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Anatomy > Q&A Back > Flashcards

Q&A Back Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two major parts of the typical vertebra

A

Body and arch

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2
Q

List the seven processes of a typical vertebra

A

1: Spine, 2: Transverse processes, 4: articular (2 cranial 2 caudal)

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3
Q

Where do the spinal nerves leave the vertebral column

A

intervertebral foramen

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4
Q

What is formed by all of the vertebral foramina of all the vertebrae

A

Vertebral Canal

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5
Q

What is the laminae of the vertebrae

A

Roof (top of arch) of vertebral foramen

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6
Q

What is the ineracuate space

A

Dorsal gap between adjacent arches

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7
Q

With what does the atlas C1 articulate

A

Occipital condyles of skull

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8
Q

What are the large lateral masses of the atlas

A

wings of the atlas

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9
Q

What peg-like process on the axis forms a pivot articulation with the atlas

A

Dens

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10
Q

What is the large ventral projection of the sixth cervical vertebrae

A

Transverse process (sled)

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11
Q

What joint is formed by the atlas of the skull

A

Atlanto-occipital joint (yes joint)

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12
Q

The articulation of the axis with the atlas is known as the ____ joint

A

Atlantoaxial joint (no joint)

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13
Q

Name the fibrocartilage between the bodies of adjacent vertebra

A

intervertebral disc

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14
Q

What are the two parts of the intervertebral disc

A

Annulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus

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15
Q

What elastic connective tissue structure attaches the 1st thoracic spine to the spine of the axis C2 in the dog

A

Nuchal ligament, none in cat

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16
Q

What elastic tissue fills the dorsal space (inerarcuate space) between the arches of adjacent veterebra

A

Ligamentum flavum, interarcuate, or yellow ligament

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17
Q

What connects the heads of a pair of opposite ribs, crossing the dorsal part of the intervertebral discs

A

Intercapital ligament

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18
Q

What are the two paired strapped muscles of the neck

A

Sternohyoideus & Sternothyroideus mm.

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19
Q

Name the muscle extending from the sternum to the head

A

sternocephalicus m.

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20
Q

what forms “envelops” around the muscles of the neck

A

Deep fascia of the neck

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21
Q

What muscles are above the transverse processes of the vertebra

A

Epaxial mm.

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22
Q

Name the two major epaxial muscles of the back

A

Iliocostalis & longissimus mm.

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23
Q

What muscles are below the transverse processes of the vertebra

A

Hypaxial m

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24
Q

What is the hypaxial muscle in the neck and cranial thorax

A

Longus coli

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25
Q

What is the main hypaxial/ sub lumbar muscle of the abdomen

A

Psoas major m

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26
Q

Where is the common carotid artery located

A

Beside the trachea in the carotid sheath

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27
Q

What glandular structure are under the omotransversarius muscle just cranial to the shoulder

A

Superficial cervical lymph node

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28
Q

List the two important structures enclosed in the carotid sheath

A

Common carotid and vagosympathetic trunk

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29
Q

Where is the esophagus located in the middle of the neck

A

on the left

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30
Q

What is the gland just caudal to the larynx on the trachea

A

thyroid gland

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31
Q

What is the part of the hyoid apparatus crossing the midline

A

basihyoid bone

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32
Q

Name the five divisions of the spinal cord

A

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, caudal

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33
Q

What are the ascending and defending tracks of the spinal cord and what do they carry

A

Ascending: sensory information
Descending: upper motor neurons, motor information

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34
Q

Where does the spinal cord end in a dog? cat? human?

A

Dog: L6 (6-7) Cats: S1-S3 Human: L2

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35
Q

Ventral beaches of the spinal nerves interlace to form ___.

A

Plexuses

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36
Q

What nerves travels along the dorsal border of the omotransversarius muscle

A

Accessory n. (CN 11)

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37
Q

What plexus supplies some of the extrinsic and all of the intrinsic muscles of the thoracic limb

A

brachial

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38
Q

Plexuses are formed by the ventral branches of spinal nerves in every region except which

A

Thorax (except T1-2)= intercostal nn.

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39
Q

The ventral branches of the thoracic nerves T3-L3 do not form a plexus, but pass in the intercostal spaces as _____ nerves

A

Intercostal nn.

