the abdominal wall?

A

usually left pendulous enough to palpate, right may also be palpated

407
Q

is the urinary bladder palpable in the dog and cat?

A

readily

408
Q

when can and can’t the uterus be palpated?

A

can’t/rarely: nonpregnant *****

-pregnant: vesicle palpable ranging (marble to egg) at 25-35 days then horns uniformly enarged: nonpalpable

409
Q

how is the superficial inguinal lymph node papated?

A

subcutaneoulsy just craniomedial to thigh

410
Q

how are plugged anal sacs treated?

A

manually evaculation (gloved hand holds 4x4 gauze pushed forward cranial to sacs, squeeze in and pull caudally evacuation sac; or gloved finger in anus, thumb lateral and deep to a sac, squeeze and withdraw)

Anatomy (32 decks)

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