Anatomy Before and After Clinical Flashcards
What is the palpable caudal end of the skull used as a landmark?
external occipital protuberance
What are the palpable lateral processes just caudal to the skull?
wings of the atlas
What part of the hyoid apparatus crosses the ventral midline and is seen in lateral radiographs of the head?
basihyoid bone
What are the enlarged transverse processes that are identifiable in radiographs of the cervical region?
sled of sixth cervical vertebrae
What is usually the 11th thoracic vertebrae with the most vertically oriented spine used as a landmark for back radiographs?
anticlinal vertebrae
What is the dorsal gap between the arches of contiguous vertebral arches used as an access point to the vertebral canal for epidurals?
interarcuate space
What projects laterally from the scapula and is palpable?
spine of the scapula
What is the distal end of the spine of the scapula?
acromion
what is the ventral part of the acromion in the cat?
suprahamate process
What is the origin of the biceps brachii ml on the scapula that can be fractured?
supraglenoid tubercle
What is the palpable cranial most part of the shoulder region of the thoracic limb?
greater tubercle or point of the shoulder
What is the canal in the medial epicondyle of the cat humerus that carries the median n. and brachial vessels?
supracondylar canal (foramen)
What is the bony landmark located in the fifth intercostal space in the standing animal?
olecranon, point of the elbow
What is the proximal end of the notch (trochlear) of the ulna?
anconeal process
What is the distal end of the notch (trochlear) of the ulna?
medial coronoid process
What small sesamoid bone may be located on the medial side of the carpus?
sesamoid bone of the oblique carpal extensor (abductor pollicus longus) tendon
What is a landmark for the medial side of the manus and pes, if it is present?
dewclaw
What bony process holds the horny claw?
ungual crest
What is the palpable part of the hip bone caudal to the flank?
tuber coxae/point of the hip
What is the palpable caudal end of the hip bone?
ischial tuber/ ischiatic tuberosity/ pinbone
What is the palpable lateral structure of the proximal femur?
greater trochanter
What is the palpable proximal end of the tibia?
tibial tuberosity
What is the distal end of the fibula?
lateral malleolus
List the sesamoid bones of the stifle.
patella, 2 sesamoid of the gastrocnemius muscle and sesamoid in the tendon of origin of the popliteal muscle
Define extrinsic and intrinsic muscles and give an example.
extrinsic: attache structure to body; intrinsic: both attachments to the structure (ex., thoracic limb, eye, larynx have both extrinsic and intrinsic muscles)
What nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles?
suprascapular nerve
What nerve innervates almost all the extensors of the thoracic limb?
radial nerve
What are the two groups of forearm muscles? What are their location?
Extensors of digits and carpus (craniolateral), flexors of the digits and carpus (caudal)
What are the insertions of the deep digital flexor (DDF) and the superficial digital flexor (SDF) muscles?
DDF: Distal Phalanges; SDF proximal to SDF
What is the rectus sheath?
aponeruoses of the abdominal mm. around the rectus abdominis muscle
What muscles cover the trachea ventrally?
two paired “strap muscles” (sternohyoideus and sternothyroideus muscles)
What muscles are above and below the transverse processes of the vertebrae?
epaxial muscles (dorsal), hypaxial muscles (ventral) (eg., longus colli m. in the neck is a hypaxial muscle)
What are the extensors of the stifle and what innervates them?
cranial thigh (quadriceps) muscles, femoral nerve
What is the action and innervation of the medial thigh muscles?
adduction, obturator nerve
What are the actions of the crural muscles?
craniolateral: extensors of digits and flexor of the tarsus (called extensors); Caudal: flexors of the digits and extensors of the tarsus
What is the innervation of the extensor muscles of the crus?
craniolateral extensors: common fibular nerve
What nerve innervates the thin muscles of facial expression?
facial nerve (CrN 7)
What is the muscle of facial expression that encircles the eye? What innervates it?
orbicularis oculi m.; facial n. (auriculopalpebral branch)
What nerve is sensory to the three areas of the face and motor to the muscles of mastication?
trigeminal nerve (CrN 5, all 3 divisions); -Motor mastication muscles: mandibular division
What is the motor innervation to the muscles of the tongue?
hypoglossal n. (cranial n. 12)
What is the function of the cutaneous muscles?
twitch skin (shoo flies away)
What separates the respiratory and digestive passages in the head?
hard and soft palates
Name the four types of permanent teeth and give their abbreviations.