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40
Q

What plexuses supplies the abdominal wall, pelvic limb, external genitalia, rump, and perineum

A

lumbosacral plexus

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41
Q

What forms the spinal nerve? into what do spinal nerves divide

A

Roots (dorsal and ventral ), branches (dorsal and ventral )

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42
Q

How do spinal nerves leave the vertebral canal

A

intervertebral foramen

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43
Q

What spinal nerve branches supply sensation from the skin of the abdominal wall

A

Dorsal: upper flank (including area below transverse processes), ventral: rest

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44
Q

What are the 6 major regions of the spinal cord

A
  • Cranial Cervical (C1-C5)
  • Cervical enlargement (C6-T1)
  • Thoracic & Cranial lumbar (T2-L3)
  • Sacral (S2-3)
  • Caudal (Ca1-5)
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45
Q

What does the sacral region of the spinal cord supply

A

reflex control of urination, dedication, sexual reflexes, and parasympathetic outflow

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46
Q

What is the function of proprioceptive fibers

A

Sense position of body parts to each other & to environment

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47
Q

Over what structures do proprioceptive fibers travel

A

Peripheral nn., spinal cord, brain stem to cerebellum, and cerebrum

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48
Q

What is a dermatome? autonomous zone?

A

Area of skin innervated by a nerve, only 1 spinal n. respectively

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49
Q

What are upper and lower motor neurons

A

LMN: leave CNS as peripheral nerves
UMN: in CNS, affect LMN

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50
Q

What is the function of most UMN

A

inhibit spontaneous activity of LMN until action is desired

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51
Q

LMN’S are _____ _____ without the input of UMN

A

spontaneously active

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52
Q

list the meninges from outer to inner

A

Dura matter, arachnoid, and Pia Matter

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53
Q

List the spaces that are related to the meninges

A
  • Epidural: between dura mater & periosteum
  • Subdural: potential space between the dura mater and the arachnoid
  • Subarachnoid space: between the pia and the arachnoid
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54
Q

What is the enlargement of the subarachnoid space between the medulla oblongata and cerebellum

A

Cisterna Magna (cerebellomedullary cistern)

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55
Q

What fills the gap between the dorsal edge of the foramen magnum and the atlas

A

Dorsal atlanto-occipital membrane

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56
Q

What is the unpaired artery running longitudinally on the vertebral canal floor in the ventral median fissure the length of the spinal cord

A

Ventral spinal artery

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57
Q

What are the paired thin walled, valveless vessels on the vertebral canal floor in the epidural space from the skull to the caudal vertebrae

A

internal vertebral venous plexus

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58
Q

What are the vessels located on the ventral surface of the tail

A

Median caudal artery and vein

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59
Q

How are the dorsal and ventral edges of the vertebral canal checked in back radiographs

A

check for the alignment, they should be two straight lines without step defects

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60
Q

What should be evaluated in the area of the axis and atlas

A

The dens (odontoid process), it should be present and held in the ventral vertebral canal

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61
Q

Describe the appearance of the intervertebral foramen (consider windows of the spinal cord)

A

Look like snoopy’s little bird buddy woodstock or a horse head profile

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62
Q

How are the intervertebral foramen compared in back radiographs

A

For differences due to disc space differences

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63
Q

What is the landmark in a lateral film of the caudal neck

A

“SLEDS” or transverse process of C6

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64
Q

How does a myelogram appear

A

Subarachnoid space lights up = two white lines (columns) separated by a space (the invisible spinal cord)

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65
Q

What may narrowing of the intervertebral space indicate

A

protruded disc

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66
Q

What is the myelogram finding for Intradural lesion

A

Widening of subarachnoid space, +- expanded cord/thinned columns in other view

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67
Q

What is the myelogram finding for Intramedullary lesion

A

Expanded cord/thinned columns in all views

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68
Q

What is the disease of the cervical vertebrae in large breeds causing stenosis of the vertebral canal resulting in ataxia

A

Cervical Sponylomyelopathy, canine wobbler disease

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69
Q

What is excessive ventral lumbar curvature

A

Lordosis (sway back)

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70
Q

What is an excessive thoracic curvature

A

Kyphosis (hunchback in humans)

