Anatomy Before and After Clinical Flashcards
1
Q
What is the palpable caudal end of the skull used as a landmark?
A
external occipital protuberance
2
Q
What are the palpable lateral processes just caudal to the skull?
A
wings of the atlas
3
Q
What part of the hyoid apparatus crosses the ventral midline and is seen in lateral radiographs of the head?
A
basihyoid bone
4
Q
What are the enlarged transverse processes that are identifiable in radiographs of the cervical region?
A
sled of sixth cervical vertebrae
5
Q
What is usually the 11th thoracic vertebrae with the most vertically oriented spine used as a landmark for back radiographs?
A
anticlinal vertebrae
6
Q
What is the dorsal gap between the arches of contiguous vertebral arches used as an access point to the vertebral canal for epidurals?
A
interarcuate space
7
Q
What projects laterally from the scapula and is palpable?
A
spine of the scapula
8
Q
What is the distal end of the spine of the scapula?
A
acromion
9
Q
what is the ventral part of the acromion in the cat?
A
suprahamate process
10
Q
What is the origin of the biceps brachii ml on the scapula that can be fractured?
A
supraglenoid tubercle
11
Q
What is the palpable cranial most part of the shoulder region of the thoracic limb?
A
greater tubercle or point of the shoulder
12
Q
What is the canal in the medial epicondyle of the cat humerus that carries the median n. and brachial vessels?
A
supracondylar canal (foramen)
13
Q
What is the bony landmark located in the fifth intercostal space in the standing animal?
A
olecranon, point of the elbow
14
Q
What is the proximal end of the notch (trochlear) of the ulna?
A
anconeal process
15
Q
What is the distal end of the notch (trochlear) of the ulna?
A
medial coronoid process
16
Q
What small sesamoid bone may be located on the medial side of the carpus?
A
sesamoid bone of the oblique carpal extensor (abductor pollicus longus) tendon
17
Q
What is a landmark for the medial side of the manus and pes, if it is present?
A
dewclaw
18
Q
What bony process holds the horny claw?
A
ungual crest
19
Q
What is the palpable part of the hip bone caudal to the flank?
A
tuber coxae/point of the hip
20
Q
What is the palpable caudal end of the hip bone?
A
ischial tuber/ ischiatic tuberosity/ pinbone
21
Q
What is the palpable lateral structure of the proximal femur?
A
greater trochanter
22
Q
What is the palpable proximal end of the tibia?
A
tibial tuberosity
23
Q
What is the distal end of the fibula?
A
lateral malleolus
24
Q
List the sesamoid bones of the stifle.
A
patella, 2 sesamoid of the gastrocnemius muscle and sesamoid in the tendon of origin of the popliteal muscle
25
Define extrinsic and intrinsic muscles and give an example.
extrinsic: attache structure to body; intrinsic: both attachments to the structure (ex., thoracic limb, eye, larynx have both extrinsic and intrinsic muscles)
26
What nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles?
suprascapular nerve
27
What nerve innervates almost all the extensors of the thoracic limb?
radial nerve
28
What are the two groups of forearm muscles? What are their location?
Extensors of digits and carpus (craniolateral), flexors of the digits and carpus (caudal)
29
What are the insertions of the deep digital flexor (DDF) and the superficial digital flexor (SDF) muscles?
DDF: Distal Phalanges; SDF proximal to SDF
30
What is the rectus sheath?
aponeruoses of the abdominal mm. around the rectus abdominis muscle
31
What muscles cover the trachea ventrally?
two paired "strap muscles" (sternohyoideus and sternothyroideus muscles)
32
What muscles are above and below the transverse processes of the vertebrae?
epaxial muscles (dorsal), hypaxial muscles (ventral) (eg., longus colli m. in the neck is a hypaxial muscle)
33
What are the extensors of the stifle and what innervates them?
cranial thigh (quadriceps) muscles, femoral nerve
34
What is the action and innervation of the medial thigh muscles?
adduction, obturator nerve
35
What are the actions of the crural muscles?
craniolateral: extensors of digits and flexor of the tarsus (called extensors); Caudal: flexors of the digits and extensors of the tarsus
36
What is the innervation of the extensor muscles of the crus?
craniolateral extensors: common fibular nerve
37
What nerve innervates the thin muscles of facial expression?
facial nerve (CrN 7)
38
What is the muscle of facial expression that encircles the eye? What innervates it?
orbicularis oculi m.; facial n. (auriculopalpebral branch)
39
What nerve is sensory to the three areas of the face and motor to the muscles of mastication?
trigeminal nerve (CrN 5, all 3 divisions); -Motor mastication muscles: mandibular division
40
What is the motor innervation to the muscles of the tongue?
hypoglossal n. (cranial n. 12)
41
What is the function of the cutaneous muscles?
twitch skin (shoo flies away)
42
What separates the respiratory and digestive passages in the head?
hard and soft palates
43
Name the four types of permanent teeth and give their abbreviations.