Incisors (I), canine (C), premolars (PM), and molars (M)
What are the three division of the pharynx/throat (common passageway for the digestive and respiratory systems)?
oro-, naso-, and laryngopharynx
What structure separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?
soft palate
Name the lymphoid tissue in the lateral wall of the oropharynx.
palatine tonsil
What is the largest meatus located between the ventral nasal concha and the hard palate?
ventral nasal meatus
What is the unpaired hyoid bone that crosses the midline?
basihyoid bone
What does the pull of cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle on the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage do?
swings the vocal process and vocal cords laterally, thus, opening the glottic cleft
What is the only laryngeal muscle which opens the glottic cleft?
cricoarytenoideus dorsalis
What is the narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity?
glottic cleft
To which side of the trachea does the esophagus incline in the middle of the neck?
left
How does the cavity of the bony thorax relate to the thoracic cavity?
larger, dome of the diaphragm extends into the bony thorax to the 6th intercostal space (encases abdomen)
the descending duodenum is on which side of the abdomen?
right
Where is the cecum located?
right side
List three different types of peritoneum.
Parietal (wall), visceral, and connecting
How are many mesenteries (connecting peritoneum) named?
meso + organ connected
Where are the ovaries located in the carnivores?
caudal to the kidneys in the sublumbar region
What is the suspensory ligament in carnivores?
part of the broad ligament connecting the ovary to the last 1 or 2 ribs
What is the fornix of the vagina?
Ventral recess formed by the cervix projecting into the vagina.
Describe the location and appearance of the cat’s scrotum.
perineal (close to anus), densely covered by hair
What is the relationship of the ductus deferens to the ureters?
loops dorsally over the ureters (“water under bridge”)
What is the inguinal canal?
passageway through the caudal abdominal wall
Name the three main parts of the vaginal serosal tunic or the spermatic cord.
visceral, parietal, and connecting vaginal tunic
The vaginal cavity of the spermatic cord is continuous with the __________ at the vaginal ring.
peritoneal cavity
On which side of the spermatic cord is the ductus deferens?
medial
Which specific large veins return blood from (roughly) the cranial and caudal part of the body directly to the heart?
cranial vena cava and caudal vena cava
What are the chambers of the heart in the order they receive blood?
right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle
Which side of the heart is part of the pulmonic circulation?
right side
Which side of the heart is part of the systemic circulation?
left side
What is the outflow of the heart (left side) to the body?
aorta
What arteries travel up the neck to supply the head and face?
common carotid arteries
Which veins return blood from the head and neck?
external jugular veins
Name the three unpaired branches of the abdominal aorta.
celiac, cranial, and caudal mesenteric arteries
Name the main branches (arteries) of the terminal aorta.
2 external iliac (to the pelvic limb), 2 internal iliac (to the pelvis), and 1 median sacral ( to the tail)
What is the main artery supplying the uterus?
uterine artery off vaginal
What vessels supply the ventral abdominal wall? Where do they run?
Cranial and caudal epigastric vessels; on the ventral abdomen, on either side of the midline
What is the direct continuation of the external iliac artery out of the abdominal cavity to the pelvic limb for which it is the main supply?
femoral artery
What is the vascular supply to the ovary?
ovarian artery and vein (in mesovarium)
What is the large vein draining the intestine to the sinusoids of the liver?
portal vein
Where do the ovarian or testicular veins drain?
right: into the caudal vena cava; left: into the left renal vein (to avoid crossing the aorta)
Which vessel crosses the ventral surface of the adrenal gland, and thus, is a surgical landmark for finding this structure?
phrenicoabdominal vein
Where is the cephalic vein located?
on the cranial surface of the forearm
What is the vein on the ventral surface of the tail that is the direct continuation of the median sacral vein?
median caudal vein
What are the two superficial veins of the pelvis limb?
medial and lateral saphenous veins
What vein is on either side of the ventral surface of the tongue?
lingual vein (sublingual vein is on the floor of the mouth)
Describe the thoracic duct.
the major lymphatic vessel returning most of the lymph collected in the body back into the general circulation at the venous angle
What lymph node is located near the end of the aorta above the descending colon?
medial iliac lymph nodes
How is the nervous system (NS) divided functionally?
somatic (body) and autonomic (ANS, visceral system) nervous sytems
How is the nervous system divided structurally?
central (CNS) and peripheral nervous systems (PNS)
Which functional division of the nervous system keeps the body in balance with its external and internal environment, respectively?
external: Somatic; Internal: autonomic
What are the two parts of the central nervous system (CNS)?
brain and spinal cord
What are the parts of the peripheral nervous system?
cranial and spinal nerves and ganglia
What are the two impulses of the nervous system, both somatic and autonomic?
sensory (afferent) and motor (efferent)
What nervous structures pass from the spinal cord to the periphery?
spinal nerves (LMN, lower motor neurons)
Where do the spinal nerves leave the vertebral column?
intervertebral foramen
What arises from the spinal cord to form a spinal nerve?
dorsal (sensory) and ventral (motor) roots
What are the two main branches of spinal nerves? (What do they carry?)
dorsal and ventral branches, (mixed: motor and sensoty fibers)
What areas do the ventral and dorsal motor branches of the spinal nerves supply motor innervation?