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71
Q

What is the lateral curvature to the spine

A

Scoliosis

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72
Q

What is the clinical problem would a fractured dens cause

A

Spinal cord injury

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73
Q

What is the removal of the right or left dorsal vertebral arch (lamina) to relieve pressure in the spinal canal

A

Hemilaminectomy

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74
Q

What is a hemivertebra

A

Wedge-shaped vertebrae resulting in severe angulation to the spine in thoracolumbar area

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75
Q

Define and give another name for wobblers disease

A

Cervicalspondylomyelopathy: cervical spinal cord compression

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76
Q

What are seen radiographically with spondylosis

A

Spurs: osteophytes intervertrebral spaces
Bridges: ankylose vertebrae

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77
Q

What is diskospondylitis

A

Infection of the IV discs and adjacent vertebrae

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78
Q

What is another name for vertebral osteomyelitis/ vertebral abscess

A

Spondylitis

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79
Q

What is spina bifida

A

Failure of 1 more vertebrae arches to close

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80
Q

To what is the atlantoaxial subluxation due

A

Absence, malformation, failure to ossify or insufficient ligamentous support of the dens, rupture of ligaments of dens or fracture of dens

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81
Q

What is instability of C1-C2 joint

A

Atlantoaxial subluxation

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82
Q

What does atlantoaxial subluxation cause

A

Compression of spinal cord due to dorsal displacement of dens results in cervical pain (hyperesthesia) and motor dysfunction

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83
Q

Basically what are the two types of intervertebral disease

A

Type 1: disc rupture

Type 2: disc bulging

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84
Q

A slipped disc results when the soft ____ ____ is squeezed to one side of the disc, causing the firm ____ ____ to protrude and possibly rupture

A
  • Nucleus pulposa

- annulus fibrosis

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85
Q

what can a slipped disc protruding into the vertebral canal compress

A

Spinal nerves or spinal cord itself

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86
Q

where is the annulus fibrosis the thinnest

A

Dorsally

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87
Q

Why don’t intervertebral disc commonly impinge on nerves in the most of the thoracic region

A

protection of the inter capital ligament

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88
Q

Where is the rupture of an intervertebral disc common

A

thoracolumbar junction (T11-L2)

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89
Q

What is the removal of remaining nucleus pulpous from a ruptured disc

A

disc fenestration

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90
Q

What is the surgery for cervical disc disease

A

Ventral decompression through the longs coli muscle to remove extruded disc

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91
Q

What is the surgery for thoracolumbar disc disease

A

Dorsal laminectomy/hemilaminectomy and fenestration (remove nucleus pulposus)

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92
Q

What is atlantoaxial subluxation/instability

A

Instability of C1-C2 joint due to dens problems

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93
Q

How would you place a tube for an emergency tracheostomy/tracheotomy

A

Skin incision in the ventral neck, separate the strap mm, cut between the cartilages of the trachea, insert tube

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94
Q

Why can a broken neck result in respiratory paralysis

A

Phrenic nerve to diaphragm arises from brachial and cervical plexus

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95
Q

What is a trans tracheal wash

A

injection and aspiration of material into and from the trachea for lab work

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96
Q

What are common locations for esophageal foreign bodies

A

Esophageal opening, thoracic inlet, over the base of the heart, & in front of the diaphragm

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97
Q

how should you feel about doing an esophagostomy

A

always avoid when possible as esophagus heals poorly and strictures are common

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98
Q

what can facilitate the spread of an infection from the neck to the thorax

A

fascial planes

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99
Q

how are the deeper structures reached relatively free from bleeding

A

use fascial planes as cleavage planes

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100
Q

describe hoe subcutaneous injection is given into the back

A

tent the skin at junction of the neck and back and slip the needle in the subcutaneous tissue

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101
Q

describe tenting of the skin to access dehydration of a patient

A

pull the skin over the shoulders. Well hydrated: skin should immediately, smoothly return
Dehydrated: remains tented for a period