Incisors (I), canine (C), premolars (PM), and molars (M)
44
What are the three division of the pharynx/throat (common passageway for the digestive and respiratory systems)?
oro-, naso-, and laryngopharynx
45
What structure separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?
soft palate
46
Name the lymphoid tissue in the lateral wall of the oropharynx.
palatine tonsil
47
What is the largest meatus located between the ventral nasal concha and the hard palate?
ventral nasal meatus
48
What is the unpaired hyoid bone that crosses the midline?
basihyoid bone
49
What does the pull of cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle on the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage do?
swings the vocal process and vocal cords laterally, thus, opening the glottic cleft
50
What is the only laryngeal muscle which opens the glottic cleft?
cricoarytenoideus dorsalis
51
What is the narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity?
glottic cleft
52
To which side of the trachea does the esophagus incline in the middle of the neck?
left
53
How does the cavity of the bony thorax relate to the thoracic cavity?
larger, dome of the diaphragm extends into the bony thorax to the 6th intercostal space (encases abdomen)
54
the descending duodenum is on which side of the abdomen?
right
55
Where is the cecum located?
right side
56
List three different types of peritoneum.
Parietal (wall), visceral, and connecting
57
How are many mesenteries (connecting peritoneum) named?
meso + organ connected
58
Where are the ovaries located in the carnivores?
caudal to the kidneys in the sublumbar region
59
What is the suspensory ligament in carnivores?
part of the broad ligament connecting the ovary to the last 1 or 2 ribs
60
What is the fornix of the vagina?
Ventral recess formed by the cervix projecting into the vagina.
61
Describe the location and appearance of the cat's scrotum.
perineal (close to anus), densely covered by hair
62
What is the relationship of the ductus deferens to the ureters?
loops dorsally over the ureters ("water under bridge")
63
What is the inguinal canal?
passageway through the caudal abdominal wall
64
Name the three main parts of the vaginal serosal tunic or the spermatic cord.
visceral, parietal, and connecting vaginal tunic
65
The vaginal cavity of the spermatic cord is continuous with the __________ at the vaginal ring.
peritoneal cavity
66
On which side of the spermatic cord is the ductus deferens?
medial
67
Which specific large veins return blood from (roughly) the cranial and caudal part of the body directly to the heart?
cranial vena cava and caudal vena cava
68
What are the chambers of the heart in the order they receive blood?
right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle
69
Which side of the heart is part of the pulmonic circulation?
right side
70
Which side of the heart is part of the systemic circulation?
left side
71
What is the outflow of the heart (left side) to the body?
aorta
72
What arteries travel up the neck to supply the head and face?
common carotid arteries
73
Which veins return blood from the head and neck?
external jugular veins
74
Name the three unpaired branches of the abdominal aorta.
celiac, cranial, and caudal mesenteric arteries
75
Name the main branches (arteries) of the terminal aorta.
2 external iliac (to the pelvic limb), 2 internal iliac (to the pelvis), and 1 median sacral ( to the tail)
76
What is the main artery supplying the uterus?
uterine artery off vaginal
77
What vessels supply the ventral abdominal wall? Where do they run?
Cranial and caudal epigastric vessels; on the ventral abdomen, on either side of the midline
78
What is the direct continuation of the external iliac artery out of the abdominal cavity to the pelvic limb for which it is the main supply?
femoral artery
79
What is the vascular supply to the ovary?
ovarian artery and vein (in mesovarium)
80
What is the large vein draining the intestine to the sinusoids of the liver?
portal vein
81
Where do the ovarian or testicular veins drain?
right: into the caudal vena cava; left: into the left renal vein (to avoid crossing the aorta)
82
Which vessel crosses the ventral surface of the adrenal gland, and thus, is a surgical landmark for finding this structure?
phrenicoabdominal vein
83
Where is the cephalic vein located?
on the cranial surface of the forearm
84
What is the vein on the ventral surface of the tail that is the direct continuation of the median sacral vein?
median caudal vein
85
What are the two superficial veins of the pelvis limb?
medial and lateral saphenous veins
86
What vein is on either side of the ventral surface of the tongue?
lingual vein (sublingual vein is on the floor of the mouth)
87
Describe the thoracic duct.
the major lymphatic vessel returning most of the lymph collected in the body back into the general circulation at the venous angle
88
What lymph node is located near the end of the aorta above the descending colon?
medial iliac lymph nodes
89
How is the nervous system (NS) divided functionally?
somatic (body) and autonomic (ANS, visceral system) nervous sytems
90
How is the nervous system divided structurally?
central (CNS) and peripheral nervous systems (PNS)
91
Which functional division of the nervous system keeps the body in balance with its external and internal environment, respectively?
external: Somatic; Internal: autonomic
92
What are the two parts of the central nervous system (CNS)?
brain and spinal cord
93
What are the parts of the peripheral nervous system?
cranial and spinal nerves and ganglia
94
What are the two impulses of the nervous system, both somatic and autonomic?
sensory (afferent) and motor (efferent)
95
What nervous structures pass from the spinal cord to the periphery?
spinal nerves (LMN, lower motor neurons)
96
Where do the spinal nerves leave the vertebral column?
intervertebral foramen
97
What arises from the spinal cord to form a spinal nerve?
dorsal (sensory) and ventral (motor) roots
98
What are the two main branches of spinal nerves? (What do they carry?)
dorsal and ventral branches, (mixed: motor and sensoty fibers)
99
What areas do the ventral and dorsal motor branches of the spinal nerves supply motor innervation?