Ventral: muscles ventral to the transverse process of the vertebrae; Dorsal: muscles dorsal t the transverse proces, sensory inervation not exactly the same
What spinal nerve branches supply sensation from the skin of the abdominal wall and back?
dorsal
List the components of a reflex arc.
stimulus, receptor, sensory (afferent) neuron, interneuron, motor (efferent) neuron or lower motor neuron (LMN), effector (target) organ
What forms the nerve plexuses?
interlacing ventral branches of the spinal nerves
What important nerve arises from the cervical and brachial plexuses, thus, in the neck; and supplies the diaphragm?
phrenic nerve
What plexus supplies some of the extrinsic and all of the intrinsic muscles of the thoracic limb?
brachial
What plexus supplies the abdominal wall, pelvic limb, external genitalia, rump and perineum?
lumbosacral plexus
What is a dermatome?
an area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve
What two muscles does the suprascapular nerve innervate?
supraspinatus and infraspinatus
Where does the radial nerve first reach the skin?
lateral arm, under the border of the lateral triceps (susceptible to injury)
What innervates the cutaneous trunci muscle?
lateral thoracic nerve
What nerve innervates the flexor of the elbow, and thus, is necessary for weight bearing?
radial nerve
What nerve supplies the extensors of the elbow, carpus, and digits?
radial nerve (extensor nerve)
What is the cutaneous innervation of the paw by the ulnar nerve?
abaxial 5th (lateral) digit
What is the large nerve crossing the heart to innervate the diaphragm?
phrenic nerve
What is a branch of the vagus nerve that returns to the neck?
recurrent laryngeal nerve
What does the recurrent laryngeal nerve innervate?
most laryngeal skeletal muscles
Which of these muscles is responsible in horses/dogs for roarers (laryngeal paralysis)?
cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
What nerves supply the intercostal muscles and most of the thoracic wall?
intercostal nerves (ventral branches of the thoracic nerves)
What nerve supplies motor innervation to the adductors of the thigh?
obturator nerve
What nerve innervates the extensors of the pelvic limb? What is the cutaneous innervation of this nerve?
common fibular (peroneal) nerve; dorsal pes
What is the cutaneous branch of the femoral nerve?
saphenous nerve (to the medial limb)
What nerve is required to bear weight on the pelvic limb?
femoral nerve (L4-6), extends the stifle
What nerve supplies the anus and the external anal sphincter?
caudal rectal nerve
What is a spinal cord segment?
portion demarcated by the pair of spinal nn. that arise from it
Name the 5 divisions of the spinal cord.
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, caudal
Name the 5 functional divisions of the spinal cord.
area 1/cervical (C1-5), area 2/brachial (C6-T2), area 3/thoracolumbar (T3-L3), area 4/pelvic limb (L4-S1), area 5/sacral and caudal (S2-Cn)
What is the central “H”-shaped mass of a spinal cord cross section?
gray matter (cell bodies give color)
Of what does white matter of the spinal cord consist?
myelinated axons running up and down the spinal cord
What are ascending and descending tracks of the spinal cord and what do they carry?
ascending: myelinated Afferent axons, sensory information
Descending: myelinated efferent axons of upper motor fibers
Where does the spinal cord end in the dog? Cat?
Dog: Above the vertebrae L6 (6-7); Cat: above the sacrum
Which spinal cord segment is the last one completely over the same named vertebrae?
L3
Where are upper motor neurons (UMN) located?
in the CNS (brain and spinal cord), descending to synapse on LMN
Where are lower motor neurons (LMN) located?
extending away from the spinal cord and brain to muscles or glands (from nerves)
Are spinal nerves lower or upper motor neurons?
LMN
What does the efferent neuron (LMN) of a reflex arc connect?
spinal cord with muscles or glands
The lower motor neuron can be ______ active.
spontaneously
What is the function of most UMNs (upper motor neurons)?
inhibit spontaneous activity of LMN until an action is desired
What is the function of proprioceptive fibers?
sense position of body parts to each other and to the environment
Over what structures do proprioceptive fibers travel? Thus, where is the lesion is proprioception is lost?
Peripheral nn., spinal cord, brain stem to cerebellum, and cerebrum; -any of the above structures, thus, it doesn’t localize the lesion but is a sensitive indication that there is a neuro problem
what structures carry superficial and deep pain snesory fibers?
peripheral nerve, spinal cord, brain stem, and cerebrum
List and describe the meninges.