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102
Q

What is a myelogram

A

injecting contrast medium into the subarachnoid space and radiographing

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103
Q

describe how a spinal tap or a myelogram is done with a spinal needle

A

Flex neck

  • palpate: wings (atlas), spine (axis), and external occipital protuberance
  • Needle: midline 1/2’’ cranial to line between wings, parallel to the caudal skull
  • Feel “pop” (dorsal atlanto-occipital ligament) and immediately stop
  • Pull out stylet and look for CSF fluid in the hub =right place
  • If hit bone, pull out and start again or walk needle off bone into the space
  • CSF tap: collect CSF for analysis
  • myelogram: collect CSF for analysis then inject contrast medium
104
Q

Where are CSF taps performed

A

cisterna magna or lumbar cistern

105
Q

Where is a lumbar CSF tap or myelogram performed in the dog and cat

A

L5-6 or forward or back one space

106
Q

What are the landmarks used for cerebrospinal fluid taps at the atlanto-occipital junction

A

wings of the atlas, external occipital protuberance, and spine of the axis

107
Q

Describe doing a thoracolumbar myelogram of CSF (spinal tap)

A

Needle between L5-6 spines
-through yellow ligament into spinal canal
midline critical
-through canal through vertebrae
-withdraw needle a little (mm) into ventral subarachnoid space
-remove stylet to see CSF in hub if correct
-CSF tap: collect
-Myelogram: collect CSF, then inject contrast

108
Q

Where is epidural anesthesia given

A

through lumbrosacral space into epidural space

109
Q

what is the lumbrosacral space

A

interarcurate space between last lumbar vertebrae (L7) and sacrum

110
Q

Describe procedure for a epidural in the dog

A

Thumb & third finger on cranial end of sacral tuberosities

  • paloate space between last lumbar spinous process (L7) and sacrum
  • needle perpendicular “pop” through yellow ligament into epidural space
111
Q

what are the clinical signs of meningitis

A

cervical rigidity (due to pain) fever, and lameness

112
Q

what is the term for meningitis associated with inflammation of the underlying spinal cord

A

menigomyelitis

113
Q

How do lumbar, sacral, and caudal spinal cord segments and the vertebrae relate?

A

they don’t correlate with the vertebrae of same number caudal to L4

114
Q

Why is it important to know relationship btwn lumbar spinal cord segments and the vertebrae the overlie?

A

to localize spinal cord lesions

115
Q

What is an easy way to remember where spinal cord segments lie in relationship to the vertebrae of the same number?

A

L3 over vertebrae L3

sacral segments over 5th vertebrae in DOG, sacrum in CAT

116
Q

Where is the lesion if proprioception is lost?

A 
peripheral nerve
spinal cord
brain stem
cerebrum
cerebellum 
ANYWHERE!
117
Q

Does loss of proprioception localize the lesion?

A

No, but a sensitive indication of neurological problem

118
Q

How is proprioception evaluated clinically?

A

postural reactions ie knuckle paw

119
Q

Describe proprioceptive placing reaction in the dog/cat.

A

placing the animal’s weight on its dorsal paw should result in immediate adjustment to normal placement

120
Q

How can knowing the spinal segments innervating myotomes and dermatomes be used clinically?

A

used to localize lesions

121
Q

Why should you palpate the entire body’s muscles?

A

check for muscle atrophy (head and limbs)

122
Q

Why is a patellar tap preformed in a physical exam?

A

test reflex arc of pelvic limb

123
Q

What easy, reliable reflexes are tested for peripheral reflex arcs?

A

patellar tap
anal spincter
tail tone
withdrawal reflex

124
Q

How is the withdrawal reflex tested in a screening physical?

A

pinch toes of all 4 limbs

125
Q

Where does gait deficits without “head signs” localize the lesion?

A

To spinal cord, peripheral nerves, neuromuscular junction, or diffuse muscular lesion.

126
Q

What is the term for weakness?

A

paresis

127
Q

What is complete to partial loss of voluntary motor activity?

A

paralysis and paresis

128
Q

What suffixes are used to describe paresis and paralysis, respectively?

A

paresis, -plegia

129
Q

Define monoparesis or monoplegia.

A

only one limb involved

130
Q

Define hemiparesis or hemiplegia

A

both limbs on one side affected

131
Q

Define tetraparesis/quadraparesis or tetraplegia/quadriplegia

A

all 4 limbs involved

132
Q

Define paraparesis or paraplegia:

A

only the pelvic limbs are involved

133
Q

What is the effect of UMN damage on LMN?