Ventral: muscles ventral to the transverse process of the vertebrae; Dorsal: muscles dorsal t the transverse proces, sensory inervation not exactly the same
100
What spinal nerve branches supply sensation from the skin of the abdominal wall and back?
dorsal
101
List the components of a reflex arc.
stimulus, receptor, sensory (afferent) neuron, interneuron, motor (efferent) neuron or lower motor neuron (LMN), effector (target) organ
102
What forms the nerve plexuses?
interlacing ventral branches of the spinal nerves
103
What important nerve arises from the cervical and brachial plexuses, thus, in the neck; and supplies the diaphragm?
phrenic nerve
104
What plexus supplies some of the extrinsic and all of the intrinsic muscles of the thoracic limb?
brachial
105
What plexus supplies the abdominal wall, pelvic limb, external genitalia, rump and perineum?
lumbosacral plexus
106
What is a dermatome?
an area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve
107
What two muscles does the suprascapular nerve innervate?
supraspinatus and infraspinatus
108
Where does the radial nerve first reach the skin?
lateral arm, under the border of the lateral triceps (susceptible to injury)
109
What innervates the cutaneous trunci muscle?
lateral thoracic nerve
110
What nerve innervates the flexor of the elbow, and thus, is necessary for weight bearing?
radial nerve
111
What nerve supplies the extensors of the elbow, carpus, and digits?
radial nerve (extensor nerve)
112
What is the cutaneous innervation of the paw by the ulnar nerve?
abaxial 5th (lateral) digit
113
What is the large nerve crossing the heart to innervate the diaphragm?
phrenic nerve
114
What is a branch of the vagus nerve that returns to the neck?
recurrent laryngeal nerve
115
What does the recurrent laryngeal nerve innervate?
most laryngeal skeletal muscles
116
Which of these muscles is responsible in horses/dogs for roarers (laryngeal paralysis)?
cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
117
What nerves supply the intercostal muscles and most of the thoracic wall?
intercostal nerves (ventral branches of the thoracic nerves)
118
What nerve supplies motor innervation to the adductors of the thigh?
obturator nerve
119
What nerve innervates the extensors of the pelvic limb? What is the cutaneous innervation of this nerve?
common fibular (peroneal) nerve; dorsal pes
120
What is the cutaneous branch of the femoral nerve?
saphenous nerve (to the medial limb)
121
What nerve is required to bear weight on the pelvic limb?
femoral nerve (L4-6), extends the stifle
122
What nerve supplies the anus and the external anal sphincter?
caudal rectal nerve
123
What is a spinal cord segment?
portion demarcated by the pair of spinal nn. that arise from it
124
Name the 5 divisions of the spinal cord.
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, caudal
125
Name the 5 functional divisions of the spinal cord.
area 1/cervical (C1-5), area 2/brachial (C6-T2), area 3/thoracolumbar (T3-L3), area 4/pelvic limb (L4-S1), area 5/sacral and caudal (S2-Cn)
126
What is the central "H"-shaped mass of a spinal cord cross section?
gray matter (cell bodies give color)
127
Of what does white matter of the spinal cord consist?
myelinated axons running up and down the spinal cord
128
What are ascending and descending tracks of the spinal cord and what do they carry?
ascending: myelinated Afferent axons, sensory information
Descending: myelinated efferent axons of upper motor fibers
129
Where does the spinal cord end in the dog? Cat?
Dog: Above the vertebrae L6 (6-7); Cat: above the sacrum
130
Which spinal cord segment is the last one completely over the same named vertebrae?
L3
131
Where are upper motor neurons (UMN) located?
in the CNS (brain and spinal cord), descending to synapse on LMN
132
Where are lower motor neurons (LMN) located?
extending away from the spinal cord and brain to muscles or glands (from nerves)
133
Are spinal nerves lower or upper motor neurons?
LMN
134
What does the efferent neuron (LMN) of a reflex arc connect?
spinal cord with muscles or glands
135
The lower motor neuron can be ______ active.
spontaneously
136
What is the function of most UMNs (upper motor neurons)?
inhibit spontaneous activity of LMN until an action is desired
137
What is the function of proprioceptive fibers?
sense position of body parts to each other and to the environment
138
Over what structures do proprioceptive fibers travel? Thus, where is the lesion is proprioception is lost?