3 connective tissue coverings that encircle the spinal cord and brain; 1.dura mater: the outer rough meniinx; 2.arachnoid: the middle meninx pushed against the inside of the dura matter; 3. Pia Matter: the inner most meninx, closely fused to the spinal cord and brain
List the clinically significant spaces associated with the meninges.
epidural space (between the vertebrae and the dura mater); subarachnoid space: between the pia and the arachnoid, it contains CSF
Describe the 2 expansions of the subarachnoid space used clinically.
cisterna magna: located between the caudal surface of the cerebellum and the dorsal surface of the medulla, just inside the foramen magnum; Lumbar cistern: surrounding the lumbar enlargement of the spinal cord
How is the brain divided functionally?
cerebrum/diencephalon (forebrain), brain stem, vestibular system, and cerebellum
What makes up the functional forebrain and what is its function?
cerebrum and diencephalon (higher functions and controls ANS and endocrine systems)
What is responsible for consciousness and arousal? Where is it located?
reticular activation system (RAS), brainstem
List three clinically significant parts of the brainstem?
cranial nn. 2-12, vital centers, and reticular activation system
Name the three vital reflex centers in the brainstem.
cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory
What is the function of the cerebellum?
coordinate movements, maintain equilibrium, and maintain posture
What is the function of the vestibular system?
controls posture and balance
For lesion localization how can the vestibular system be divided?
peripheral vestibular part (inner ear), central vestibular portion (brain stem), and centers in the cerebellum
What does contralateral and ipsilateral mean?
contralateral: opposite side; Ipsilateral: same side
Name the cranial nerves.
Olfactory (1), Optic (2), Oculomotor (3), Trochlear (4), Trigeminal (5), Abducens (6), Facial (7), Vestibulocochlear (8), Glossopharyngeal (9), Vagus (10), Accessory (spinal accessory) (11) and Hypoglossal (12)
What cranial nerve dealing with vision is entirely sensory (special sensory)?
optic nerve (CrN 2)
What cranial nerves move the eye?
Oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI)
What is the function of the parasympathetic fibers of the oculomotor nerve?
motor involuntary/smooth muscles of the eye (constrict the pupil and near focus of the lens)
What does the trigeminal nerve (CrN 5) innervate?
sensory to most of the head by the 3 branches and motor to the muscles of mastication
What does the facial nerve (CrN 7) innervate?
muscles of facial expression (including orbicularis occuli and eyelids), lacrimal gland (ANS), and taste
What does the auriculopalpebral nerve (br. of CrN 7) innervate?
eyelid (and ear) muscles
What are the most important functions of the facial nerve clinically?
motor to the orbicularis oculi m. and the lacrimal gland (dry eye)
Where are the buccal branches of the facial nerve?
cross the masseter m. laterally and superficially
What makes up the trigeminal/facial reflex arc?
trigeminal nerve: sensory component; Facial nerve: motor component
What is the eighth cranial nerve? With what does it deal?
vetibulocochlear nerve, hearing and balance/motion
What cranial nerve carries autonomic nerve fibers between the brain and the viscera of the thorax and abdomen?
vagus
What motor nerves supply the pharynx to aid in swallowing?
vagus (X) and glossopharyngeal (IX) nerves
What is the recurrent laryngeal nerve? What does it innervate?
branch of the vagus, arises in the thorax and extends back to the larynx to innervate the skeletal muscles of the larynx, including the circoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
what clinically important nerves pass through the middle ear?
facial nerve and sympathetic fibers
What type of nerve fibers does the hypoglossal (CrN 12) carry? What does it innervate?
Motor nerve (somatic); Tongue mm
Parasympathetic fibers are carried over what four cranial nerves?
3, 7, 9, 10: Oculomotor, facial, glossphayngeal
How does the autonomic nervous system (ANS) work?
without conscious effort t omaintain the homeostasis of the organism
What structures does the ANS regulate?
smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, and glands
What is the function of each division of the ANS?
parasympathetic: energy conseving (couch potato); Sympathetic: energy spending (flight or fight)
Where do the two divisions of the ANS arise?
S: Thoracolumabr outflow; P: craniosacral outflow
How does the ANS differ structurally from the somatic nervous system?
2 lower motor (efferent) neurons instead of one
What are the two lower motor neurons of the ANS?
preganglionic and postganglionic
Where does the preganglionic fiber synapse with the postganglionic efferent fiber in relationship to the CNS?
in ganglia dist to/outside of the CNS
What is the parasympathetic innervation to the thorax and most of the abdomen?