A

LMNs increase activity

134
Q

What localizes a lesion to the peripheral nerves, spinal cord, or segment of brain stem LMNs arise from.

A

LMN signs

135
Q

What is the memory aid for LMN signs?

A

Pointing your thumb down= everything decreased or dissappears

136
Q

List 4 LMN signs.

A
  1. decreased or absent muscle tone (hypotonia to atonia)
  2. decreased to absent reflexes (hyporeflexia to areflexia)
  3. flaccid paralysis
  4. rapid atrophy (neurogenic, 1 week)
137
Q

List 4 UMN signs.

A
  1. normal to increased muscle tone (hypertonia)
  2. normal to increased reflexes ( hyperreflexia)
  3. spastic paresis to paralysis
  4. slow atrophy
138
Q

What is Shiff-Sherrington syndrome?

A

hyperextension of forelimbs with lesions to the thoracic spinal cord T3-L3

139
Q

Localize the lesion: UMN signs pelvic limbs, LMN signs to thoracic limb

A

C6-T1 area 2

140
Q

Localize the lesion : UMN to all limbs

A

C1-C5 area 1

141
Q

localize the lesion : UMN to left pelvic, normal thoracic

A

T3- L3 area 3 on left

142
Q

Localize the lesion: UMN signs to pelvic limb, hyperextended thoracic limbs

A

T3- L3 area 3 + Shiff-Sherington

143
Q

List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord:

C1-5 spinal cord area 1

A

No LMN signs to either limb. UMN and loss of proprioception to all 4 limbs

144
Q

List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord:

Cervical enlargement C6-T2 area 2

A

LMN and loss of proprioception to thoracic limb

UMN and loss of proprioception to pelvic limb

145
Q

List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord:

T3-L3 area 3

A

Normal thoracic limb +/- Shiff-Sherrington

UMN and loss of proprioception to pelvic limb

146
Q

List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord:

L4-S1 area 4

A

No effect on thoracic limb

LMN and loss of proprioception to pelvic limb

147
Q

What do ascending sensory/afferent tracts carry?

A

Sensory information including superficial and deep pain and proprioception

148
Q

What is indicated if a toe pinch elicits a withdrawal of a limb but no behavioral change?

A

Spinal cord or brain stem lesion cranial to reflex center

149
Q

What type of prognostic sign is loss of deep pain?

A

bad prognostic sign

150
Q

What is usually the first sign in spinal cord compression?

A

loss of proprioception

151
Q

Localize the lesion: loss of proprioception in the pelvic limb, normal thoracic limb proprioception.

A

btwn T1 and S1

152
Q

What is the cutaneous trunci (panniculus) reflex?

A

normal reflex: contraction of cutaneous trunci m. in response to pin prick of trunk

153
Q

What is the pathway of the panniculus reflex?

A

sensation of skin of trunk over thoracic and lumbar spinal nn. to spinal cord, up cord to lateral thoracic nerve (C8) and out to cutaneous trunci m.

154
Q

Clinically what is the panniculus response used to evaluate?

A

level of thoracic spinal cord damage

155
Q

Where is the spinal cord damage if the panniculus response is absent caudal to the level of the 10 thoracic vertebrae?

A

level of T8

156
Q

Where are the dermatomes of the cutaneous trunci response located?

A

1 or 2 vertebrae caudal to level of innervating cord segment

157
Q

What vessel is often used to bleed cattle?

A

median caudal vein

158
Q

What is the second most common place for venipuncture in the dog?

A

jugular vein

159
Q

Why, unlike in the large species is the external jugular hard to puncture in dogs and cats?

A

not held in the jugular groove so moves

160
Q

Why is the jugular vein often used preferentially in venipuncture?

A

saves easier cephalic vein for ER

161
Q

What is the sight for CSF puncture to obtain fluid from cisterna magna.

A

Where the line across the cranial end of the wings of the atlas crosses the midline.

162
Q

What is significant about the middle location of the cervical vertebrae?