Peripheral nn., spinal cord, brain stem to cerebellum, and cerebrum; -any of the above structures, thus, it doesn't localize the lesion but is a sensitive indication that there is a neuro problem
139
what structures carry superficial and deep pain snesory fibers?
peripheral nerve, spinal cord, brain stem, and cerebrum
140
List and describe the meninges.
3 connective tissue coverings that encircle the spinal cord and brain; 1.dura mater: the outer rough meniinx; 2.arachnoid: the middle meninx pushed against the inside of the dura matter; 3. Pia Matter: the inner most meninx, closely fused to the spinal cord and brain
141
List the clinically significant spaces associated with the meninges.
epidural space (between the vertebrae and the dura mater); subarachnoid space: between the pia and the arachnoid, it contains CSF
142
Describe the 2 expansions of the subarachnoid space used clinically.
cisterna magna: located between the caudal surface of the cerebellum and the dorsal surface of the medulla, just inside the foramen magnum; Lumbar cistern: surrounding the lumbar enlargement of the spinal cord
143
How is the brain divided functionally?
cerebrum/diencephalon (forebrain), brain stem, vestibular system, and cerebellum
144
What makes up the functional forebrain and what is its function?
cerebrum and diencephalon (higher functions and controls ANS and endocrine systems)
145
What is responsible for consciousness and arousal? Where is it located?
reticular activation system (RAS), brainstem
146
List three clinically significant parts of the brainstem?
cranial nn. 2-12, vital centers, and reticular activation system
147
Name the three vital reflex centers in the brainstem.
cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory
148
What is the function of the cerebellum?
coordinate movements, maintain equilibrium, and maintain posture
149
What is the function of the vestibular system?
controls posture and balance
150
For lesion localization how can the vestibular system be divided?
peripheral vestibular part (inner ear), central vestibular portion (brain stem), and centers in the cerebellum
151
What does contralateral and ipsilateral mean?
contralateral: opposite side; Ipsilateral: same side
152
Name the cranial nerves.
Olfactory (1), Optic (2), Oculomotor (3), Trochlear (4), Trigeminal (5), Abducens (6), Facial (7), Vestibulocochlear (8), Glossopharyngeal (9), Vagus (10), Accessory (spinal accessory) (11) and Hypoglossal (12)
153
What cranial nerve dealing with vision is entirely sensory (special sensory)?
optic nerve (CrN 2)
154
What cranial nerves move the eye?
Oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI)
155
What is the function of the parasympathetic fibers of the oculomotor nerve?
motor involuntary/smooth muscles of the eye (constrict the pupil and near focus of the lens)
156
What does the trigeminal nerve (CrN 5) innervate?
sensory to most of the head by the 3 branches and motor to the muscles of mastication
157
What does the facial nerve (CrN 7) innervate?
muscles of facial expression (including orbicularis occuli and eyelids), lacrimal gland (ANS), and taste
158
What does the auriculopalpebral nerve (br. of CrN 7) innervate?
eyelid (and ear) muscles
159
What are the most important functions of the facial nerve clinically?
motor to the orbicularis oculi m. and the lacrimal gland (dry eye)
160
Where are the buccal branches of the facial nerve?
cross the masseter m. laterally and superficially
161
What makes up the trigeminal/facial reflex arc?
trigeminal nerve: sensory component; Facial nerve: motor component
162
What is the eighth cranial nerve? With what does it deal?
vetibulocochlear nerve, hearing and balance/motion
163
What cranial nerve carries autonomic nerve fibers between the brain and the viscera of the thorax and abdomen?
vagus
164
What motor nerves supply the pharynx to aid in swallowing?
vagus (X) and glossopharyngeal (IX) nerves
165
What is the recurrent laryngeal nerve? What does it innervate?
branch of the vagus, arises in the thorax and extends back to the larynx to innervate the skeletal muscles of the larynx, including the circoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
166
what clinically important nerves pass through the middle ear?
facial nerve and sympathetic fibers
167
What type of nerve fibers does the hypoglossal (CrN 12) carry? What does it innervate?
Motor nerve (somatic); Tongue mm
168
Parasympathetic fibers are carried over what four cranial nerves?
3, 7, 9, 10: Oculomotor, facial, glossphayngeal
169
How does the autonomic nervous system (ANS) work?
without conscious effort t omaintain the homeostasis of the organism
170
What structures does the ANS regulate?
smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, and glands
171
What is the function of each division of the ANS?
parasympathetic: energy conseving (couch potato); Sympathetic: energy spending (flight or fight)
172
Where do the two divisions of the ANS arise?
S: Thoracolumabr outflow; P: craniosacral outflow
173
How does the ANS differ structurally from the somatic nervous system?
2 lower motor (efferent) neurons instead of one
174
What are the two lower motor neurons of the ANS?
preganglionic and postganglionic
175
Where does the preganglionic fiber synapse with the postganglionic efferent fiber in relationship to the CNS?
in ganglia dist to/outside of the CNS
176
What is the parasympathetic innervation to the thorax and most of the abdomen?