Vagus nerve - cranial nerve 10 (X)
What is the third eyelid
Fold covering a T-Shaped cartilage in the medial commissure
What is the gland of the third eye lid
Accessory gland surrounding the cartilage of the third eyelid
What are the two spaces of the eyeball filled with aqueous humor
Anterior and posterior chamber
What moves the eyeball
Extrinsic muscle of the eye ball
What innervated the orbicularis oculi
facial nerve (CrN 7)
What are the three tunics of the eyeball from the inside to the outside
Fibrous, vascular, nervous
What are the two components of the fibrious tunic
Cornea and Sclera (white)
What is the connection between the cornea and sclera
Corneoscleral junction (limbus)
What is the specialized area of the choroid which reflects light back into the eyeball, increasing vision in low light? (night vision)
Tapetal area (tapetum lucidum)
Where is the tapetum lucidum located
Superiolateral to optic disc
Excluding the optic nerve, which nerve is sensory from the eyball
Trigeminal nerve, CrN5
What side of the body or limbs are the following anatomical landmarks (expanded) in which view(s)–the next 15 cards
a
apex of the heart
left (VD/ DV/ ventral (L)
gas bubble in the fundus of the stomach
left (DV)/dorsal (L)
Descending colon
left (VD/DV)
Caudal kidney
left (DV/VD), caudal (L)
Anticlinal vertebra - vertical vertebrae
usually T11 in dogs (L)
Head of the humerus
caudal (L)
Radius
cranial (L)
Olecranon
caudal (L)
Distal end of the ulna
lateral / caudal (L)
Accessory carpal bone
lateral & palmar (DP, L, Ob)
Dew claw
medial (CrCa)
Patella
cranial (L)
Fibula
lateral (CrCa)
Calcaneus
lateral & plantar (DP, L, Oblique)
Fourth tarsal (2-story) bone
lateral (DP)
When do the majority of the physes of the limbs close? What are the exceptions?
by 1 year, except the iliac crest (1-2.5 yrs.) and the pelvic symphysis (5-6 yrs.) and possibly the head of the humerus
What are the last physes of the shoulder and stifle to close?
head of the humerus (13 mo.) and the tibial tuberosity
When does the physis of the anconeal process close?
4-6 months (considered ununited if open at 6 mo.)
What is the landmark for locating the heart valves during auscultation?
olecranon/point of the elbow in the 5th intercostal space
What is failur of the anconeal process to fuse with the ulna by six months of age?
ununited anconeal process
What improper development commonly leads to arthritis of the elbow?
fragmented medial coronoid process
What small sesamoid bone on the medial side of the carpus may be mistaken for a chip fracture when seen in radiographs?
sesamoid bone of the oblique carpal extensor (abductor pollicus longus) tendon
What must be removed when declawing to prevent regrowth?
dorsal part of the ungual crest
Fracture name for bone twisted apart.
spiral fracture
What fractures do and do not penetrate through the skin?
compound do, simple don’t
Fracture where a bone of the skull is pushed inward.
depressed fracture
What is the name for the separation of a small fragment of bone where a ligament or tendon attaches?
avulsion fracture
Fracture that is a small piece of bone chipped off a bone.
chip fracture
Flat piece of bone separates, common in horse carpal bones
slab fracture
Fracture that splinters into many fragments.
Comminuted fractures
Fracture where the broken end of the bone are driven into each other.
impacted fracture
What is inflammation or infection of bone?
osteomyelitis, osteitis
What is a piece of dead bone separated from the rest of the bone in osteomyelitis (it must be removed to heal)?
sequestrum
Name three of four common sources to harvest cancellous bone?
tibial tuberosity, greater tubercle of the humerus, greater trochanter of the femur, wing of the ileum
Why is the median nerve more in danger in the cat than dog if the humerus is fractured? CAT
it is in the supracondylar canal
What muscles must be transected to remove the entire forelimb, including the scapula?
all the extrinsic muscle of the forelimb
What is atrophy of suprspinatus and infraspinatus muscles causing a prominent scapular spine called, and what causes it?
Sweeney, suprascapular nerve damage
What results from radial nerve paralysis of the extensors of the thoracic limb?
inability to stand (the triceps can’t extend the elbow), knuckling over of the digits
What is the most important layer that must be opposed when closing a paramedian midline incision?
external rectus sheath
What is the most important structure to close in a midline incision?
linea alba
How would you locate the trachea for an emergency tracheostomy?
skin incision in the ventral neck, separate the strap muscles
What muscle and nerve must be functional to bear weight on the pelvic limb?
quadriceps m., femoral nerve
What muscles are paralysed with obturator nerve damage, resulting in lateral slipping on a slick surface?
adductor muscle
Why does an animal knuckle over on the pelvic limb with fibular (peroneal) nerve damage?
paralysis of the crural extensors - digits
What is the only laryngeal muscle which opens the glottic cleft?
cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
What muscles must work for the ability to bear weight on the fore- and rear limbs?
triceps brachii and quadratus femoris
What muscles does the facial nerve innervate? Which is of clinical significance?