A

creates a triangle of muscles above that can be used for IM injections in large animals

163
Q

What is the disease of the cervical vertebrae in large breeds causing stenosis of the vertebral canal resulting in ataxia

A

Cervical Sponylomyelopathy, canine wobbler disease

164
Q

What is excessive ventral lumbar curvature

A

Lordosis (sway back)

165
Q

What is an excessive thoracic curvature

A

Kyphosis (hunchback in humans)

166
Q

What is the lateral curvature to the spine

A

Scoliosis

167
Q

What is the clinical problem would a fractured dens cause

A

Spinal cord injury

168
Q

What is the removal of the right or left dorsal vertebral arch (lamina) to relieve pressure in the spinal canal

A

Hemilaminectomy

169
Q

What is a hemivertebra

A

Wedge-shaped vertebrae resulting in severe angulation to the spine in thoracolumbar area

170
Q

Define and give another name for wobblers disease

A

Cervicalspondylomyelopathy: cervical spinal cord compression

171
Q

What are seen radiographically with spondylosis

A

Spurs: osteophytes intervertrebral spaces
Bridges: ankylose vertebrae

172
Q

What is diskospondylitis

A

Infection of the IV discs and adjacent vertebrae

173
Q

What is another name for vertebral osteomyelitis/ vertebral abscess

A

Spondylitis

174
Q

What is spina bifida

A

Failure of 1 more vertebrae arches to close

175
Q

To what is the atlantoaxial subluxation due

A

Absence, malformation, failure to ossify or insufficient ligamentous support of the dens, rupture of ligaments of dens or fracture of dens

176
Q

What is instability of C1-C2 joint

A

Atlantoaxial subluxation

177
Q

What does atlantoaxial subluxation cause

A

Compression of spinal cord due to dorsal displacement of dens results in cervical pain (hyperesthesia) and motor dysfunction

178
Q

Basically what are the two types of intervertebral disease

A

Type 1: disc rupture

Type 2: disc bulging

179
Q

A slipped disc results when the soft ____ ____ is squeezed to one side of the disc, causing the firm ____ ____ to protrude and possibly rupture

A
  • Nucleus pulposa

- annulus fibrosis

180
Q

what can a slipped disc protruding into the vertebral canal compress

A

Spinal nerves or spinal cord itself

181
Q

where is the annulus fibrosis the thinnest

A

Dorsally

182
Q

Why don’t intervertebral disc commonly impinge on nerves in the most of the thoracic region

A

protection of the inter capital ligament

183
Q

Where is the rupture of an intervertebral disc common

A

thoracolumbar junction (T11-L2)

184
Q

What is the removal of remaining nucleus pulpous from a ruptured disc

A

disc fenestration

185
Q

What is the surgery for cervical disc disease

A

Ventral decompression through the longs coli muscle to remove extruded disc

186
Q

What is the surgery for thoracolumbar disc disease

A

Dorsal laminectomy/hemilaminectomy and fenestration (remove nucleus pulposus)

187
Q

What is atlantoaxial subluxation/instability

A

Instability of C1-C2 joint due to dens problems

188
Q

How would you place a tube for an emergency tracheostomy/tracheotomy

A

Skin incision in the ventral neck, separate the strap mm, cut between the cartilages of the trachea, insert tube

189
Q

Why can a broken neck result in respiratory paralysis

A

Phrenic nerve to diaphragm arises from brachial and cervical plexus

190
Q

What is a trans tracheal wash

A

injection and aspiration of material into and from the trachea for lab work

191
Q

What are common locations for esophageal foreign bodies

A

Esophageal opening, thoracic inlet, over the base of the heart, & in front of the diaphragm

192
Q

how should you feel about doing an esophagostomy

A

always avoid when possible as esophagus heals poorly and strictures are common

193
Q

what can facilitate the spread of an infection from the neck to the thorax

A

fascial planes

194
Q

how are the deeper structures reached relatively free from bleeding

A

use fascial planes as cleavage planes

195
Q

describe hoe subcutaneous injection is given into the back

A

tent the skin at junction of the neck and back and slip the needle in the subcutaneous tissue

196
Q

describe tenting of the skin to access dehydration of a patient

A

pull the skin over the shoulders. Well hydrated: skin should immediately, smoothly return
Dehydrated: remains tented for a period