Vagus nerve - cranial nerve 10 (X)
177
What is the third eyelid
Fold covering a T-Shaped cartilage in the medial commissure
178
What is the gland of the third eye lid
Accessory gland surrounding the cartilage of the third eyelid
179
What are the two spaces of the eyeball filled with aqueous humor
Anterior and posterior chamber
180
What moves the eyeball
Extrinsic muscle of the eye ball
181
What innervated the orbicularis oculi
facial nerve (CrN 7)
182
What are the three tunics of the eyeball from the inside to the outside
Fibrous, vascular, nervous
183
What are the two components of the fibrious tunic
Cornea and Sclera (white)
184
What is the connection between the cornea and sclera
Corneoscleral junction (limbus)
185
What is the specialized area of the choroid which reflects light back into the eyeball, increasing vision in low light? (night vision)
Tapetal area (tapetum lucidum)
186
Where is the tapetum lucidum located
Superiolateral to optic disc
187
Excluding the optic nerve, which nerve is sensory from the eyball
Trigeminal nerve, CrN5
188
What side of the body or limbs are the following anatomical landmarks (expanded) in which view(s)--the next 15 cards
a
189
apex of the heart
left (VD/ DV/ ventral (L)
190
gas bubble in the fundus of the stomach
left (DV)/dorsal (L)
191
Descending colon
left (VD/DV)
192
Caudal kidney
left (DV/VD), caudal (L)
193
Anticlinal vertebra - vertical vertebrae
usually T11 in dogs (L)
194
Head of the humerus
caudal (L)
195
Radius
cranial (L)
196
Olecranon
caudal (L)
197
Distal end of the ulna
lateral / caudal (L)
198
Accessory carpal bone
lateral & palmar (DP, L, Ob)
199
Dew claw
medial (CrCa)
200
Patella
cranial (L)
201
Fibula
lateral (CrCa)
202
Calcaneus
lateral & plantar (DP, L, Oblique)
203
Fourth tarsal (2-story) bone
lateral (DP)
204
When do the majority of the physes of the limbs close? What are the exceptions?
by 1 year, except the iliac crest (1-2.5 yrs.) and the pelvic symphysis (5-6 yrs.) and possibly the head of the humerus
205
What are the last physes of the shoulder and stifle to close?
head of the humerus (13 mo.) and the tibial tuberosity
206
When does the physis of the anconeal process close?
4-6 months (considered ununited if open at 6 mo.)
207
What is the landmark for locating the heart valves during auscultation?
olecranon/point of the elbow in the 5th intercostal space
208
What is failur of the anconeal process to fuse with the ulna by six months of age?
ununited anconeal process
209
What improper development commonly leads to arthritis of the elbow?
fragmented medial coronoid process
210
What small sesamoid bone on the medial side of the carpus may be mistaken for a chip fracture when seen in radiographs?
sesamoid bone of the oblique carpal extensor (abductor pollicus longus) tendon
211
What must be removed when declawing to prevent regrowth?
dorsal part of the ungual crest
212
Fracture name for bone twisted apart.
spiral fracture
213
What fractures do and do not penetrate through the skin?
compound do, simple don't
214
Fracture where a bone of the skull is pushed inward.
depressed fracture
215
What is the name for the separation of a small fragment of bone where a ligament or tendon attaches?
avulsion fracture
216
Fracture that is a small piece of bone chipped off a bone.
chip fracture
217
Flat piece of bone separates, common in horse carpal bones
slab fracture
218
Fracture that splinters into many fragments.
Comminuted fractures
219
Fracture where the broken end of the bone are driven into each other.
impacted fracture
220
What is inflammation or infection of bone?
osteomyelitis, osteitis
221
What is a piece of dead bone separated from the rest of the bone in osteomyelitis (it must be removed to heal)?
sequestrum
222
Name three of four common sources to harvest cancellous bone?
tibial tuberosity, greater tubercle of the humerus, greater trochanter of the femur, wing of the ileum
223
Why is the median nerve more in danger in the cat than dog if the humerus is fractured? CAT
it is in the supracondylar canal
224
What muscles must be transected to remove the entire forelimb, including the scapula?
all the extrinsic muscle of the forelimb
225
What is atrophy of suprspinatus and infraspinatus muscles causing a prominent scapular spine called, and what causes it?
Sweeney, suprascapular nerve damage
226
What results from radial nerve paralysis of the extensors of the thoracic limb?
inability to stand (the triceps can't extend the elbow), knuckling over of the digits
227
What is the most important layer that must be opposed when closing a paramedian midline incision?
external rectus sheath
228
What is the most important structure to close in a midline incision?
linea alba
229
How would you locate the trachea for an emergency tracheostomy?
skin incision in the ventral neck, separate the strap muscles
230
What muscle and nerve must be functional to bear weight on the pelvic limb?
quadriceps m., femoral nerve
231
What muscles are paralysed with obturator nerve damage, resulting in lateral slipping on a slick surface?
adductor muscle
232
Why does an animal knuckle over on the pelvic limb with fibular (peroneal) nerve damage?
paralysis of the crural extensors - digits
233
What is the only laryngeal muscle which opens the glottic cleft?
cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
234
What muscles must work for the ability to bear weight on the fore- and rear limbs?
triceps brachii and quadratus femoris
235
What muscles does the facial nerve innervate? Which is of clinical significance?