Muscles of facial expression, including the oribularis oculi muscle; contributes to dry eye
What muscles are responsible for the animal to rise once down?
adductor muscles; obturator nerve
What is the clinical significance of the longus colli muscle?
bundles converge indicating the midline for cervical defenestration of a ruptured disc
What is a sign of the madibular nerve and why?
dropped jaw due to paralysis of the muscles of mastication (trigeminal nerve, CrN 5)
What causes paralysis of the pharyngeal muscles, and what is a test for it?
paralysis of vagus and or pharyngeal nerves, can’t elicit gag response
What results in swelling or draining (pus) below the carnivore’s eye?
carnassial tooth abscess (upper P4)
How is aging dogs by their teeth used practical?
baby teeth in by 6 weeks vaccination; by 6 moths Spay/ Neuter
Which dog teeth have three roots?
last 3 on top
Which permanent tooth in a cat has 3 roots?
upper PM4 (carnassial)
How is a nasogastric tube placed?
through the nostril and ventral nasal meatus or it will break the ethmoid turbinates=nasal bleeding (epistaxis)
A laryngotomy to open the larynx goes through which paired muscles to expose the larynx?
sternohyoid mm., middle “strap muscle”
The esophagus is accessible to surgery in the ____ half of the neck region on the ____ side.
caudal; left
What surgical landmark indicates the ventral midline of the larynx?
cricothyroideus or bow tie muscle
Paralysis of what muscle results in “roarers” in horses?
cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
How is a tranquilized dog intubated?
gently pull the tongue rostrally, push the soft palate up with the endotracheal tube, hold the epiglottis down with the tube, direct the tube between the vocal folds into the trachea
What causes laryngeal paralysis (dog and horses)?
damage to the recurrent laryngeal n. = paralysis of the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle (only muscle to open the glottic cleft), = roaring sound when breathing
What is a roarer?
dog or horse with laryngeal paralysis due to recurrent laryngeal nerve damage and resulting paralysis of the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
Which is the most important layer that must be opposed when closing a paramedian midline incision?
external rectus sheath
What is the most important structure to close in a midline incision?
linea alba
What is an incision opening the abdomen called?
laparotomy or celiotomy incision
Name the structures that can be visualized through a xiphoid to pubic celiotomy incision without manipulation, and give their locations.
cranial: falciform ligament; Middle: greater omentum tail of the spleen; Caudal: bladder
What abdominal structures can be used to orient abdominal organ locations in your mind and during surgery?
descending duodenum: right side mind; Cecum: surgery, find (blind end) then locate other parts of the intestine in relationship to it
How are the abdominal gutters visualized?
pull the duodenum and mesoduodenum or colon and mesocolon medially, packing off the rest of the viscera, to see the right or left “gutters” respectively
How would you locate a bleeding ovarian stump during a spay?
pull the descending duodenum or descending colon and their respective mesentery medially and look in the abdominal gutter caudal to the kidney
What must be ligated when doing a ovariohysterectomy or spay?
ovarian and uterine arteries
How is the ovary moved into the abdominal incision during a spay?
strum the suspensory ligament until it breaks
How does the conformation of the bitch’s genital tract affect how artificially inseminating or speculum exam is performed?
ventral slope of the caudal reproductive tract = canula or speculum passed dorsally against the dorsal/caudal wall of the vestibule (the instrument tip will be seen pushing the skin of the peritoneum), by passing the clitoral fossa and external urethral orifice; then over the pelvic symphysis and parallel to the symphysis to the opening of the cervix (not into the fornix of the vagina)
What may be mistaken for the opening of the cervix during artificial insemination?
fornix of the vagina
How many castration incisions are usually made in the dog? Where and why?
one; cranial to the scrotum, to minimize irritation and swelling of the scrotum
What is failure of the testicle to enter the scrotum?
cryptorchidism
When do the testicles descend into the carnivores?
shortly after birth
Define “open” and “closed” castration referred to as applied to castration?
closed = spermatic cord ligated before the parietal vaginal tunic cut; opened = parietal vaginal tunic cut before the spermatic cord ligated
What type of castration would you perform, open or closed, if the environment wasn’t sterile? Why?
Open, so if infection gets in, it can drain out; if closed, an infection will remain in abdomen (there is always possibility of infection)
Define phimosis and paraphimosis.