197
Q

What is a myelogram

A

injecting contrast medium into the subarachnoid space and radiographing

198
Q

describe how a spinal tap or a myelogram is done with a spinal needle

A

Flex neck

  • palpate: wings (atlas), spine (axis), and external occipital protuberance
  • Needle: midline 1/2’’ cranial to line between wings, parallel to the caudal skull
  • Feel “pop” (dorsal atlanto-occipital ligament) and immediately stop
  • Pull out stylet and look for CSF fluid in the hub =right place
  • If hit bone, pull out and start again or walk needle off bone into the space
  • CSF tap: collect CSF for analysis
  • myelogram: collect CSF for analysis then inject contrast medium
199
Q

Where are CSF taps performed

A

cisterna magna or lumbar cistern

200
Q

Where is a lumbar CSF tap or myelogram performed in the dog and cat

A

L5-6 or forward or back one space

201
Q

What are the landmarks used for cerebrospinal fluid taps at the atlanto-occipital junction

A

wings of the atlas, external occipital protuberance, and spine of the axis

202
Q

Describe doing a thoracolumbar myelogram of CSF (spinal tap)

A

Needle between L5-6 spines
-through yellow ligament into spinal canal
midline critical
-through canal through vertebrae
-withdraw needle a little (mm) into ventral subarachnoid space
-remove stylet to see CSF in hub if correct
-CSF tap: collect
-Myelogram: collect CSF, then inject contrast

203
Q

Where is epidural anesthesia given

A

through lumbrosacral space into epidural space

204
Q

what is the lumbrosacral space

A

interarcurate space between last lumbar vertebrae (L7) and sacrum

205
Q

Describe procedure for a epidural in the dog

A

Thumb & third finger on cranial end of sacral tuberosities

  • paloate space between last lumbar spinous process (L7) and sacrum
  • needle perpendicular “pop” through yellow ligament into epidural space
206
Q

what are the clinical signs of meningitis

A

cervical rigidity (due to pain) fever, and lameness

207
Q

what is the term for meningitis associated with inflammation of the underlying spinal cord

A

menigomyelitis

208
Q

How do lumbar, sacral, and caudal spinal cord segments and the vertebrae relate?

A

they don’t correlate with the vertebrae of same number caudal to L4

209
Q

Why is it important to know relationship btwn lumbar spinal cord segments and the vertebrae the overlie?

A

to localize spinal cord lesions

210
Q

What is an easy way to remember where spinal cord segments lie in relationship to the vertebrae of the same number?

A

L3 over vertebrae L3

sacral segments over 5th vertebrae in DOG, sacrum in CAT

211
Q

Where is the lesion if proprioception is lost?

A 
peripheral nerve
spinal cord
brain stem
cerebrum
cerebellum 
ANYWHERE!
212
Q

Does loss of proprioception localize the lesion?

A

No, but a sensitive indication of neurological problem

213
Q

How is proprioception evaluated clinically?

A

postural reactions ie knuckle paw

214
Q

Describe proprioceptive placing reaction in the dog/cat.

A

placing the animal’s weight on its dorsal paw should result in immediate adjustment to normal placement

215
Q

How can knowing the spinal segments innervating myotomes and dermatomes be used clinically?

A

used to localize lesions

216
Q

Why should you palpate the entire body’s muscles?

A

check for muscle atrophy (head and limbs)

217
Q

Why is a patellar tap preformed in a physical exam?

A

test reflex arc of pelvic limb

218
Q

What easy, reliable reflexes are tested for peripheral reflex arcs?

A

patellar tap
anal spincter
tail tone
withdrawal reflex

219
Q

How is the withdrawal reflex tested in a screening physical?

A

pinch toes of all 4 limbs

220
Q

Where does gait deficits without “head signs” localize the lesion?

A

To spinal cord, peripheral nerves, neuromuscular junction, or diffuse muscular lesion.

221
Q

What is the term for weakness?

A

paresis

222
Q

What is complete to partial loss of voluntary motor activity?

A

paralysis and paresis

223
Q

What suffixes are used to describe paresis and paralysis, respectively?

A

paresis, -plegia

224
Q

Define monoparesis or monoplegia.

A

only one limb involved

225
Q

Define hemiparesis or hemiplegia

A

both limbs on one side affected

226
Q

Define tetraparesis/quadraparesis or tetraplegia/quadriplegia

A

all 4 limbs involved

227
Q

Define paraparesis or paraplegia:

A

only the pelvic limbs are involved

228
Q

What is the effect of UMN damage on LMN?