Muscles of facial expression, including the oribularis oculi muscle; contributes to dry eye
236
What muscles are responsible for the animal to rise once down?
adductor muscles; obturator nerve
237
What is the clinical significance of the longus colli muscle?
bundles converge indicating the midline for cervical defenestration of a ruptured disc
238
What is a sign of the madibular nerve and why?
dropped jaw due to paralysis of the muscles of mastication (trigeminal nerve, CrN 5)
239
What causes paralysis of the pharyngeal muscles, and what is a test for it?
paralysis of vagus and or pharyngeal nerves, can't elicit gag response
240
What results in swelling or draining (pus) below the carnivore's eye?
carnassial tooth abscess (upper P4)
241
How is aging dogs by their teeth used practical?
baby teeth in by 6 weeks vaccination; by 6 moths Spay/ Neuter
242
Which dog teeth have three roots?
last 3 on top
243
Which permanent tooth in a cat has 3 roots?
upper PM4 (carnassial)
244
How is a nasogastric tube placed?
through the nostril and ventral nasal meatus or it will break the ethmoid turbinates=nasal bleeding (epistaxis)
245
A laryngotomy to open the larynx goes through which paired muscles to expose the larynx?
sternohyoid mm., middle "strap muscle"
246
The esophagus is accessible to surgery in the ____ half of the neck region on the ____ side.
caudal; left
247
What surgical landmark indicates the ventral midline of the larynx?
cricothyroideus or bow tie muscle
248
Paralysis of what muscle results in "roarers" in horses?
cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
249
How is a tranquilized dog intubated?
gently pull the tongue rostrally, push the soft palate up with the endotracheal tube, hold the epiglottis down with the tube, direct the tube between the vocal folds into the trachea
250
What causes laryngeal paralysis (dog and horses)?
damage to the recurrent laryngeal n. = paralysis of the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle (only muscle to open the glottic cleft), = roaring sound when breathing
251
What is a roarer?
dog or horse with laryngeal paralysis due to recurrent laryngeal nerve damage and resulting paralysis of the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle
252
Which is the most important layer that must be opposed when closing a paramedian midline incision?
external rectus sheath
253
What is the most important structure to close in a midline incision?
linea alba
254
What is an incision opening the abdomen called?
laparotomy or celiotomy incision
255
Name the structures that can be visualized through a xiphoid to pubic celiotomy incision without manipulation, and give their locations.
cranial: falciform ligament; Middle: greater omentum tail of the spleen; Caudal: bladder
256
What abdominal structures can be used to orient abdominal organ locations in your mind and during surgery?
descending duodenum: right side mind; Cecum: surgery, find (blind end) then locate other parts of the intestine in relationship to it
257
How are the abdominal gutters visualized?
pull the duodenum and mesoduodenum or colon and mesocolon medially, packing off the rest of the viscera, to see the right or left "gutters" respectively
258
How would you locate a bleeding ovarian stump during a spay?
pull the descending duodenum or descending colon and their respective mesentery medially and look in the abdominal gutter caudal to the kidney
259
What must be ligated when doing a ovariohysterectomy or spay?
ovarian and uterine arteries
260
How is the ovary moved into the abdominal incision during a spay?
strum the suspensory ligament until it breaks
261
How does the conformation of the bitch's genital tract affect how artificially inseminating or speculum exam is performed?
ventral slope of the caudal reproductive tract = canula or speculum passed dorsally against the dorsal/caudal wall of the vestibule (the instrument tip will be seen pushing the skin of the peritoneum), by passing the clitoral fossa and external urethral orifice; then over the pelvic symphysis and parallel to the symphysis to the opening of the cervix (not into the fornix of the vagina)
262
What may be mistaken for the opening of the cervix during artificial insemination?
fornix of the vagina
263
How many castration incisions are usually made in the dog? Where and why?
one; cranial to the scrotum, to minimize irritation and swelling of the scrotum
264
What is failure of the testicle to enter the scrotum?
cryptorchidism
265
When do the testicles descend into the carnivores?
shortly after birth
266
Define "open" and "closed" castration referred to as applied to castration?
closed = spermatic cord ligated before the parietal vaginal tunic cut; opened = parietal vaginal tunic cut before the spermatic cord ligated
267
What type of castration would you perform, open or closed, if the environment wasn't sterile? Why?
Open, so if infection gets in, it can drain out; if closed, an infection will remain in abdomen (there is always possibility of infection)
268
Define phimosis and paraphimosis.