Stenotic (constricted) prepuce in both, Phimosis: cant protude penis, Paraphimosis penis cant retract
Where do calculi/concretion usually lodge to obstruct the urethra in the dog?
proximal to the os penis
What is FUS, feline urolithiasis, “plugged-tomcat” syndrome?
calculi blocking the urethra, common emergency in the tomcat. must be unblocked and urine allowed to escape or death
What would be seen in right side heart (pulmonic circulation) problems?
blood back up into the body (caudal vena cava, filling the abdomen with fluid [ascites] and into the jugular vein, resulting in a jugular pulse or distention in some species)
What would be seen with problems to the left side of the heart?
blood backs up into the lungs (congestion), resulting in coughing and dyspnea (difficult breathing)
What is the cranial part of the heart silhouette in a lateral radiograph?
right ventricle (passes from right to left around the cranial side of the heart)
Where is the intercostal space incised to open the thorax and why?
in the center to avoid the vessels caudal to the ribs
What vessels are of concern in midsternal thoracotomies?
internal thoracic artery and vein
How is the intestine cut when doing a resection and anastomoses?
angle cuts toward lesion (antimesenteric > mesenteric side of removed piece)
What is the surgical opening of the stomach and where should it be performed? (Why?)
Gastrotomy, between the two curvatures, (minimal blood vessels)
What vessel in the roof of the mouth can be opened when extracting teeth?
major palatine artery
Why can’t a tourniquet be effectively used in the middle of the antebrachium?
caudal interosseous artery is protected from occlusion by its deep position between the bones
What vessels are ligated when doing a spay?
vaginal (uterine?) and ovarian vessels
What vessel is used as a landmark to find the adrenal gland?
phrenicoabdominal vein
What veins are commonly used to bleed cattle?
median caudal (tail) vein, jugular vein
To where do neoplastic cells metastasize in the lymph channels?
through heart to lungs
To where do hematogenous metastases from the abdominal GI organs go?
via portal vein to liver
To where to neoplastic cells metastasize via lymphatics or all veins except those forming the portal vein?
through heart to lungs
Where is the heart located in relationship to the intercostal spaces?
between 2 (3)-5 (6) intercostal space
How does the olecranon and the intercostal spaces relate when standing?
olecranon roughly at 5th intercostal space or 5th rib
What is a memory aid for the heart valves’ points of maximum intensity?
PAM 345, rt. AV
why can a broken neck result in respiratory paralysis?
Phrenic nerve to the diaphragm arises from the cervical and brachial plexuses
What is the panniculus (cutaneous trunci) response?
contraction of the cutaneous trunci muscle in response to a pin prick of the trunch
What is the reflex arch for the panniculus response
sensation form the skin of the trunk over the thoracic and lumbar spinal nn. to the spinal cord, up the cord to the lateral thoracic nerve, out to the cutaneous trunci muscle
Clinically, what is the panniculus response used to evaluate?
level of the thoracic spinal cord damage
Where is the spinal cord damage if the panniculus response is absent caudal to the level of the twelfth thoracic vertebrae?
level of T10
For standing large animal flank surgeries, what must be blocked?
both the dorsal and ventral branches of the abdominal nerves (as the dorsal branches are sensory to the top of the flank)
What nerve must be considered when removing the anal glands? Why?
Caudal rectal nerve; Damage can result in paralysis of the exterior anal sphincter, thus, fecal incontinence
Why is paralysis of the orbicularis oculi and loss of lacrimation the most vital results of facial nerve paralysis?
drying of eye, animals not vain (facial paralysis)
Describe the pathophysiology of a laryngeal hemiplegia/roarer/recurrent laryngeal n. damage.
paralysis of the recurrent laryngeal nerve and thus the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis m., (opens the glottic cleft), resulting in a roaring sound when breathing
What is a common serious injury of all the nerves of the forelimb?
complete avulsion (tearing) of the brachial plexus associated with HBC (hit by car)
What are the signs of complete avulsion of the brachial plexus?
complete paralysis, extended flaccid limb, unable to support weight and dragging dorsum of paw
What is Sweeney?
damage to the suprascapular nerve, resulting in paralysis of the supraspinatus and infraspinaturs muscles acutely, thus, lateral instability of the shoulder joint. With time muscle atrophy corrects the instability, but results in a prominent scapular spine most common in horses
What is the most common and clinically significant nerve problem of the forelimb?
radial paralysis
What are the two types of radial nerve injury?
high and low radial nerve injury
What are the signs of high radial nerve paralysis?
inability to bear weight on the limb, dropped elbow and knuckling over on the digits;
Signs of low radial nerve damage?
knuckling over digits
What sensory loss is diagnostic for radial nerve injury?
loss of sensation on dorsal manus
What results from femoral nerve injury and why?
can’t bear weight, can’t extend stifle-analgesia to medial limb (saphenous nerve)
Injury to which nerve causes lateral slipping on a slick surface?
obturator nerve
What are the signs of fibular (peroneal) nerve damage?
knuckling over, analgesia of the dorsal pes
How does an animal compensate for peroneal nerve damage?
by flipping the paw as advanced
What is peroneal (fibular) nerve paralysis similar to in the thoracic limb?
low radial nerve paralysis, knuckling over
What is an iatrogenic cause of ischiatic nerve damage, what does it result in?