A

LMNs increase activity

229
Q

What localizes a lesion to the peripheral nerves, spinal cord, or segment of brain stem LMNs arise from.

A

LMN signs

230
Q

What is the memory aid for LMN signs?

A

Pointing your thumb down= everything decreased or dissappears

231
Q

List 4 LMN signs.

A
  1. decreased or absent muscle tone (hypotonia to atonia)
  2. decreased to absent reflexes (hyporeflexia to areflexia)
  3. flaccid paralysis
  4. rapid atrophy (neurogenic, 1 week)
232
Q

List 4 UMN signs.

A
  1. normal to increased muscle tone (hypertonia)
  2. normal to increased reflexes ( hyperreflexia)
  3. spastic paresis to paralysis
  4. slow atrophy
233
Q

What is Shiff-Sherrington syndrome?

A

hyperextension of forelimbs with lesions to the thoracic spinal cord T3-L3

234
Q

Localize the lesion: UMN signs pelvic limbs, LMN signs to thoracic limb

A

C6-T1 area 2

235
Q

Localize the lesion : UMN to all limbs

A

C1-C5 area 1

236
Q

localize the lesion : UMN to left pelvic, normal thoracic

A

T3- L3 area 3 on left

237
Q

Localize the lesion: UMN signs to pelvic limb, hyperextended thoracic limbs

A

T3- L3 area 3 + Shiff-Sherington

238
Q

List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord:

C1-5 spinal cord area 1

A

No LMN signs to either limb. UMN and loss of proprioception to all 4 limbs

239
Q

List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord:

Cervical enlargement C6-T2 area 2

A

LMN and loss of proprioception to thoracic limb

UMN and loss of proprioception to pelvic limb

240
Q

List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord:

T3-L3 area 3

A

Normal thoracic limb +/- Shiff-Sherrington

UMN and loss of proprioception to pelvic limb

241
Q

List presenting signs to transection of the spinal cord:

L4-S1 area 4

A

No effect on thoracic limb

LMN and loss of proprioception to pelvic limb

242
Q

What do ascending sensory/afferent tracts carry?

A

Sensory information including superficial and deep pain and proprioception

243
Q

What is indicated if a toe pinch elicits a withdrawal of a limb but no behavioral change?

A

Spinal cord or brain stem lesion cranial to reflex center

244
Q

What type of prognostic sign is loss of deep pain?

A

bad prognostic sign

245
Q

What is usually the first sign in spinal cord compression?

A

loss of proprioception

246
Q

Localize the lesion: loss of proprioception in the pelvic limb, normal thoracic limb proprioception.

A

btwn T1 and S1

247
Q

What is the cutaneous trunci (panniculus) reflex?

A

normal reflex: contraction of cutaneous trunci m. in response to pin prick of trunk

248
Q

What is the pathway of the panniculus reflex?

A

sensation of skin of trunk over thoracic and lumbar spinal nn. to spinal cord, up cord to lateral thoracic nerve (C8) and out to cutaneous trunci m.

249
Q

Clinically what is the panniculus response used to evaluate?

A

level of thoracic spinal cord damage

250
Q

Where is the spinal cord damage if the panniculus response is absent caudal to the level of the 10 thoracic vertebrae?

A

level of T8

251
Q

Where are the dermatomes of the cutaneous trunci response located?

A

1 or 2 vertebrae caudal to level of innervating cord segment

252
Q

What vessel is often used to bleed cattle?

A

median caudal vein

253
Q

What is the second most common place for venipuncture in the dog?

A

jugular vein

254
Q

Why, unlike in the large species is the external jugular hard to puncture in dogs and cats?

A

not held in the jugular groove so moves

255
Q

Why is the jugular vein often used preferentially in venipuncture?

A

saves easier cephalic vein for ER

256
Q

What is the sight for CSF puncture to obtain fluid from cisterna magna.

A

Where the line across the cranial end of the wings of the atlas crosses the midline.

257
Q

What is significant about the middle location of the cervical vertebrae?

A

creates a triangle of muscles above that can be used for IM injections in large animals

Anatomy (32 decks)

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