Stenotic (constricted) prepuce in both, Phimosis: cant protude penis, Paraphimosis penis cant retract
269
Where do calculi/concretion usually lodge to obstruct the urethra in the dog?
proximal to the os penis
270
What is FUS, feline urolithiasis, "plugged-tomcat" syndrome?
calculi blocking the urethra, common emergency in the tomcat. must be unblocked and urine allowed to escape or death
271
What would be seen in right side heart (pulmonic circulation) problems?
blood back up into the body (caudal vena cava, filling the abdomen with fluid [ascites] and into the jugular vein, resulting in a jugular pulse or distention in some species)
272
What would be seen with problems to the left side of the heart?
blood backs up into the lungs (congestion), resulting in coughing and dyspnea (difficult breathing)
273
What is the cranial part of the heart silhouette in a lateral radiograph?
right ventricle (passes from right to left around the cranial side of the heart)
274
Where is the intercostal space incised to open the thorax and why?
in the center to avoid the vessels caudal to the ribs
275
What vessels are of concern in midsternal thoracotomies?
internal thoracic artery and vein
276
How is the intestine cut when doing a resection and anastomoses?
angle cuts toward lesion (antimesenteric > mesenteric side of removed piece)
277
What is the surgical opening of the stomach and where should it be performed? (Why?)
Gastrotomy, between the two curvatures, (minimal blood vessels)
278
What vessel in the roof of the mouth can be opened when extracting teeth?
major palatine artery
279
Why can't a tourniquet be effectively used in the middle of the antebrachium?
caudal interosseous artery is protected from occlusion by its deep position between the bones
280
What vessels are ligated when doing a spay?
vaginal (uterine?) and ovarian vessels
281
What vessel is used as a landmark to find the adrenal gland?
phrenicoabdominal vein
282
What veins are commonly used to bleed cattle?
median caudal (tail) vein, jugular vein
283
To where do neoplastic cells metastasize in the lymph channels?
through heart to lungs
284
To where do hematogenous metastases from the abdominal GI organs go?
via portal vein to liver
285
To where to neoplastic cells metastasize via lymphatics or all veins except those forming the portal vein?
through heart to lungs
286
Where is the heart located in relationship to the intercostal spaces?
between 2 (3)-5 (6) intercostal space
287
How does the olecranon and the intercostal spaces relate when standing?
olecranon roughly at 5th intercostal space or 5th rib
288
What is a memory aid for the heart valves' points of maximum intensity?
PAM 345, rt. AV
289
why can a broken neck result in respiratory paralysis?
Phrenic nerve to the diaphragm arises from the cervical and brachial plexuses
290
What is the panniculus (cutaneous trunci) response?
contraction of the cutaneous trunci muscle in response to a pin prick of the trunch
291
What is the reflex arch for the panniculus response
sensation form the skin of the trunk over the thoracic and lumbar spinal nn. to the spinal cord, up the cord to the lateral thoracic nerve, out to the cutaneous trunci muscle
292
Clinically, what is the panniculus response used to evaluate?
level of the thoracic spinal cord damage
293
Where is the spinal cord damage if the panniculus response is absent caudal to the level of the twelfth thoracic vertebrae?
level of T10
294
For standing large animal flank surgeries, what must be blocked?
both the dorsal and ventral branches of the abdominal nerves (as the dorsal branches are sensory to the top of the flank)
295
What nerve must be considered when removing the anal glands? Why?
Caudal rectal nerve; Damage can result in paralysis of the exterior anal sphincter, thus, fecal incontinence
296
Why is paralysis of the orbicularis oculi and loss of lacrimation the most vital results of facial nerve paralysis?
drying of eye, animals not vain (facial paralysis)
297
Describe the pathophysiology of a laryngeal hemiplegia/roarer/recurrent laryngeal n. damage.
paralysis of the recurrent laryngeal nerve and thus the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis m., (opens the glottic cleft), resulting in a roaring sound when breathing
298
What is a common serious injury of all the nerves of the forelimb?
complete avulsion (tearing) of the brachial plexus associated with HBC (hit by car)
299
What are the signs of complete avulsion of the brachial plexus?
complete paralysis, extended flaccid limb, unable to support weight and dragging dorsum of paw
300
What is Sweeney?
damage to the suprascapular nerve, resulting in paralysis of the supraspinatus and infraspinaturs muscles acutely, thus, lateral instability of the shoulder joint. With time muscle atrophy corrects the instability, but results in a prominent scapular spine most common in horses
301
What is the most common and clinically significant nerve problem of the forelimb?
radial paralysis
302
What are the two types of radial nerve injury?
high and low radial nerve injury
303
What are the signs of high radial nerve paralysis?
inability to bear weight on the limb, dropped elbow and knuckling over on the digits;
304
Signs of low radial nerve damage?
knuckling over digits
305
What sensory loss is diagnostic for radial nerve injury?
loss of sensation on dorsal manus
306
What results from femoral nerve injury and why?
can't bear weight, can't extend stifle-analgesia to medial limb (saphenous nerve)
307
Injury to which nerve causes lateral slipping on a slick surface?
obturator nerve
308
What are the signs of fibular (peroneal) nerve damage?
knuckling over, analgesia of the dorsal pes
309
How does an animal compensate for peroneal nerve damage?
by flipping the paw as advanced
310
What is peroneal (fibular) nerve paralysis similar to in the thoracic limb?
low radial nerve paralysis, knuckling over
311
What is an iatrogenic cause of ischiatic nerve damage, what does it result in?