IM injection in the rear limb, resulting in paresis/paralysis of the rear limb
What is a CSF tap and where is it done?
removal of cerebrospinal fluid
Where is a CSF tap done?
from subarachnoid space
What is epidural anesthesia?
anesthetize the spinal nn. in the epidural space
Where is epidural anesthesia commonly given?
through lumbosacral opening (L7-S1) into the epidural space
How do you screen for neurological problems?
observing
Define proprioception.
sensing movements and position of body parts
What is the most common postural reaction used to screen for neurological problems?
proprioceptive positioning (knuckling)
What neuro screening test indicates a neurological problem but doesn’t localize where the problem is?
proprioceptive positioning (knuckling), postural reaction, (also gait and strength observation)
What does loss of proprioception tell you clinically?
Doesn’t localize, but a sensitive indication of neurological problem
Where is the problem if there are proprioceptive deficits?
anywhere along the proprioceptive pathway
Why is mental attitude/consciousness, behavior, and seizures observed in a neuroscreening test?
screen for cerebrum and brain stem problems
What does observation of stance and head position of a neuroscreening test check?
cerebellar problem
What abnormal stance and head position indicate neurological problems (cerebellum/vestibular system)?
head tilt, wide based stance; head tremor/bobbing
Define ataxia.
lack of coordinated movements with or without spasticity or paresis
What can cause ataxia?
lesions of the entire nervous system, not specific, shows up frequently, indicative of a nervous problem
What does gait and strength observation evaluate?
entire nervous system
What does abnormalities in gait indicate in a neurological screening?
nervous system problem (cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem, spinal cord, peripheral nerves, or vestibular lesions)
Do gait abnormalities localize a neurological lesion?
no, just a neurological problem that can be anywhere
How is strength tested during a neurological exam?
push down on the standing animal
What does weakness indicate during a neurological screening?
nervous problem somewhere other than the cerebellum or peripheral vestibular system (cerebrum, brain stem or spinal cord injuries, peripheral nerves)
What is the only part of the nervous system that will not result in weakness?
cerebellum (and peripheral vestibular system)
What is done once screening indicates a neurological problem?
do other procedures to localize the lesion
Define paralysis.
complete loss of motor activity
Define paresis.
weakness, partial loss of voluntary motor activity
Differentiate flaccid and spastic paresis or paralysis.
flaccid: decreased or no tone in the muscles; Spastic: increased tone/hypertonicity
What is the affect of UMNs damage on LMNs?
LMNs increase their activity
To where do LMN signs localize the lesion?
peripheral nerves, spinal cord or segment of brain stem the LMN arises from
Define: flaccid paresis or paralysis
Decreased or no tone with paresis or paraysis due to lesions of UMN
Define: spastic paresis or paralysis
Extra tone (hypertonicity) with paresis or paralysis due to lesions of UMN
What does pointing your thumb down in LMN damage indicate?
everything decreased or disappears
List 4 LMN disease signs (thumb down).
decreased or absent tone (hypotonia to atonia); decreased to absent reflexes (hypo- to areflexia); flaccid paralysis; rapid (neurogenic) atrophy
List 4 UMN disease signs (thumb up)
normal to increased muscle tone; Normal to increased reflexes hyereflexia; spastic paresis to paralysis; slow (disuse) atrophy
How are the reflexes checked for the limbs?
withdrawal reflex
How is a withdrawal reflex performed?
pinch (pain) the toe; normal response=withdrawal of the limb
How is tone evaluated?
palpate the muscles of the limbs
Define Schiff-Sherington syndrome.
hyperextension of the forelimbs with serious lesions to the thoracic spinal cord (T3-L3) (area 3)
What causes Schiff-Sherrington syndrome?
serious damage to area L1-4 removes inhibition normally provided by neurons (in L1-4) ascending to inhibit extensor lower motor neurons to the forelimb
What sign is indicative of serious lesions in T3-L3?
Schiff-Sherrington syndrome (hyperextension of forelimbs)
What type of sign is Schiff-Scherrington syndrome?
bad prognostically
Localize the lesion: flaccis paraylsis, absent felexes and tone, and rapid atrophy to the pelvic limbs with normal thoracic limbs
L4-S1 spinal cord lesion (area 4) (lMS signs to pelvic limbs, normal thoracic limbs)
Localize the lesion: spastic paresis, increased refelexes and tone to the left thoracic limb
Unilateral C6-T1 (area2) on the left (LMN left thoracic and UMN: left pelvic limb)