IM injection in the rear limb, resulting in paresis/paralysis of the rear limb
312
What is a CSF tap and where is it done?
removal of cerebrospinal fluid
313
Where is a CSF tap done?
from subarachnoid space
314
What is epidural anesthesia?
anesthetize the spinal nn. in the epidural space
315
Where is epidural anesthesia commonly given?
through lumbosacral opening (L7-S1) into the epidural space
316
How do you screen for neurological problems?
observing
317
Define proprioception.
sensing movements and position of body parts
318
What is the most common postural reaction used to screen for neurological problems?
proprioceptive positioning (knuckling)
319
What neuro screening test indicates a neurological problem but doesn't localize where the problem is?
proprioceptive positioning (knuckling), postural reaction, (also gait and strength observation)
320
What does loss of proprioception tell you clinically?
Doesn't localize, but a sensitive indication of neurological problem
321
Where is the problem if there are proprioceptive deficits?
anywhere along the proprioceptive pathway
322
Why is mental attitude/consciousness, behavior, and seizures observed in a neuroscreening test?
screen for cerebrum and brain stem problems
323
What does observation of stance and head position of a neuroscreening test check?
cerebellar problem
324
What abnormal stance and head position indicate neurological problems (cerebellum/vestibular system)?
head tilt, wide based stance; head tremor/bobbing
325
Define ataxia.
lack of coordinated movements with or without spasticity or paresis
326
What can cause ataxia?
lesions of the entire nervous system, not specific, shows up frequently, indicative of a nervous problem
327
What does gait and strength observation evaluate?
entire nervous system
328
What does abnormalities in gait indicate in a neurological screening?
nervous system problem (cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem, spinal cord, peripheral nerves, or vestibular lesions)
329
Do gait abnormalities localize a neurological lesion?
no, just a neurological problem that can be anywhere
330
How is strength tested during a neurological exam?
push down on the standing animal
331
What does weakness indicate during a neurological screening?
nervous problem somewhere other than the cerebellum or peripheral vestibular system (cerebrum, brain stem or spinal cord injuries, peripheral nerves)
332
What is the only part of the nervous system that will not result in weakness?
cerebellum (and peripheral vestibular system)
333
What is done once screening indicates a neurological problem?
do other procedures to localize the lesion
334
Define paralysis.
complete loss of motor activity
335
Define paresis.
weakness, partial loss of voluntary motor activity
336
Differentiate flaccid and spastic paresis or paralysis.
flaccid: decreased or no tone in the muscles; Spastic: increased tone/hypertonicity
337
What is the affect of UMNs damage on LMNs?
LMNs increase their activity
338
To where do LMN signs localize the lesion?
peripheral nerves, spinal cord or segment of brain stem the LMN arises from
339
Define: flaccid paresis or paralysis
Decreased or no tone with paresis or paraysis due to lesions of UMN
340
Define: spastic paresis or paralysis
Extra tone (hypertonicity) with paresis or paralysis due to lesions of UMN
341
What does pointing your thumb down in LMN damage indicate?
everything decreased or disappears
342
List 4 LMN disease signs (thumb down).
decreased or absent tone (hypotonia to atonia); decreased to absent reflexes (hypo- to areflexia); flaccid paralysis; rapid (neurogenic) atrophy
343
List 4 UMN disease signs (thumb up)
normal to increased muscle tone; Normal to increased reflexes hyereflexia; spastic paresis to paralysis; slow (disuse) atrophy
344
How are the reflexes checked for the limbs?
withdrawal reflex
345
How is a withdrawal reflex performed?
pinch (pain) the toe; normal response=withdrawal of the limb
346
How is tone evaluated?
palpate the muscles of the limbs
347
Define Schiff-Sherington syndrome.
hyperextension of the forelimbs with serious lesions to the thoracic spinal cord (T3-L3) (area 3)
348
What causes Schiff-Sherrington syndrome?
serious damage to area L1-4 removes inhibition normally provided by neurons (in L1-4) ascending to inhibit extensor lower motor neurons to the forelimb
349
What sign is indicative of serious lesions in T3-L3?
Schiff-Sherrington syndrome (hyperextension of forelimbs)
350
What type of sign is Schiff-Scherrington syndrome?
bad prognostically
351
Localize the lesion: flaccis paraylsis, absent felexes and tone, and rapid atrophy to the pelvic limbs with normal thoracic limbs
L4-S1 spinal cord lesion (area 4) (lMS signs to pelvic limbs, normal thoracic limbs)
352
Localize the lesion: spastic paresis, increased refelexes and tone to the left thoracic limb
Unilateral C6-T1 (area2) on the left (LMN left thoracic and UMN: left pelvic limb)
